Leukemia Flashcards

1
Q

Incidence of acute megakaryocytic leukemia In Down syndrome

A

Children with Down syndrome have a 10- to 100-fold elevated incidence of acute leukemia. The
incidence 80% ALL
20%, AML

. Megakaryocytic leukemia is the most common type of myeloid leukemia in
patients with Down syndrome, with 500-fold excess risk.

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2
Q

key markers used to indicate lineage in the WHO system

A

Myeloid: myeloperoxidase positivity
T-lineage: cytoplasmic CD3 or surface CD3
B-lineage: CD19, CD79a

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3
Q

Define mixed-phenotype acute leukemia?

A

(WHO) acute leukemia containing 2 distinct populations of blasts fulfilling diagnostic criteria for 2 different lineages (bilineal leukemia) or a single blast population expressing mixed markers (biphenotypic leukemia).

**flow cytometry on at least 20% of blasts for surface markers and 10% for cytoplasmic markers (european )

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4
Q

MPAL frequency ( Bilineal)

A

B-lymphoid/myeloid, 60%
T-lymphoid/myeloid, 33%
T-/B-lymphoid, 4%
Trilineage, 3%

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5
Q

Acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL) markers

A

These usually express CD34, HLA-DR, CD38, and sometimes TdT but no specific myeloid/lymphoid markers.

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6
Q

Two common genetic mutation in MPAL

A

BCR-ABL1 fusion and KMT2A rearrangement

**2 genetic subclassifications of MPAL are included in the WHO system:

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7
Q

Comparing the toxicity profiles of younger patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (1-15 years) to adolescents and young adults (1-30 years), which toxicity is more common in younger patients compared to older patients?

A

Adolescents and young adults with ALL treated with pediatric-based regimens have higher rates of toxicities, particularly hepatic and often associated with asparaginase. They also have higher rates of regimen-related mortality and require dedicated supportive measures.

Younger patients, however, have higher rates of febrile neutropenia.

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8
Q

Name two translocation that occurs in utero

A

ETV6::RUNX1 and KMT2A translocations

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9
Q

CD10+/CD19+/dimCD45/CD22+/weak CD13/33+
which leukemia ?

A

classic pre-B ALL immunophenotype

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10
Q

CD3+/CD4+/TdT+/CD1a+/CD34+
which leukemia?

A

classic T-ALL phenotype

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11
Q

CD33+/CD34+/weak CD38+/variable HLA-DR/weak MPO+
which leukemia ?

A

AML

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12
Q

CD10+/CD20+/bright CD45+/TdT-/kappa-restricted
which leukemia ?

A

mature B-cell phenotype, given the TdT negativity and the kappa restriction

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13
Q

CD3+, CD7+, TdT+, CD1a-, CD117+
which leukemia?

A

ETP ALL

lymphoblasts are immunophenotypically defined by absent CD8 and CD1a expression, weak CD5 expression, and robust expression of 1 or more myeloid and/or stem cell markers.

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14
Q

infants <90 days of age with ALL KMT2A rearrangements are designated high risk and they have historically had poor outcomes. which drug showed improve DFS and OS compared to traditional chemo?

A

Of note, CD22 negativity is observed more commonly in KMT2A-rearranged ALL.

Blinatumomab added to Interfant-06 chemotherapy was recently shown to improve 2-year DFS and OS compared to traditional chemotherapy and this treatment strategy for infant ALL is now being pursued by treatment consortia internationally.

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15
Q

Gemtuzumab

A

CD33 antibody-drug conjugate used in treatment of AML.

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16
Q

Patients with Down syndrome ALL and CRLF2 have lesser frequency of….

A

Less frequency of BCR::ABL1-like phenotype in children with DS-ALL with CRLF2 overexpression, JAK inhibitor therapy is not indicated.

17
Q

Burkitt leukemia

A

Think of it in a patient with mediastinal mass,

deeply basophilic cytoplasm and cytoplasmic vacuoles, surface kappa light chains, and a t(2; 8)(p12;q24)

c-Myc locus at 8q24 to an immunoglobulin heavy or light chain gene. The immunoglobulin kappa gene is located at 2p12.

typically are treated in the same way as patients with advanced stage Burkitt lymphoma

18
Q

t AML causes

A

1-Alkylating agents (eg, cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide): long latency (3 to 5 years) with a long preleukemic MDS phase. monosomy 7 or 5q-,

2- topoisomerase inhibitors (eg, etoposide, doxorubicin) short latency (6 to 18 months) with a more explosive presentation. MLL rearrangment t(9;11).

19
Q

Markers of AMKL

A

CD41, CD42 and CD61

20
Q

treatment of CML - chronic phase

A

CML chronic phase:
- high WBC ( crazy number 700k) with a “normal” maturation of the myeloid lineage in the peripheral blood (including only a small percentage of myeloblasts) along with minimal symptoms like splenomegaly, The normal platelet count and hemoglobin are also consistent with this. Tx: Imatinib ( or second generation kinase inhibitor, such as dasatinib or nilotinib)

21
Q

CML - phases

A
  • Chronic Phase (CP): <10% blasts in marrow and blood
  • +/- Accelerated Phase (AP): 10% to 19% blasts in marrow or blood, or 20% basophils in peripheral blood

Blast Crisis (BC): (2/3 AML, 1/3 B-ALL)
1) 20% blasts in marrow or blood;
2) presence of an extramedullary proliferation of blasts; or
3) presence of increased lymphoblasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow

22
Q

AMKL treatment in DS

A

Induction chemotherapy with anthracyclines and cytarabine, at least one course of intensive cytarabine, and intermittent dosing of intrathecal cytarabine over the course of treatment

23
Q

TKI resistance

A

patient who achieved cytogentic and major molecular response remission suddenly has elevated BCR-ABL in CML.

Need to do ABL sequencing to detect resistance mutations can help guide alternative TKI choice.

patients with T315I mutations should receive ponatinib.

24
Q

AML prognosis tests

A

initial risk stratification is based include favorable cytogenetics and molecular markers (inv(16), t(8;21), NPM1, CEBPA), unfavorable cytogenetics and molecular markers (monosomy 7, monosomy 5 or deletion 5q, FLT3-ITD high allelic ratio), and induction response.

25
CML response to TKI
Initial response to TKI therapy is typically gradual and proceeds in the following order: resolution of splenomegaly and normalization of blood counts, cytogenetic remission of the marrow, and diminution of peripheral blood BCR/ABL by RT-qPCR to low or undetectable levels. The expected rate of this resolution" "Complete hematologic remission within 3-6 months, complete cytogenetic remission (CCyR) within 12 months, and major molecular response (MMR) within 18 months; monitor by peripheral blood RT-qPCR for BCR/ABL every 3 to 6 months while continuing imatinib indefinitely if MMR persists."
26
APL managment
acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL; M3 in the French-American-British classification), which has an overall favorable prognosis because of its high event-free survival rates with ATRA, arsenic trioxide, and, in high-risk cases, chemotherapy. white count is greater than 10,000/mm3 at diagnosis, suggesting a higher risk APL rather than lower risk. Although ATRA has made dramatic improvements in APL outcome, its use as a single agent sustains remission for only a limited period of time before patients relapse. Differentiation syndrome is a complication of using ATRA alone when the white count is high and should be used concurrently with chemotherapy for patients with initially high white counts. Otherwise, ATRA may be started alone, followed in a few days by traditional chemotherapy. * ATRA + Arsenic Trioxide (ATO) in induction and consolidation for all patients * High-risk patients (WBC >10k) also receive idarubicin in induction for cytoreduction
27
Optimal therapy for a patient with AML and a high-risk cytogenetic abnormality such as monosomy 7, 5q deletion, or FLT3/ITD high allelic ratio includes :
intensive administration of anthracyclines and cytarabine remission induction and then allogeneic stem cell transplantation
28
***ALL has a higher risk of thrombosis than ***ALL.
T-ALL , B-ALL There is no association between mediastinal mass and bleeding, but there is an increased risk of thrombosis in patients with a mediastinal mass. The risk of thrombosis is increased during induction because of active cancer and the use of steroids and asparaginase. Asparaginase increases the risk of thrombosis due to decreased synthesis of protein C, protein S, and antithrombin
29
JMML high risk features
JMML patients, those with the worst prognosis (older than 1 year of age, greater than 9% monocytes, greater than 2% peripheral blasts, platelets less than 50,000/µl, elevated fetal hemoglobin for age, and monosomy 7 at presentation) had an “AML-like” gene expression profile
30
Acute eosinophilic leukemia
y. ALL can be associated with marked eosinophilia in cases with a t(5;14) that brings the IL-3 gene from chromosome 5q31 into the vicinity of the immunoglobulin heavy chain locus. Such patients may have very low percentages of marrow blasts. The eosinophils are reactive and not part of the malignant clon