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CBT Flashcards

1
Q

Min pavement width for u turn?

A

56.5m

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2
Q

Max alt

A

43100ft

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3
Q

Max speed

A

330kts 0.87mach

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4
Q

Which controls have manual backup?

A

Pitch trim, single spoiler each side

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5
Q

Which anti ice is automatic?

A

Wing and nacelle.

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6
Q

What does the APU provide?

A

Electric power at all levels and bleed air on the ground and up to 22000ft

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7
Q

Brakes are what type?

A

Carbon brakes

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8
Q

Is the gear steerable?

A

Yes the rear axle on each main and the nose.

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9
Q

Where can datalink receive info from?

A

VHF, HF, satellite

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10
Q

Is there a way of locating the main gear from the camera if it cannot be seen?

A

Yes, the black lines on the wings indicate the outer edge of the main gear wheels.

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11
Q

To operate camera lights, what must happen?

A

The camera light switch must be on and the beacon must be on.

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12
Q

What does the door 1 upper crew rest contain?

A

2beds and seats, interphone, emergency hatch, emergency equipment, passenger control units, smoke detectors.

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13
Q

Maximum occupancy in crew rest?

A

4 (2 for some operators and during take off and landing)

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14
Q

Which lights does the master bright not control?

A

Dome lights, flood lights and circuit breaker lights.

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15
Q

Which lights are turned on by the storm light switch?

A

All Flight deck flood, and dome lights.

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16
Q

How many graphics generators are there?

A

4, (one spare)

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17
Q

What is the difference between MFD and NAV selections on the inner displays?

A

The MFD allows other functions NAV doesn’t.

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18
Q

If the EICAS screen fails what can the lower screen display in addition the eicas?

A

Only the fuel and air Synoptics

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19
Q

How do you know if 3 graphics generators have failed?

A

The lower centre screen goes blank and the captains control panel will control all screens.

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20
Q

The FMC contains which data?

A

Nav, performance data and airline policy

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21
Q

How many FMC s are there?

A

2

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22
Q

Large font on the CDU indicates?

A

Pilot entered info

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23
Q

Is there an engine fail time critical warning on take off?

A

Yes, between 65kts and V1-6kts

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24
Q

Which conditions have a siren?

A

Autopilot disconnect, overspeed, configuration warnings, stabiliser, cabin altitude.

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25
Q

Which events have a fire bell?

A

Engine fire, APU fire, cargo compartment fire, wheel well fire.

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26
Q

What does the eicas cancel/recall switch do?

A

Removes and re-displays caution and advisory alert messages

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27
Q

How don you know it is the last page of eicas messages?

A

No page number

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28
Q

What are status messages used for?

A

Determining condition of aircraft on ground, not inflight.

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29
Q

When are caution and advisory alerts inhibited?

A

Engine start to the first engine reaching idle, aborted start or 5 min.

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30
Q

Is the status cue inhibited?

A

Yes, from engine start until RTO or 30 min after liftoff.

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31
Q

Are communications alerts inhibited?

A

Yes, TO trust until 400ft radalt or thrust reduced below TO thrust.

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32
Q

Pax entry door inhibits?

A

TO thrust until 60 seconds after landing.

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33
Q

What is inhibited from 80kts to 400radalt?

A

Master caution lights, beeper, advisory alerts.

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34
Q

What is inhibited from V1 to 400 ft radalt or 25s after inhibit start?

A

Master warning lights and fire bell.

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35
Q

Is takeoff confit warning inhibited?

A

Yes, from V1

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36
Q

Confit gear inhibit occurs when?

A

Gear unlock for retraction until 825ft radalt or 150s, whichever occurs first.

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37
Q

When is altitude alerting inhibited?

A

GS capture or landing flap and gear down.

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38
Q

When is status cue and communication alerts inhibited? (Landing)

A

800ft radalt to 75kts, except cabin alert.

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39
Q

Master caution lights and aural caution beeper are inhibited?

A

From 200RA to 80kt gs except, autopilot, no auto land, speedbrake extended, auto throttle disconnect.(go around requirements)

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40
Q

Confit warn sys eicas message means what?

A 
Config warning system inoperative
1 or both master warning lights or loudspeakers inoperative 
On the ground:
Doors
Gear steering
Parking brake
Flaps
Rudder
Spoilers
Stabiliser
Airborne:
Gear
Speed brake extended
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41
Q

When is the pilot response message inhibited?

A

During climb below 20,000ft with flaps not up

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42
Q

Where can the ECL be displayed?

A

On any of the 3 MFDs

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43
Q

What is a closed loop step?

A

A sensed control,which is automatically checked off.

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44
Q

How do you know an eicas non normal has a checklist?

A

Small square icon

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45
Q

Where is the apu exhaust and air intake?

A

Intake: right side, exhaust left

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46
Q

When can the apu be started and operated?

A

Up to certified altitude, 43100ft

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47
Q

To What altitude can the apu supply bleed air and electrical power?

A

Electrical to 43100ft and bleed to 22000ft

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48
Q

How can the apu be started?

A

Bleed air or apu battery, in order of preference

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49
Q

If the apu fault light illuminates momentarily during start or shutdown what does this mean?

A

This is normal.

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50
Q

When will the apu automatically turn on?

A

If both main generators and both backup generators fail.even if in the off position.

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51
Q

What power sources does the apu require for starting?

A

Aircraft battery and either bleed air or apu battery

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52
Q

How many generators are required to meet all electrical demands?

A

Any 2, the apu generator is the same as either engine driven generator.

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53
Q

What does the hot battery bus power?

A

The engine and apu fire bottles and the ADIRU

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54
Q

When both primary and secondary external power is connected, how and what does this power?

A

The primary powers the right main bus, the secondary the left main bus. This is sufficient for all electrical loads on the ground.

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55
Q

If the APU generator is on and both primary and secondary power is on, which power source is not supplying?

A

The apu and is not annunciated.

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56
Q

What is the order of preference for the bus ties?

A

Same side generator, apu gen, other side gen.

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57
Q

What does the ELMS shed?

A

Galley and galley chillers, L,R utility busses.

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58
Q

How many busses are there for ground handling, and what are they?

A

Ground service bus

Ground handling bus

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59
Q

How is the ground handling bus powered?

A

By external power or APU in that order. There are no controls for this bus.

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60
Q

What does the ground handling bus power?

A

Cargo doors, cargo lights, maintenance access lights.

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61
Q

What does the ground service bus power?

A

Cabin lighting and outlets, main and APU battery chargers, left forward fuel pump.

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62
Q

How is the ground service bus powered?

A

External power or right main bus or APU gen. The bus is switched on at the FA panel at door 1L

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63
Q

What does the cabin/utility switch control?

A

Cabin lighting and outlets, utility bus and galley.

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64
Q

What happens if the cabin/utility switch is switched off?

A

The night lights, supplemental night lights, reading lights and attendant work lights switch on.

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65
Q

What does the IFE/PASS seats switch control?

A

Inflight entertainment, pax seats, power outlets and phones.

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66
Q

What does DC power supply?

A

PFDs, NDs, GPS, ADIRU

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67
Q

How many TRUs does the 777 have and what are they connected to?

A

4, connected to the transfer busses. The L and R power the L and R main DC busses and the C1 and C2 power the capt and fo flight instruments busses respectively.

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68
Q

If either side DC bus fails what happens?

A

The opposite side automatically connects via a tie.

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69
Q

How many flight control busses are there and where do they obtain power from?

A

3, The PMG in each (L,R) backup generator.

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70
Q

What happens to the FCDC bus if the PMGs fail?

A

The L or R DC bus or captains flight instrument bus will supply power.

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71
Q

If all generated power fails to power the flight controls, what happens?

A

The hot battery bus powers the L and C flight control power supply.

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72
Q

Where do the autopilots get power from normally and during autoland?

A

L and R main AC busses, autoland, the third autopilot backup generators.

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73
Q

What are essential loads run by?

A

Transfer busses, L,R

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74
Q

If all generators are lost, what happens?

A

The standby system will run critical equipment.
AC: C ILS, Radalt, L Marker beacon, L XPDR, L VOR, engine igniters.
DC: flight instruments and L CDU.

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75
Q

If all power to the XFER busses fail what can still power it?

A

The RAT will provide power through the TRUs and the hot battery bus powers the AC standby bus through the standby inverter.

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76
Q

What does the RAT supply?

A

Electrical power and hydraulic power.

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77
Q

How much electrical power does the RAT supply?

A

Less than 10% of any other generator.

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78
Q

When does the RAT deploy?

A

Both XFER busses unpowered
All 3 hydraulic system pressures low
Dual engine failure and centre hydraulic system pressure low.

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79
Q

What do the PRESS and UNLKD lights indicate on the RAT switch?

A

Minimum 1500psi and not showed respectively.

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80
Q

During RAT use, which output has priority?

A

Hydraulic pressure.

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81
Q

If the RAT is not supplying electrical power, what does?

A

The battery supplies the standby electrical power system.

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82
Q

How can one tell whether the RAT or battery is supplying power?

A

The battery will only power the captains flight instruments, whereas The RAT will power all flight instruments.

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83
Q

Can the IDG auto disconnect and can it be reconnected?

A

It will only auto disconnect for high IDG temp, it requires maintenance action to reconnect after any disconnect.

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84
Q

How many fuel pumps are there and their types and locations?

A

2 AC fuel pumps in each main tank, 2 AC override/jettison in the centre tank, an AC jettison pump each main tank and a DC fuel pump in the left main tank for APU supply.

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85
Q

The FQIS senses what?

A

Fuel quantity indicating system senses height in tanks and density to calculate fuel in weight. It also has a temperature probe to display fuel temp.

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86
Q

If all pumps are on, which ones will feed the engine?

A

The centre pumps are stronger and will therefore feed the engines.

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87
Q

Why do the PRESS light snot illuminate with the centre fuel pumps off?

A

The PRESS lights are inhibited when the pumps are off.

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88
Q

The centre pumps are turned off when the fuel is low, what happens to the remaining fuel?

A

Scavenge pumps pump fuel to the main tanks.

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89
Q

What are the steps to fuel jettison?

A

Arm system, set fuel to remain, activate nozzles.

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90
Q

What happens if the fuel to remain knob is pulled out and then pushed back in?

A

When pulled out the fuel to remain can be manually set, pushing back in defaults to MLW

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91
Q

How much fuel is left if jettisoned to stand pipe?

A

5200kg in each main tank, none in centre tank.

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92
Q

How can fuel jettison be terminated?

A

Either turning off the fuel jettison nozzles or the arm switch

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93
Q

What does cross feed enable?

A

Fuel to be fed from the opposite side tank to the engine.

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94
Q

How many spools does the engine have?

A

2

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95
Q

How much thrust does each engine produce?

A

115,540lb

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96
Q

How are the thrust reversers activated?

A

Hydraulically

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97
Q

What are the primary engine indications?

A

N1 and EGT?

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98
Q

What happens if EGT enters the amber band during takeoff or go Around?

A

The colour will not go amber for the first 5 minutes.

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99
Q

What happens if a secondary engine indication is exceeded?

A

The secondary engine instruments are automatically displayed on the lower eicas or in compact form on the upper display if the lower display failed or another synoptic is already displayed.

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100
Q

What do TO, TO 1, TO 2 mean in relation to thrust?

A

TO is max rated takeoff thrust and the next two a fixed de-rates.

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101
Q

What does D-TO, D-TO1, D-TO2 mean?

A

Derate with assumed temperature

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102
Q

Do the EEC provide any Protections?

A

N1 and N2 overspeed protections.

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103
Q

When does approach idle automatically set?

A

EAI on
Flap>=25
C1 or C2 Hyd demand pump inop and flaps>0
Opposite bleed closed.

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104
Q

In alternate mode is there any protection?

A

No thrust limit protection

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105
Q

In the engine, where is oil temperature and pressure sensed?

A

Just prior to engine entry.

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106
Q

What does the fuel control switch control?

A

The spar and engine fuel valves as well as ignition.

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107
Q

What does BB next to the VIB monitor mean?

A

It cannot be determined whether N1 or N2 is producing the highest vibration.

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108
Q

What powers the engine start and where does it come from?

A

Bleed air, APU, other engine, or ground cart.

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109
Q

How many igniters are there on each engine and when are they used?

A

2, one for ground starts, both for inflight relight.

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110
Q

What does auto start not monitor?

A

Oil temperature and pressure.

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111
Q

How many attempts at starting the engine will auto start conduct?

A

3

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112
Q

After all start attempts by auto start, how long will the engine motor and what else must be done?

A

30sec, fuel control to cutoff.

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113
Q

When is the inflight start envelope displayed?

A

In flight, with either fuel control at cutoff or either engine N2 below idle

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114
Q

How many attempts does auto start make inflight?

A

Indefinite until it starts or pilot selects cutoff

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115
Q

During an inflight autostart, will the start be aborted at any time?

A

No, it will temporarily discontinue the start.

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116
Q

When will igniters automatically switch on?

A

If airborne, a rapid decrease in N2 is sensed or N2 is less than idle

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117
Q

If a sub idle stall is detected during start, what happens?

A

The fuel will be shut off for 1 second

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118
Q

When will an eng autostart message be displayed?

A

Auto start: engine fails to start, EGT exceeded

Manual: fuel control selected to run too early.

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119
Q

How long should the engine be motored for after an aborted start?

A

30 seconds.

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120
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the thrust reversers?

A

The left and right respectively.

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121
Q

Can more than idle reverse thrust be selected prior to the blocker doors being locked into position?

A

No, the reverse levers cannot be moved out of the idle decent prior to blocker doors being locked into position.

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122
Q

What is a requirement prior to reverse selection?

A

Thrust levers in idle.

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123
Q

What indicates that the thrust reversers are in transit?

A

The REV indication on the EICAS is orange

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124
Q

What other functions does engaging reverse thrust have?

A

Disengages autothrottle and engages speed brake if not armed.

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125
Q

What is the process for stowing reversers?

A

At 60 knots set to idle, once idle is obtained stow the reversers.

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126
Q

What does a blank reverser display mean?

A

There is a fault with the system.

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127
Q

How many pitot, static, AoA, TAT probes are there?

A

3 pitot
6 static 2 per module
2 AoA
1 TAT

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128
Q

How does the ADIRU align?

A

Using gravity and earth rotation.

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129
Q

How long does the ADIRU require for alignment?

A

6-15 minutes.

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130
Q

When is a full ADIRU alignment recommended and how is this done?

A

If turn around time exceeds 24 hours, turning the ADIRU off for 30 seconds.

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131
Q

How do you know the ADIRU is aligning?

A

There is a ADIRU align mode message on the eicas

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132
Q

What happens if the ADIRU is switched off inflight?

A

The ADIRU off inhibited inflight.

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133
Q

What happens if the ADIRU fails?

A

The SAARU provides speed, altitude and attitude.
The GPS provides track and position data.
Heading is displayed for 3 minutes.

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134
Q

After an ADIRU failure how can heading be restored?

A

On the pos initialisation page, enter HDG from compass and periodically update.

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135
Q

Which displays show ADIRU info?

A

Both PFD, ND, CDU and upper eicas

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136
Q

When is Mach displayed, and what is displayed when Mach isn’t displayed?

A

Mach is displayed from 0.4 and below this GS is displayed.

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137
Q

The airspeed trend vector is a trend in how long?

A

10 seconds in the future.

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138
Q

When are flap speeds shown on the airspeed tape?

A

Below 20,000ft

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139
Q

When does the bank pointer turn amber?

A

Beyond 35 deg AoB

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140
Q

When does the PLI display?

A

Flaps not up

Airspeed close to stick shaker

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141
Q

When does the takeoff altitude change to landing altitude on the altimeter?

A

400nm away from departure or half way, whichever is first.

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142
Q

What does the L or R mean next to the baro setting?

A

Which side is providing baro data

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143
Q

How do you change baro to preselected?

A

Press STD

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144
Q

How do you know that QFE is being used?

A

Below transition the altitude tape will be green.

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145
Q

When does radalt display?

A

Below 2500ft

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146
Q

When does rising runway display?

A

Radalt and localiser is displayed.

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147
Q

When does the rising runway rise?

A

From 200ft

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148
Q

When does the ILS auto Tune?

A

Within 50nm TOPD
150nm from destination
On descent.

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149
Q

Can a course only be entered for an ILS?

A

Yes, but must be prefixed by /

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150
Q

When does expanded scale ILS appear?

A

When deviation is slightly more than 1/2 dot and aircraft track is close to ILS course.

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151
Q

When does expanded scale ILS disappear?

A

Go around, after landing and approach modes are disengaged.

152
Q

When is ILS tuning inhibited?

A

LOC or G/S captured with AP on
LOC or G/S captured below 500ft RA no A/P

On the ground:
Loc alive
<45 deg front course
>40kt GS.

153
Q

How can you reenable ILS turning?

A

Pressing either toga switch
A/P and F/D off
Deselecting app above 1500ft RA

154
Q

When can PFD setup begin?

A

Once the ADIRU has completed alignment.

155
Q

How is invalid or not computed data displayed on the PFD?

A

Blank display, dashes or unboxed flag

156
Q

How is a PFD data source failure displayed?

A

Flag

157
Q

What order of preference do the NDs have for ILS receiver tuning?

A

Same side, centre then opposite side.

158
Q

What is the difference between app mode and vor mode for cdi on the ND?

A

In App mode the cdi will become solid at just greater than full scale deflection.

159
Q

Which navaid doesn’t auto Tune?

A

ADF

160
Q

With reference to the ND when is GS, TAS and wind displayed?

A

GS is always displayed but in large font up to 30kts
TAS and wind is displayed at TAS>100kts
Wind is only displayed if more than 5 kts

161
Q

How is plan mode oriented?

A

True north up

162
Q

How is map mode oriented?

A

Track up

163
Q

What is the scale of the VNAV deviation scale on the ND?

A

400ft at full scale

164
Q

What happens in polar regions with the HDG REF in normal mode?

A

The Nav data will automatically switch to True north near the magnetic or geographic poles

165
Q

What happens when the NAV source switch is selected?

A

The CDU supplies map data

166
Q

How many FMC and CDU are there?

A

2 FMC, 3 CDU

167
Q

What is the main difference between normal tuning and alternate tuning of radio aids?

A

Only the frequency is accepted, not ID

168
Q

Which modes are displayed first when fd turned on?

A

FLT DIR, Toga, toga

169
Q

What are there two autothrottle switches?

A

One for each thrust lever servo

170
Q

What is the bank limit in auto mode?

A

15-25deg depending on airspeed

171
Q

What is the difference between auto and 1000 on the altitude preselector?

A

In auto, the change in altitude is dependent on speed of selector rotation, 1000, it will only move in even 1000s

172
Q

When do you press the TOGA switch?

A

Once thrust levers are at 55% n1, by 50kts

173
Q

When TOGA is pushed what is anunciated?

A

THR REF and thrust is increased to max reference.

174
Q

When does HOLD annunciation?

A

80kts

175
Q

What happens in THR REF and HOLD respectively if thrust levers are moved?

A

THR REF, the thrust levers will be driven back to max, HOLD, they can be positioned as required.

176
Q

What attitude should you rotate to?

A

15 deg

177
Q

What attitude does the FD command after liftoff?

A

The higher of V2+15 or rotation speed+15 up to max V2+25

178
Q

During takeoff, what track is the FD commanding?

A

The track established during takeoff roll

179
Q

When does LNAV become active during takeoff?

A

At 50ft within 2.5nm or on an intercept to the active route leg.

180
Q

When does VNAV engage on takeoff?

A

400ft above runway altitude.

181
Q

What happens to the speed display on the MCP during VNAV?

A

Blank

182
Q

For a climb in FLCH what thrust setting is used?

A

Enough thrust to make the change in 2 minutes up to maximum max climb thrust.

183
Q

For a descent in FLCH what thrust setting is used?

A

Enough thrust to make the change in 2 minutes or flight idle if a large descent is required. Once descent rate is set, HOLD mode is entered.

184
Q

If in HOLD mode and a change to vertical mode is made, what happens?

A

The autothrottle will re-engage

185
Q

What autothrottle mode is entered if the flight directors and autopilot are turned off?

A

SPD

186
Q

What happens if the altitude HOLD switch is pushed during climb or descent?

A

The aircraft levels off at the altitude at which the HOLD was pressed.

187
Q

How do you engage HDG mode?

A

Press SEL on end of HDG SEL knob.

188
Q

When in HDG SEL which direction will the aircraft turn?

A

In the direction the knob was moved

189
Q

When initially engaging HDG SEL which way will the aircraft turn?

A

Shortest distance to selected heading.

190
Q

What happens when the HDG or TRK HOLD switch is pressed?

A

The aircraft rolls wings level then maintains the rollout HDG or TRK

191
Q

Which modes does the bank limit have effect on?

A

TRK and HDG only, not LNAV

192
Q

How can the autothrottle be disengaged?

A

Pressing either disconnect switch on the thrust levers or the throttle arm switches.

193
Q

If the aoutothrottle was disengaged but still armed what modes will re-engage it?

A

FLCH, VNAV, TO/GA

194
Q

How can you cancel the caution after autothrottle disconnect?

A

Press the disconnect a second time.

195
Q

If doing a raw data takeoff with autothrottle, how can the flight director be brought back onto the display?

A

Pressing either TOGA switch above 80kts

196
Q

How can you quickly disarm LNAV and VNAV on takeoff?

A

Press the TOGA switch above 80kts

197
Q

What happens if the TOGA switch is pushed once airborne with FD engaged?

A

The derate is removed.

198
Q

What happens to autothrottle when TOGA is replaced with FLCH?

A

It reverts to climb thrust

199
Q

When engaging FLCH, which speed will be commanded?

A

The bug speed or current speed whichever is higher.

200
Q

When switching from TOGA to V/S or FPA which speed is commanded and which thrust limit is set?

A

The MCP speed goes to flap placard speed -5kts or 250kts if flaps up, thrust limit remains.

201
Q

What does the CLB CON switch do?

A

It sets climb thrust both engines operating or max continuous if on one engine.

202
Q

What happens at altitude capture if TOGA was engaged?

A

Altitude captures, MCP speed is either flap placard -5kts or 250kts if flaps are up and thrust reference remains.

203
Q

Can the autopilot be engaged without the FD?

A

Yes, it will engage in HDG or TRK HOLD and V/S or FPA

204
Q

When on an ILS APP, how can it be disengaged?

A

TOGA or turning off AP and FD or >1500ft RA push APP

205
Q

When does the pre-autoland test begin?

A

1500ft RA

206
Q

How do you know that the pre-autoland test is complete?

A

When LAND 3 annunciates

207
Q

When does runway alignment begin during autoland?

A

500-200ft RA

208
Q

When does flare engage during autoland?

A

60-40ft RA

209
Q

When does idle engage during autoland?

A

25ft RA

210
Q

When does rollout engage?

A

2ft RA

211
Q

How can you quickly cancel the autopilot disconnect warning?

A

Second press of autopilot disconnect switch in control column.

212
Q

How can you gain alternate control of the DSP or EFIS?

A

Thought the CDU menu page

213
Q

If the captain EFIS or DSP has failed how can he gain alternate control?

A

Through his CDU menu page, it cannot be controlled by any other CDU.

214
Q

Is it possible to transmit on more than one frequency or to transmit and not receive on a frequency?

A

No to either.

215
Q

How can the radio be keyed/Transmit

A

Mic switch on radio panel, mic switch on outer control wheel, mic switch on glare shield or handheld radio.

216
Q

How do you know if an HF radio has failed to tune?

A

Tone longer than 7 seconds.

217
Q

How many inter phones are there and what are they?

A

4, flight (ground personnel and cockpit), service, cabin, PA

218
Q

How do you transmit on the FLT interphone?

A

When MIC selected, using any MIC transmit switch, if not selected then using the interphone switch on the control column or control panel. The FLT volume must be selected to receive?

219
Q

What does the cockpit voice jack on APU ground control panel do?

A

It allows all cockpit sound to be heard through an area mic.

220
Q

Is there a way of signalling ground crew, if so, how does this work?

A

On the CDU menu, interphone, ground crew. This sounds an alert horn

221
Q

What does the SERV INTPH switch do?

A

Connects all service interphones to the FLT interphone switch

222
Q

How can you talk to the cabin?

A

Through the cabin mic on the radio control panel, centre CDU or phone.

223
Q

When using the centre CDU to make a call, how do you know you are connected?

A

The dial code disappears.

224
Q

When the cabin calls the cockpit what are the indications on the centre CDU?

A

Indicates where the call originates and can queue 4 calls.

225
Q

When using the CDU for making interphone calls, how do you dial a *?

A

.

226
Q

When using the centre CDU for communications, which mic gets used from the audio control panel?

A

CAB

227
Q

Which radios have SELCALL?

A

3 VHF and both HF

228
Q

When can the CVR be erased?

A

On ground, AC power on with parking brake set.

229
Q

What does the EICAS message: radio transmit mean?

A

A radio has been transmitting for longer than 30 seconds

230
Q

How can a satphone call be terminated?

A

Either the caller hangs up or through the centre CDU

231
Q

When using the satphone through the CDU, what priorities are there and when is amcall label applied?

A

Low, high and emer.

Call labels are only for outgoing calls

232
Q

What is the order of preference for ACARS transmission?

A

VHF, Satcom, HF

233
Q

What can be accessed through the datalink?

A

Access Received messages
Initiate downlink messages
Review received or initiated messages
Access system status and control features.

234
Q

How is datalink displayed and controlled?

A

Displayed on any MFD, controlled through the L, R CDUs

235
Q

On ACARS what must you do prior to messaging ATC?

A

Log on

236
Q

How do you remove ATC messages from the EICAS?

A

The cancel switch on the far L/R glareshield.

237
Q

When a clearance is received via datalink, which values values are able to give crew feedback?

A

MCP: speed, heading, altitude

Barometer setting, transponder code, VHF frequency, HF frequency

238
Q

Some reports can be armed for automatic downlink, what are they?

A

Passing a position
Reaching an altitude
Leaving an altitude
Level at an altitude

239
Q

On the printer what does the paper light indicate?

A

The paper has jammed

240
Q

What does the printer test switch do?

A

Prints all characters test page

241
Q

What does the slew switch do on the printer?

A

Advances paper until switch released

242
Q

What does the DATALINK LOST message mean?

A

The ACARS datalink is temporarily lost but ATC remains for a short time

243
Q

What does DATALINK SYS message mean?

A

SATCOM, VHF and HF datalink systems are inoperative

244
Q

Difference between UTC and MAN on FMC time display?

A

UTC is satellite time, MAN is from capt or fo clock

245
Q

When amending level, for descent in VNAV, when will VNAV commence normal descent?

A

Within 50nm of TOD it will commence descent

246
Q

On the climb page what does the SPD RESTR line allow?

A

It allows an obstacle clearance speed to be entered which will be flown to the entered altitude then crazies climb

247
Q

On the cruise page of the FMS what does OPT altitude mean?

A

Optimal for current weight.

248
Q

On the cruise page of the FMS what does MAX altitude mean?

A

This is the maximum altitude based on current conditions either single or two engines

249
Q

On the cruise page of the FMS what does RECMD altitude mean?

A

The recommended most economical altitude based on wind, temperature weight etc..

250
Q

When will step climb info be shown on the FMS?

A

Outside of 500nm from destination and 200nm from TOPD

251
Q

Does the FMS holding speed comply with ATC/AIP/JEPP requirements?

A

No

252
Q

When conducting a sector entry, What is the max bank angle the FMS uses?

A

30 deg

253
Q

When exit hold is selected, what happens?

A

The FMC commands a turn toward the holding fix and exits the hold, this may result in a shorter hold.

254
Q

How do you fly a HDG on the FMC?

A

Enter P/P then the HDG desired into current active waypoint

255
Q

In a descend now VNAV descent, what VS will the autopilot target?

A

1250 FPS.

256
Q

What is ECON speed?

A

The speed which meets the specified cost index.

257
Q

What cost index approximates LRC?

A

140

258
Q

What is maximum altitude based on?

A

Limit of max cruise thrust, max climb thrust or manoeuvre margin. Based on. 300fpm climb rate

259
Q

If within 500nm TOPD, what will the recommended cruise altitude be?

A

Current altitude

260
Q

The FMS calculated takeoff speeds do Nat take into account?

A

Non balanced field conditions, contaminated RWY, improved climb

261
Q

What is the difference between derate and assumed temperature?

A

Assumed temperature, thrust can be increased on the takeoff roll derate cannot. Derate can be used with contaminated runways though.

262
Q

When can derate give a higher takeoff weight?

A

Wet or contaminated runways or when the runway is very short.

263
Q

What is the maximum assumed temperature thrust reduction?

A

25%

264
Q

What uses bleed air?

A

Air con, trim air, cargo heat, hydraulic pumps, hydraulic reservoir pressurisation, wing anti ice and engine and apu starting.

265
Q

How many aircon packs?

A

2

266
Q

How many recirc fans?

A

2 upper 2 lower

267
Q

Where does airconditioned air go?

A

Flight deck, cabin A-F and fwd cargo

268
Q

What temperature range does the flight deck temp auto control knob have?

A

18-29 deg

269
Q

What is the range of temperature for the cabin control knob, what is the 12 o’clock position?

A

18-29 deg C, 24deg C

270
Q

Where can the cabin zones be controlled from and by how much?

A

On the cabin attendant panel, +-6 deg c

271
Q

The fwd cargo temperature range and auto position are?

A

4-27 deg C, auto 12 deg.

272
Q

What happens if cargo heat is off?

A

Normal cargo heating from equipment cooling air

273
Q

How does aft cargo heat work?

A

Low, 4-10 deg with bleed air, off at 10 on at 7deg.

High, 18-24

274
Q

How does bulk cargo heat work?

A

Same as aft cargo heat except it includes a circulation fan.

275
Q

What does the foot heater do?

A

It electrically heats plates in front/ below the pilots rudder pedals and only works inflight

276
Q

What does the shoulder heater do?

A

Activates an electric element in the airflow for the side windows which provides warm air for the side windows.

277
Q

When does the humidifier operate?

A

If selected on, in cruise above 26200ft and more then 90min prior to TOPD.

278
Q

How many positive pressure relief valves are there?

A

2

279
Q

How many negative pressure vents are there?

A

4

280
Q

How many outflow valves are there?

A

2, fwd and aft

281
Q

Maximum cabin altitude and differential pressure?

A

8000ft, 9.1psi

282
Q

What are the two rates of altitude setting on the landing altitude knob on the pressurisation system?

A

100ft 500ft increments

283
Q

Turning engine anti ice on causes what else to happen?

A

Continuous ignition.

284
Q

When WAI is in auto, when is it inhibited?

A

Until 10 minutes after to thrust

285
Q

Can the windscreen wipers be used on dry windscreens?

A

No you will damage the hydrophobic coating

286
Q

What happens if windshield heat fails?

A

The backup system automatically provides anti fogging

287
Q

Where does the clock get UTC time from?

A

AIMS which gets it from GPS

288
Q

What does the clock switch on the glareshield do?

A

Acts as a chronograph switch for the clock.

289
Q

Where does the IFSD get its pitot static info from?

A

Separate pitot and static sources through separate units

290
Q

Where does the IFSD get HDG info from?

A

Captain HDG info

291
Q

Where does the IFSD get ATT info from?

A

Internal systems.

292
Q

Where does the ISFD get ILS info from?

A

Left ILS receiver

293
Q

What does the ALT source selector do on the XPDR panel?

A

Selects whether the altitude information comes from the ADIRU (norm) or the SAARU (altn).

294
Q

What does the XPDR knob selector do?

A

Selects left or right transponder.

295
Q

On the weather radar, what does the wx+t button do?

A

Displays precipitation and turbulence

296
Q

On the weather radar what does G/C do?

A

Ground clutter reduction

297
Q

What is unavailable in automatic mode of weather radar?

A

Tilt and ground clutter reduction, auto compensates for these.

298
Q

What does the map mode do on the weather radar?

A

Allows ground mapping with radar tilt down.

299
Q

What is the recommended gain setting on the weather radar?

A

12 o’clock position

300
Q

How do you turn off/on the weather radar?

A

WXR button on glareshield EFIS control panel

301
Q

How many fire bottles are there for engines and APU?

A

2 for both engines, one for the APU

302
Q

What does the fire switch do?

A

Shuts off: fuel, bleed air, hydraulic sand pump, generator and arms fire bottles

303
Q

What do the engine fire loops detect?

A

Fire and overheat

304
Q

What does pulling the APU fire switch do?

A

Fuel and bleed air valves shut, APU shuts down if not already, APU inlet door closes, APU generator field and breaker are tripped and the fire bottle is armed.

305
Q

When operating the fire extinguishers, APU or engine, how long do you hold it?

A

1 second

306
Q

If either loop detects a fire in the APU on the ground, what happens?

A

The APU shuts down and the fire bottle discharges.

307
Q

What happens if one loop detects a fire?

A

Nothing, both must detect fire or overheat, except the APU on the ground with both engines shut down or single loop operations.

308
Q

What happens if the fire switch does not unlock?

A

The fire override switch can be pressed which is beneath the fire switch.

309
Q

What happens if one fire loop fails?

A

The other loop will detect fires

310
Q

What fire protections do the cargo compartments have?

A

Each compartment has a single smoke detection unit. The system includes 5 fire bottles, 2 rapid dump and 3 slow release

311
Q

What effect does arming the cargo fire arm switch have?

A

Arms bottles, shuts down fans, commands packs to min flow and shuts down cargo heat.

312
Q

When the cargo disch switch is pressed what happens?

A

The 2 rapid dump bottles discharge and a 20 minutes timer starts, if the aircraft is still airborne after 20 minutes, the 3 bottles discharge over time. If the aircraft lands or is on the ground one bottle discharges.

313
Q

What happens if both forward and aft cargo compartments are armed then the discharge switch is pressed?

A

The extinguishing agent will be divided between the two and not provide enough concentration in either compartment.

314
Q

What fire protection is there in the wheel wells?

A

Dual fire loops in each wheel well,only.

315
Q

If a fire is detected in the wheel well what can you do?

A

Extend the gear, and land, if required to retract for performance reasons only do this 20 min after fire warning extinguishes.

316
Q

What runs the L/R hydraulic systems?

A

Engine driven primary and electric driven demand pumps

317
Q

What drives the centre hydraulic system?

A

Two electric primary and two air driven demand pumps and the RAT

318
Q

How many hydraulic systems are required to power the flight controls?

A

Any 1

319
Q

When do the fault lights illuminate on the hydraulic panel?

A

When pressure is low or temperature is high?

320
Q

Can gear be retracted after manual extension?

A

Yes

321
Q

How far do the nose wheels turn?

A

7 deg rudder, 70deg tiller

322
Q

When does the main gear steering operate

A

It begins at approximately 13 deg of nose wheel steering

323
Q

What does anti skid protect against?

A

Touchdown skid
Hydroplaning
Locked wheel

324
Q

Which wheels does anti skid control?

A

All main gear wheels independently

325
Q

How do you set the park brake?

A

Press on brake pedals then set park brake lever

326
Q

How do you release the park brake?

A

Press on brake pedals until lever releases

327
Q

When does RTO autobrake activate?

A

If thrust is reduced to idle above 85kts

328
Q

How can RTO autobrake be deactivated?

A

Advance thrust lever
Stow speed brake lever
Press brake pedal
Move RTO selector

329
Q

What happens to the autobrake after takeoff?

A

The RTO autobrake knob rotates to off

330
Q

Can more brake be applied than max auto?

A

Yes, with manual braking

331
Q

When do autobrake operate on landing?

A

When thrust is reduced to idle

332
Q

How do you dissengage autobrake on landing?

A

Advance thrust lever
Stow speed brake lever
Press brake pedal
Move RTO selector

333
Q

When autobrakes have been disengaged after landing, what does the knob do?

A

Rotates to disarm

334
Q

How do you display teas on the ND?

A

Set XPDR to TA/RA and press TFC on eicas control panel

335
Q

What scale is the ring on the ND for the TCAS?

A

3 nm

336
Q

What supplies flight deck oxygen?

A

One bottle below the floor

337
Q

When do passenger oxygen masks deploy?

A

If cabin exceeds 13500ft or the pass oxygen switch is operated

338
Q

How is a passenger oxygen mask activated?

A

Pulling on the mask activates that mask only

339
Q

When do emergency lights activate?

A

When main DC power is lost or switched on

340
Q

Can windows be opened in flight?

A

Yes if depressurised and it is recommended to slow to flap manoeuvre speed

341
Q

How many spoilers are there?

A

14

342
Q

How many ailerons and flaperons are there?

A

2 of each

343
Q

What provides pitch?

A

Elevator and moveable elevator

344
Q

What protections do the control computers have?

A

Stall
Overspeed
Bank angle

345
Q

In normal mode, what protections are available and auto modes?

A

All 3 protections and auto speed brakes and auto brakes

346
Q

With respect to the flight controls, what happen ps in secondary mode?

A 
No autopilots
No auto speed brakes
No protection features (3)
Degraded yaw damping
No airspeed or inertial data to PFC
347
Q

How many slats and flap does the 777 have?

A

2 flaps per side, 1 Krueger flap per side, 7 slats per side

348
Q

Which control surfaces droop with flap extension?

A

Ailerons and flaperons

349
Q

How does elevator feel work?

A

Normal: variable based on airspeed

Secondary or direct mode: less force flaps down, more flaps up

350
Q

When does turn compensation work?

A

Normal mode up to 30 deg aob, partial above 30 aob

351
Q

How does stall protection work?

A

Cannot trim below min manoeuvre speed
Autothrottle engage automatically if continued flight in amber band and autothrottles armed
Stick shaker at red speed band

352
Q

How does overspeed protection work?

A

You will need continuous forward pressure to maintain overspeed

353
Q

When is trimming required?

A

Only for airspeed changes, 1second of trim equals 10 kts

354
Q

How does the alternate pitch trip work?

A

Directly control STCM to position elevator, spring loaded to neutral and override autopilot and pitch trim switches.

355
Q

What does the manual trim cancel switch do?

A

It rapidly sets 0 rudder trim however not as accurately as doing it yourself

356
Q

When is yaw damping unavailable?

A

Secondary mode if inertial data unavailable and direct mode

357
Q

How does rudder ratio work?

A

Normally, more deflection at low airspeed, in secondary and direct rudder movement is smaller clean and larger with flaps down.

358
Q

When does TAC operate?

A

Above 70 kts, manual and auto flight

359
Q

What indications are there that TAC has operated?

A

Rudder pedal deflection and trim indicator deflection

360
Q

What is wheel to rudder crosstie?

A

Allows the control wheel to move rudder up to 8 deg, available below 210 kts and normal mode only

361
Q

How many PCUs are there on the rudder?

A

3

362
Q

When does TAC not operate in normal conditions?

A

With reverse thrust

363
Q

How do you know how much aileron trim you have?

A

The control column moves and has an aileron trim setting scale

364
Q

When does the speed brake auto deploy?

A

For a rejected takeoff when reverse thrust is selected, on landing if armed when wheels on ground and idle selected, if not armed then with reverse thrust selection.

365
Q

What protections does the speedbrake have?

A

If takeoff thrust is set, speed brakes go fully down.

366
Q

When does bank angle protection happen and what is it?

A

Beyond 35 degrees AoB the control forces become large

367
Q

Are there restrictions on the use of speedbrake?

A

No

368
Q

What is special about flap 15?

A

It is only a takeoff flap setting and thus is only displayed on the speed tape if selected

369
Q

What are the takeoff flap settings?

A

5,15,20

370
Q

When does flap load relief operate?

A

15-30

371
Q

How many systems are there that control flaps and what drives them?

A

Primary, hydraulic
Secondary electric
Alternate, electric

372
Q

Red on the terrain display is how high?

A

2000ft above

373
Q

Yellow on the terrain display is how high?

A

500ft below to 2000ft above

374
Q

Green on the terrain display is?

A

Below 500ft below

375
Q

When does PWS operate?

A

Automatically turns on onntakeoff

376
Q

Which GPWS alerts can be cancelled?

A

“Glideslope”

377
Q

When is clear way not permitted?

A

On wet runways

VA (11 decks)

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