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Network+ > Lesson 20: Summarizing Cloud and Datacenter Architecture > Flashcards

Lesson 20: Summarizing Cloud and Datacenter Architecture Flashcards

1
Q

Define Scalability

A

The costs involved in supplying a cloud service to more users are linear; If need of the service doubles so will the price.

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2
Q

How can an organization achieve scalability?

A

Achieved by provisioning more nodes (horizontal/scaling out) or by provisioning more resources to each node (vertical/scaling up).

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3
Q

Define Elasticity

A

A computing environment or system that can instantly react to both increasing and decreasing demands in workload.

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4
Q

How can elasticity save cost from a cloud provider?

A

The system being able to self provision resources allows for cost of service to be lower when the demand for resources is low.

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5
Q

How do cloud providers achieve scalability and elasticity?

A

Provisioning and deprovisioning resources automatically using resource pooling and virtualization.

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6
Q

Define resource pooling

A

The hardware making up the cloud provider’s datacenter is not dedicated or reserved to a single customer account allowing he provider to provision more CPU, memory, disk, or network resource using management software.

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7
Q

List the current cloud deployment models

A
  1. Public
  2. Hybrid
  3. Hosted Private
  4. Private
  5. Community
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8
Q

Define a public could deployment

A

A service offered over the Internet by cloud service providers (CSPs) offering subscriptions or pay-as-you-go financing.

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9
Q

Define a hosted private cloud deployment

A

Hosted by a third party for the exclusive use of the organization.

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10
Q

Define a private cloud deployment

A

Cloud infrastructure that is completely private to and owned by the organization.

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11
Q

Define a community cloud deployment

A

Aeveral organizations share the costs of either a hosted private or fully private cloud.

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12
Q

Define a hybrid cloud envrionment

A

A cloud computing solution that implements two of the other cloud deployment models.

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13
Q

What are the current cloud service models?

A
  1. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
  2. Software as a Service (SaaS)
  3. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
  4. Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
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14
Q

Define Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

A

Cloud service model that provisions virtual machines and network infrastructure.

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15
Q

Define Software as a Service (SaaS)

A

Cloud service model that provisions fully developed application services to users.

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16
Q

What are examples of Software as a Service (SaaS)?

A

Salesforce, RingCentral, Office 365

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17
Q

Define Platform as a Service (PaaS)

A

Provides resources from IaaS and SaaS; Cloud service model deploying infrastructure and application services allowing further development of the resources by the tenant

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18
Q

List examples of Platform as a Service (PaaS)

A

Microsoft Azure SQL Database; Oracle Cloud Database; Google App Engine™

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19
Q

Define Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

A

Cloud service model that provisions desktop OS and applications software.

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20
Q

Define virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)

A

The byproduct of Desktop as a Service (DaaS); Cloud provisioned desktop OS and applications software.

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21
Q

Define cloud connectivity

A

The mechanism by which clients connect to the cloud service.

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22
Q

Define infrastructure as code (IaC)

A

Provisioning architecture in which deployment of resources is performed by scripted automation.

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23
Q

What is the main goal of Infrastructure as Code (Iac)?

A

To eliminate snowflake systems.

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24
Q

Define a snowflake system

A

A configuration or build that is different from any other.

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25
Q

What are are issues that can arise from a snowflake system in an environment?

A

Leads to security issues, such as patches that have not been installed, and stability issues, such as scripts that fail to run because of some small configuration difference.

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26
Q

What is infrastructure as code (IaC) defined as?

A

Automation

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27
Q

Define automation

A

Using scripts/code and APIs to provision and deprovision systems without manual intervention or to complete a task without intervention.

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28
Q

What are the two main types of automation tools?

A
  1. Imperative tools
  2. Declarative tools
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29
Q

Define declarative automation

A

Defining an end-state, and the automation platform does the work of reconciling the input/goal, current status, and what needs be done to achieve the input/goal.

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30
Q

Define imperative automaiton

A

A series of actions are executed in a specific order to achieve an outcome.

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31
Q

Define orchestration

A

Automation of multiple coordinated steps in a deployment process; also known as imperative automation

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32
Q

How can imperative automation also be defined as?

A

Orchestration

33
Q

Define a cloud responsibility matrix and its purpose to a tenant

A

Documentation listing which security and management tasks are the responsibility of the cloud provider and which are the responsibility of the cloud consumer.

34
Q

Define colocation

A

An organization hosting servers or services at a datacenter or 3rd party.

35
Q

Define a hypervisor

A

Software or firmware that creates and manages virtual machines on the host hardware.

36
Q

What are the two types of hypervisors?

A

Type 1 and Type 2

36
Q

List a examples of type 2 hypervisors

A

VMware workstation Oracle virtual box

36
Q

Define a type 2 hypervisor

A

Host-based, running as software on the OS to utilize the hosts physical hardware to create virtual machines

36
Q

Define a type 1 hypervisor

A

Bare metal virtual platform; installed directly into the host to manage hardware resources without the need for a host OS

37
Q

List examples of a type 1 hypervisor

A

Hyper-v, VMware EXSI Server

37
Q

Define an internal virtual switch

A

Isolates the virtual machines but allows network switching between the Hyper-V host and the virtual machines.

37
Q

What are the 3 types of virtual switches that can be created in hyper-v?

A
  1. External
  2. Internal
  3. Private
37
Q

Define an external virtual switch

A

Linked to the physical NIC of the Hyper-V host and allows access to the
LAN network.

37
Q

How is the MAC address for a virtual NIC (vNIC) configured?

A

In the hypervisor settings for the specific VM.

37
Q

Define a private virtual switch

A

Creates a switch that is usable only by the VMs. They cannot use the switch to communicate with the host.

38
Q

Define Network Function Virtualization (NFV)

A

Provisioning virtual network appliances, such as switches, routers, and firewalls, via VMs and containers.

39
Q

What are the 3 domains of Network Function Virtualization (NFV)?

A
  1. Virtual Network Function (VNF)
  2. NFV infrastructure
  3. Management and orchestration (MANO)
40
Q

Define Virtual Network Function (VNF)

A

VNF replaces network hardware with software that virtualize network services.

41
Q

What are examples of Virtual Network Functions (VNFs)

A

Routers, directory services, firewalls, load balancers.

42
Q

Define NFV infrastructure

A

Consists of the infrastructure components on a platform to support the hypervisor and its VMs.

43
Q

What are examples of the components in NFV infrastructure?

A

CPU, storage, NIC/cabling, RAM

44
Q

Define Management and orchestration (MANO)

A

Framework for the management and orchestration of all resources in a virtualized data center including compute, networking, storage, and virtual machine (VM) resources.

45
Q

Define a storage area network (SAN)

A

Network dedicated to provisioning storage resources, typically consisting of storage devices and servers connected to switches via host bus adapters.

46
Q

What is the best practice topology of a storage area network (SAN)

A

Isolated from the main network; Only accessed by servers not clients machines.

47
Q

What is the typical use case for a storage area network (SAN)

A

SAN clients are servers running databases or applications that require access to shared storage.

48
Q

Define Fibre Channel

A

High speed network communications protocol used to implement SANs

49
Q

Define an initiator in a SAN

A

A client device of the SAN, such as a file or database server installed with a fibre channel host bus adapter (HBA).

49
Q

Define an FC switch in a SAN

A

Interconnects initiators and targets and should be configured as a mesh topology for fault tolerance.

49
Q

Define a target in a SAN

A

The network port for a storage device in a SAN (single drive, RAID array, tape drives)

50
Q

What is used to identify initiators and targets in a SAN?

A

Identified by 64-bit WorldWide Names (WWN).

51
Q

Define east-west traffic

A

Design paradigm accounting for the fact that data center traffic between servers is greater than that passing in and out (north-south).

51
Q

Define Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI)

A

IP tunneling protocol that enables the transfer of SCSI data over an IP-based network to create a SAN without the use of fibre channel, fibre switches, fiber links, or, FCoE.

52
Q

Define north-south traffic

A

Desgin paradigm representing traffic from clients outside a data center or cooperate office; Traffic from the client to the server passes “north” from the client’s switch to the router and then back “south” to the server’s switch.

53
Q

Define an overlay network

A

Virtual network of nodes and logical links built on top of an existing network to enable new services or functions without needing to reconfigure an entire network design.

54
Q

Define Software defined networking (SDN)

A

APIs and scripts along with compatible hardware/virtual appliances allowing for programmable network appliances and systems.

55
Q

What are the 3 layers of Software defined networking (SDN)?

A
  1. Application Layer
  2. Control Layer
  3. Infrastructure Layer
56
Q

Define the function of the application layer in Software defined networking (SDN)

A

Defines policies such as segmentation, ACLs, and traffic prioritization and policing/shaping to determine where traffic should go and how it should go to its destination.

57
Q

Define the function of the infrastructure layer in Software defined networking (SDN)

A

Devices (physical or virtual) that handle the actual forwarding (switching and routing) of traffic and imposition of ACLs and other policy configurations for security.

58
Q

Define the function of the control layer in Software defined networking (SDN)

A

Contains the SDN controller that manages northbound API communications to the application layer and southbound API communications to the infrastructure layer.

59
Q

Describe a spine and leaf topology

A

Topology comprising of a top tier of aggregation/distribution switches forming a backbone that connects a leaf tier of top-of-rack switches which connect to servers.

60
Q

Define the spine layer in a spine and leaf topology

A

Comprises a backbone of top-tier switches; The spine switches are not linked to one another.

61
Q

Define the leaf layer in a spine and leaf topology

A

Contains access switches that are connected to each spine switch in a full mesh topology; The access switches never have direct connections to one another.

62
Q

How does a spine and leaf topology decrease latency?

A

Since there are no direct connections between spine switches in the backbone or between leaf switches, the network is loop free and each server is only ever a single hop from the backbone making routes faster.

63
Q

Since spine and leaf topology is considered a mesh topology, how is traffic distributed to the leaf layer?

A

Servers are connected to multiple leaf switches for multipath redundancy, using a first hop gateway protocol to determine the active path.

64
Q

Since spine and leaf topology is considered a mesh topology, how is traffic distributed to the spine layer?

A

Each leaf switch runs a protocol called Equal Cost Multipathing (ECMP) to distribute traffic between the links to the spine switches.

65
Q

Define a top-of-rack (ToR) switch

A

High-performance switch model designed to implement the leaf tier in a spine and leaf topology.

66
Q

Define Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

A

Network protocol used by service providers to implement private WAN links and virtual private networks with traffic engineering (congestion control), Class of Service, and Quality of Service.

67
Q
A

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