Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hematology > Leukocytes > Flashcards

Leukocytes Flashcards

1
Q

Abnormality in pelger huet anomaly

A

Abnormal nucleic acid metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Leukemia associated with Down syndrome trisomy, D-trisomy

A

Acute myeloproliferative leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Enzyme important to perform respiratory burst

A

Myeloperoxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tumors with large quantities of MPO producing green appearance

A

Chloroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AML classification with Ch translocation 15 and 17

A

M3 / Acute promyelocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Oncogene involved in M3 / Acute promyelocytic leukemia

A

PML/RARA oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cell full of auer rods

A

Faggot cells

present in M3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nagelli leukemia

A

M4 / Acutte myelomonocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Schilling leukemia

A

M5a / Acute monoblastic leukemia w/o maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AML classification with accumulation of precursor of RBC

A

M6 / Acute erythroid leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Di Guglielmo Syndrome

A

M6 / Acute erythroid leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most favorable prognosis of ALL in children when…

A

Aged 2-10yrs old w/ pre-B phenotype and hyperdiploidy in 51-60chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Burkitt type of ALL

A

L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mimic Neutrophilic Leukemoid reaction

A

CML / Chronic myeloproliferative leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chromosomes translocated in CML

A

Chromosome #9 and #22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Presence of ________ indicates good prognosis on CML

A

Philadelphia chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3 phase of CML

A
  1. Chronic
  2. Accelerated
  3. Blast Crisis / Acute
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Important enzyme for phagocytic activity of WBCs

A

Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Malignant hyperplasia of the multipotent myeloid

A

Polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Abundant in Agnogenic Myeloid metaplasia w/ myelofibrosis or Myelofibrosis w/ myeloid metaplasia

A

Teardrop cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Myelodysplastic syndromes affect ________ cells

A

Pluripotent stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Trilineage cytopenia

A

Refractory anemia with excess blast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Excessive leukocytic response

A

Leukemoid reaction

WBC >50x10^9/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Leukemoid reaction is commonly mistaken as…

A

CML

Due to proliferation of mature cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most indolent form of leukemia

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Chromosomes deleted in CLL:

A

11, 13, 17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CLL has too much lymphocytes, creating what type of cells

A

Smudge cells (many), basket cell (1-2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Leukemic reticuloendotheliois

A

Hairy cell leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CD markers that are positive that indicates B-cell malignancy or B-cell cancer

A

CD19 and CD20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CLL that is Tartrate Resistant Acid Phosphatase (TRAP) positive (+)

A

Hairy cell leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

A

Mycosis fungoides

leads to ulcerative tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sezary syndrome

A

Mycosis fungoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Albinism seen on

A

Chediak Higashi (CH) syndrome - presence of CH granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma diagnostic cell

A

Reed-sternberg cell

owl eyes appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Stains that differentiate AML with ALL

A

Myeloperoxidase śtain
Sudan Black B stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

(+) PAS on erythroblast and immature RBC = indicate what type of leukemia

A

M6 / Acute erythroid leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PAS indicate presence of…

A

Glycogen and other 1,2-glycol-containing carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Specific (Chloroacetate) esterases: ______
Non-specific esterases: _______

A

Granulocytic leukemia (M1-M3)
Monocytic leukemia (M4-M5a/M5b)

NOTE:
- Non-specific esterase has Na fluoride = inhibit monocytic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Stain used to differentiate subgroups of ALL

A

Acid phosphatase stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Stain to differentiate CML and leukemoid reaction

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain

NOTE:
CML has no LAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Stain that binds with acid mucopolysaccharide

A

Toluidine blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Stain used for recognition of mast cell and basophil

A

Toluidine blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Specific granule found in eosinophils that are most potent to parasites

A

Major basic protein (MBP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Also known as juvenile cell

A

Metamyelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cell-mediated immunity:
Humoral immunity:

A

Cell-mediated immunity: T-cell
Humoral immunity: B-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Supports the growth and differentiation of T-cells from BM
Secreted by basophils
Activated by T cells

A

Interleukin 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

WBC with brain-like convulsions

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Granulocytes are distinguishable by their presence of _______________ that appear during the ____________ stage

A

Specific granules

Myelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

WBC’s left shift refers to the presence of ______________________

A

Increase immature WBC in the circulation

Right shift - increase in hypersegmented cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Reference range of WBCs

A

4.5 - 11.5 x10^9/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Subtype of myeloblast with disperesed primary (azurophilic) granules that does not exceed 20 per cell

A

Type II myeloblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Normal granulocyte precursor with paranuclear halo or hof

A

Promyelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

First stage of granulocyte precursor where synthesis of primary or non-specific azurophilic granules appear

A

Promyelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Final or last stage capable of mitosis in granulocyte maturation stage

A

Metamyelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Granulocyte precursor: Secondary/specific granules begins to manufacture

A

Myelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Dawn of neutrophilia is seen in _____________

A

Early myelocyte

patches of grainy pale-pink cytoplasm due to secondary granules in the Golgi Apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Nucleoli begin to disappear in the _____________ stage

A

Myelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Predominant granulocyte precursor in the bone marrow

A

Metamyelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Wbc precursor with a shape of kidney bean/peanut shaped nucleus

A

Metamyelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

_____________ stage begins the production of tertiary/gelatinase granules

A

Metamyelocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Shape of nucleus in band or stab cells

A

Elongated, C or S shaped (Curved or Sausage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Youngest granulocyte precursor normally seen in peripheral blood

A

Band / stab cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Wbc precursor: secretory granules or secretory vesicles begin to form

A

Band / stab cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Mature granulocyte where lobes are connected by thread-like filaments

A

Segmented neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Basophils are ___________ soluble. If granules are dissolved, it leaves a ____________ surrounding a vacuole

A

Water

Reddish-purple rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The major cytokine responsible for the stimulation of neutrophil production __________________

A

granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, or G-CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Tertiary granules degrade the extracellular matrix and act as a _____________

A

Chemotactic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Neutrophils are a source of ____________ and ________ for the proper absorption of Vit B1

A

Transcobalamine

R binder protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Charcot-leyden crystal is a ____________ of _____________ (granulocyte)

A

Primary granule

Eosinophil

70
Q

Basophils also play a role in angiogenesis through the expression of…

A

vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

71
Q

They are also known as tissue basophil

A

Mast cell

72
Q

Major cytokine responsible for mast cell maturation and differentiation

A

KIT ligand

73
Q

Cells that have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive function

A

Mast cells

enhance and suppress features of immune response

74
Q

Immunologic gate keepers

A

Mast cells

75
Q

Basophils are activated by…

A

IL-3

76
Q

First recognizable stage in maturation of monocytes

A

Promonocyte

77
Q

Under conditions of increased demand of monoctyes, promonocyte undergo ______ (#) divisions to yield _____ monocytes (#) in 60hrs

A

4

16

78
Q

Kidney shaped or horse-shoe shaped

A

Monocytes

79
Q

Largest cell in the peripheral blood

A

Monocyte

80
Q

Which wbc has no storage pool and is immediately released to the circulation upon maturation

A

Monocytes

81
Q

Tissue monocytes

A

Macrophages

82
Q

Robin’s egg blue cytoplasm is seen in…

A

Mature lymphocyte

83
Q

Most predominant lymphocyte

A

T cells

T:B cells ratio = 7:1

84
Q

_______________ are resting cells; when stimulated, undergo mitosis and produce memory and effector cells

A

Lymphocytes

85
Q

Perinuclear halo may be present in ____________

A

Plasma blast

large and well-defined in Plasmacyte / Plasma cell.

86
Q

This cell exhibits tortoise shell, clock face, spoke’s wheel, cart wheel

A

Plasmacyte / Plasma cell

nucleus is eccentric

87
Q

Nuclear abnormality that resulted from mutation in the lamin beta-receptor

A

Pelger huet (HYPOsegmentation)

88
Q

Pair of glasses, peanut shaped, pince nez is seen in…

A

Pelger huet (Hyposegmentation)

89
Q

Pelger huet: [Abnormal, Normal]

Function: ____________
Morphology: ____________

A

Normal

Abnormal

90
Q

Pseudohypersegmentation can be seen on _____________

A

Old segmented neutrophils

91
Q

Undritz anomaly and myelokathexis is a _________ (nuclear abnormality)

A

Hereditary hypersegmentation

92
Q

Formed from accumulation of degraded mucopolysaccharide

A

Alder-Reilly granules

93
Q

It is formed from abnormal fusion of primary and secondary neutrophilic granules

A

Chediak-higashi syndrome

appears as large lysosomal granules

94
Q

Chediak- higashi granules: [ Abnormal, Normal ]

Function:
Morphology:

A

Abnormal

Abnormal

95
Q

Associated with mutation in CHS1 LYST Gene on chromosome 1q42.1-2

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

96
Q

Photophobia and skin hypopigmentation (Albinism)

A

Chediak-higashi syndrome

97
Q

Dohle bodies are aggregates of ___________ of the ___________ in the cytoplasm

A

Free ribosomes

Rough ER

(remnants of ribosomal RNA arranged in parallel rows)

98
Q

Mutation in the MYH9 gene for production of myosin heavy chain type IIA

A

May hegglin inclusions

(affects megakaryocyte maturation and platelet fragmentation = assoc. w/ platelet disorder)

99
Q

Job’s syndrome is also known as…

A

Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome

100
Q

Job’s syndrome: [ Abnormal, Normal ]

Random activity: __________
Chemotactic activity: _________

A

Normal
Abnormal

Lazy leukocyte = both are abnormal

101
Q

Absence of surrounding erythma and formation of cold abscesses

A

Job’s syndrome

102
Q

Associated with STAT3 mutation

A

Job’s syndrome

103
Q

Also known as neutrophil paralysis

A

Lazy leukocyte syndrome

(both random and chemotactic is abnormal)

104
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD): [Abnormal, Normal]

Morphology: ________
Function: ___________

A

Normal
Abnormal - inability of a phagocyte to kill ingested microorganism due to NADPH Oxidase deficiency

105
Q

No respiratory burst

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

106
Q

CGD result for Nitro blue tetrazolium reduction test

A

Remains yellow/colorless

Normal WBC: blue insoluble formazan

107
Q

Important adhesion molecules for leukocytes

A

Selectins and integrins

108
Q

Neutrophil with homogenous round body

A

LE cells

best demonstrated using buffy coat

109
Q

Tart cells:

A. Monocyte ingested lymphocyte
B. Lymphocyte ingested monocyte

A

A. Monocyte ingested lymphocyte

110
Q

Thumbprint appearance seen on…

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

basket cells/smudge cells

111
Q

T lymphocyte with cerebriform nucleus (brain-like)

A

Sezary cells

112
Q

Cloverleaf -like nucleus seen in…

A

Reider cells

113
Q

Flame cells usually increased in _________ (condition/disorder)

A

Mutiple myeloma

114
Q

Intranuclear protein inclusions

A

Dutcher’s bodies

115
Q

A plasma cell with vacuoles; with large protein globules called as “Russel bodies”

A

Grape cell/ Berry/ Morula or MOTT cells

116
Q

Most common lipid storage disorder

A

Gaucher’s disease

117
Q

Gaucher’s disease occurs when there is a deficiency in ________________________ causes _________________ to accumulate.

A

Glucocerebrosidase / B-glucosidase

Glucocerebroside

118
Q

Chicken scratch appearance

A

Gaucher’s disease

119
Q

Wrinkled, onion skin-like appearance of the cytoplasm

A

Gaucher’s disease

120
Q

Gaucher’s disease common carriers

A

Ashkenazi jews

121
Q

Niemann-pick disease is a deficiency of __________

A

Sphingomyelinase enzyme

accumulation in sphingomyelin in macrophages and other organs

122
Q

Pick cell has a _________ appearance

A

Foamy

123
Q

Characterized by deficiency in hexosaminidase A enzyme

A

Tay-sachs disease

accumulation of glycolipids and gangliosides exhibited vacuolated cytoplasm

Sand Hoff’s disease - deficiency in Hexosaminidase A and B enzymes

124
Q

Abnormal, uncontrolled proliferation and accumulation of one or more hematopoietic cell

A

Leukemia

125
Q

Form of cancer of plasma cells

A

Lymphoma

126
Q

Leukemia of childhood and adolescence

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

127
Q

Most common type of leukemia in adults

A

Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

128
Q

Electrolytes affected in AML

A

Calcium
Potassium
Phosphorus

129
Q

A soccerball pattern seen on the peripheral blood film of __________

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

130
Q

Peak incidence of acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

2-5yrs old

131
Q

Large mass in the mediastinum is observed in ____________

A

T cell ALL

132
Q

Infiltration of malignant cells in the gums, mucosal sites, and skin is observed in _________

A

AML - Acute myeloid leukemia

133
Q

AML classification: appearance of Auer rods

A

M2 / Acute myeloblastic leukemia w/ maturation

134
Q

Translocation of chromosome # ________ and ________ seen in M3 / Acute promyelocytic leukemia

A

15 and 17 (results in the fusion between PML gene and retinoic acid receptor a (RARA)

sufficient diagnosis for M3

135
Q

Characterized by butterfly or coin-on-coin nucleus of promyelocyte

A

M3 / Acute promyelocytic leukemia

136
Q

Most aggressive sub class of AML

A

M3 / Acute promyelocytic leukemia

137
Q

M3 treatmemt

A

all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) and arsenic trioxide

138
Q

AML subclass: promonocytes presents contorted nuclei

A

M4 / Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

139
Q

M5a: >80% monocytic cells, >80% monoblast

M5b: ____________

A

> 80% monocytic cells, <80% monoblast

140
Q

Inclusions seen on M6 / Erythroleukemia / Erythremic myelosis

A

Ring sideroblast, Howell-Joy bodies

141
Q

AML subclass associated with chloroma

A

M1

142
Q

Associated with leukostasis together with M5

A

M4

143
Q

Stain used to differentiate acute myelogenous and monocytic leukemia from acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

Peroxidase

(Sudan black B for myelomonocytic leukemia from acute lymphocytic leukemia)

144
Q

Stains lipids present in monocytes and granulocytes

A

Sudan Black B

145
Q

Stain used to differentiate granulocytic from monocytic

A

Chloroacetate esterase

146
Q

Stains esterases present in monocytic cells, macrophages, megakaryocytes, and platelets

A

Non-specific esterases

(if in granulocytes = chloroacetate esterase)

147
Q

Periodic acid schiff is used to help in the diagnosis of _______________

A

DiGugleilmo’s syndrome

148
Q

Blocky or chunky pattern can be seen in cases of ___________ using PAS

A

Lymphoblastic leukemia

149
Q

Antibody used to help identify hairy-cell clusters

A

Anti-CD20 antibody

150
Q

Differentiate hairy cell leukemia from related B cell disorder

A

Annexin A

151
Q

Lymphoproliferative disorder associated with HTLV-2 infection

A

Hairy cell leukemia

152
Q

Lymphoma with a starry-sky pattern

A

Burkitt lymphoma

seen on both BM and lymph node biopsies

153
Q

Burkitt lymphoma variant where orbits and mandible are the site of disease

A

Endemic form

154
Q

Mycosis fungoides affects the ______________ (type of lymphocyte)

A

T cells

155
Q

Most common cutaneous lymphoma

A

Mycosis fungoides or Sezary syndrome

156
Q

Rye classification of Hodgkin = based on ____________
Ann arbor classification of Hodgkin= based on ____________

A

Histologic appearance from biopsy

Histologic appearance and extent of tissue involvement

157
Q

Popcorn cells are seen in…

A

Nodular lymphocyte predominant hodgkin

158
Q

The best prognosis is seen in ___subtype of classical hodgkin

A

Nodular sclerosis subtype

159
Q

The most aggressive variant of classical Hodgkin lymphoma, especially in HIV (+) patients

A

Lymphocyte-depleted hodgkin lymphoma

160
Q

Lymphoma/leukemia associated with HTLV-1

A

Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma

161
Q

Flower cells seen in…

A

Adult t cell lymphoma/leukemia

162
Q

Immunophenotyping: tumor marker for assessing disease status (Adult T cell lymphoma /leukemia)

A

Soluble form of IL-2

163
Q

IWCLL requirement to establish diagnosis of CLL

A

At least 5x10^9/L of circulating B-lymphocytes for more than 3 months

164
Q

Chromatin patter of lymphocyte/lymphoblast with a cobblestone

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

165
Q

Most common form of non-hodgkin lymphoma

A

Diffuse large b-cell lymphoma

166
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma demonstrates of translocation of chromosome ____ and ____

A

11 and 14

or overexpression of cyclin D1

167
Q

Associated with BCR/ABL1 abnormality

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

168
Q

JAK2 V617F mutation is found in both ___________ and __________

A

Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia and essential thrombocythemia

Polycythemia Vera - w/ Jak2 mutation

169
Q

Polycythemia vera patients exhibit _________ skin coloration

A

Ruddy

(due to INC rbc conc and viscosity of the blood)

170
Q

Gaisbock’s syndrome is seen in…

A

Relative polycythemia (stress polycythemia)

Hematology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions