Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

3 components of Communication Systems in body

A
  1. Nervous system
  2. Endocrine system
  3. Immune system

three most important communication systems in body

these symptoms are interconnected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

forms of communication between nervous system and endocrine system

A
  1. hormones
  2. neurotransmitters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

forms of communication between endocrine system and immune system

A
  1. hormones
  2. cytokines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

forms of communication between nervous system and immune system

A
  1. cytokines
  2. neurotransmitters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

nervous system splits into…

A

central nervous system and peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

central nervous system

A

division of the nervous system

structures encased in bone

  1. brain (cranium)
  2. spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

peripheral nervous system

A

division of the nervous system

  1. autonomic system
  2. somatic system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

responsible for INVOLUNTARY control of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

somatic nervous system

A

responsible for CONSCIOUS PERCEPTION and VOLUNTARY MOTOR RESPONSES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

autonomic system splits into…

A
  1. sympathetic
    - fight or flight
  2. parasympathetic
    - rest and digest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what kind of neurons for parasympathetic system?

A

cholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what kind of neurotransmitter for sympathetic system?

A

norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

somatic nervous system

A

subdivision of peripheral nervous system

allows you to move and control muscles

feeds info from 4 senses to brain

2 pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

four senses whose info are carried by the somatic NS

A

smell
sound
taste
touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

somatic NS: two pathways of info

A
  1. afferent
  2. efferent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

afferent pathway

A

carries info from SENSORY receptors to the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

efferent pathway

A

carries MOTOR INFO away from the CNS to the MUSCLES/GLANDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

classical definition of behaviour

A

behaviour results from 3 interacting components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hormones can effect which of the components of behaviour?

A

all three (input, CNS or output)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 interacting components which result in behaviour

A
  1. input system/sensorial stimulus (internal or external)
  2. central NS
  3. output system/peripheral NS (effectors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

superior

A

above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

inferior

A

below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

rostral

A

front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

caudal

A

back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

anterior

A

in front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

posterior

A

behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

dorsal

A

back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ventral

A

front/belly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3 axes we use to slice brain

A
  1. coronal
  2. sagittal
  3. horizontal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

coronal slice

A

divides front and back of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

sagittal slice

A

splits brain into the two hemispheres (along the longitudinal fissure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

horizontal slice

A

divides top and bottom of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

entire central nervous system comes from what in the fetus?

A

neural tube

entire brain comes from this tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

neural tube develops when

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3 vesicles of the neural tube

A

forebrain

midbrain

hindbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

later on in development, the forebrain divides into…

A

telencephalon (cerebrum)

diencephalon (lower structures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

telencephalon is composed of…

A
  1. cortex
  2. limbic system
  3. basal ganglia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

diencephalon

A
  1. thalamus
  2. hypothalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

most of the brain is composed of the…

A

cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cerebral cortex functions

A

consciousness, thought, emotion, reasoning, language, memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

cerebral cortex is subdivided into…

A

4 lobes

frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

corpus callosum

A

connects hemispheres of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cortex is how thick

A

3 mm

covers both hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

cortex is composed of…

A

grey matter

bodies of the neural cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

white matter

A

axons

means that all the grey matter (cell bodies) are connected all over the brain by the white matter (axons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

DTI

A

uses water to show the neuron connections and their activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

frontal lobe 4 main functions

A
  1. reasoning/executive functioning (PFC)
  2. motor control (motor cortex)
  3. emotion
  4. language (Broca’s area)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

where is the motor cortex?

A

PFC

precentral gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Broca’s area

A

essential for language production

in frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

early evidence of importance of frontal lobe in behaviour regulation

A

case of Phineas Gage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Phineas Gage

A

railroad construction accident survivor

large iron rod was driven completely through his head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

where were the lesions in Phineas Gage’s brain?

A

widespread lesion of LEFT FRONTAL LOBE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

reported effects of Gage’s lesions

A

affected personality and behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

parietal lobe

A

processes sensory info of the body

contains SOMATOSENSORY CORTEX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

somatosensory cortex alternative name

A

postcentral gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

somatosensory cortex is organized in what manner?

A

topographically

ie. cortical homunculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

temporal lobe main function, and secondary ones

A

main: processing auditory signals

secondary: learning, memory, language, integrates info from other brain regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

occipital lobe

A

at back of head

interprets VISUAL info

also involved in balance - cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

boxing anecdote occipital lobe

A

illegal in boxing to punch at the back of the head

because it can cause loss of vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

subcortical regions

A

regions other than the frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes are SUBCORTICAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

4 subcortical regions

A
  1. amygdala (fear/anxiety)
  2. hippocampus (learning/memory)
  3. hypothalamus (homeostasis - connection with endocrine system)
  4. thalamus (relay centre of brain)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

limbic system is composed of…

A

amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus, thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

amygdala has lots of receptors for…

A

cortisol

reacts to stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

limbic system is where our ____ originate

A

initial emotional responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

limbic system is located where

A

between brainstem and neocortex

acts like a bridge between these two areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

has a consensus been reached on what parts of the brain compose the limbic system?

A

not really

but it’s agreed upon that the amygdala, hippocampus, thalamus and hypothalamus are part of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is the structure behind our body FEELING the emotions that we experience?

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

limbic system in reaction to scary movie

A

watching movie

  1. hypothalamus receives a signal from the amygdala that something frightening is being presented
  2. hypothalamus triggers the fear/fight or flight response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

“the master regulator of the endocrine system”

A

the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

if hippocampus is damaged…

A

can’t convert STM to LTM (anterograde amnesia)

people feel less fear, hyper-sexuality and mellowness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

SM’s amygdala was damaged…

A

and she couldn’t feel fear as a result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

case of HM

A

suffered from seizures

removed hippocampus in attempt to treat it

function of hippocampus was unknown at the time

seizures stopped, IQ improved

ONE PROBLEM: his memory was gone
- lost most memories of past
- short term mem couldn’t be consolidated

couldn’t form new memories

but could keep it in working memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

before HM, memory was thought to be…

A

monolithic and stored in the same place in the brain

HM paved way to distinction between STM and LTM

and idea that diff mems are stored in diff areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

hippocampus main function

A

memory consolidation

STM to LTM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

procedural memory relies more on which two structures?

A
  1. basal ganglia
  2. cerebellum

^these two structures were both intact in HM’s brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

2 main parts of the midbrain

A

substantia nigra

ventral tegmental area

(located deep within the brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

midbrain is responsible for what three main things?

A

mood, reward and addiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

hindbrain 3 parts

A
  1. medulla
  2. pons
  3. cerebellum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

medulla

A

controls automatic processes of ANS

blood, breathing, heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

pons

A

connects hindbrain to rest of brain

means “bridge”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

cerebellum

A

receives msgs from joints and ear structures

controls balance

some procedural memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

two types of neuronal cells

A
  1. neurons
  2. glial cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

glial cells comes from what word

A

Greek word for “glue”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

glial cells were initially thought to only…

A
  1. hold neurons in place
  2. act as supportive cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

now we know that glial cells have a variety of functions, such as…

A
  1. providing support to neurons
  2. repairing damage
  3. fighting infections
  4. influencing neurotransmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

3 types of glial cells

A
  1. microglia
  2. oligodendrocyte
  3. astrocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

microglia

A

immune response

homeostasis

supporting neuronal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

oligodendrocyte

A

produce myelin sheaths that wrap around axons

nurturing and sustaining the environment around axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

astrocyte

A

neural support

repair damage

regulate neuronal communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

in PNS, oligodendrocytes are called…

A

schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

in PNS, astrocytes are called…

A

satellite cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

neurons are _______ cells

A

excitable

can be excited in certain situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

dendrite

A

serve as input sites where SIGNALS ARE RECEIVED from other neurons

are different at diff ages

old people have less, and shorter, dendritic spines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

stress and dendrites

A

stress can reduce number of dendritic spines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

each dendritic spine is postsynaptic to…

A

one or two axon terminals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

intellectual disability and dendritic spines

A

spines have diff (abnormal) formations in intellectual disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

axons

A

longest projections from the soma

end at multiple terminal buttons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

terminal buttons

A

where the signal (action potential) finishes

where the neuron communicates with another neuron/other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

soma

A

central part of neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

soma contains…

A

watery fluid called CYTOSOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

cytosol

A

watery fluid inside the cell

salty, potassium rich solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

cytosol is separated from the outside of the cell by the…

A

neuronal membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

membrane-enclosed structures within the soma

A

organelles (ribosomes, proteins)

cell body of neuron contains SAME organelles found in all animal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

nucleus

A

produces proteins

spherical, centrally located part of the neuron cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

nucleus is contained within a…

A

DOUBLE MEMBRANE called the nuclear envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

nuclear envelope

A

the double membrane that contains the nucleus

it’s perforated by POREES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

some hormones act within the neuron nucleus and…

A

have TRANSCRIPTIONAL properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

nucleus and hormones

A

some hormones affect the nucleus

bind to receptors

GENE TRANSCRIPTION to create proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

gene transcription

A
  1. RNA molecules are synthesized by RNA polymerase
  2. then processed into mRNA to carry genetic instructions for protein assembly from nucleus to cytoplasm
  3. transcription is initiated at promoter region of gene and stopped at terminator region
  4. initial RNA must be spliced to remove the introns that don’t code for protein
  5. then are exported from nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

membrane

A
  1. serves as BARRIER to enclose the cytoplasm inside the neuron
  2. excludes certain substances that float in the fluid that bathes the neuron
  3. various types of proteins are embedded within the neuron cell membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

4 proteins embedded within the membrane of neurons

A
  1. ion channels
  2. transporters
  3. receptors
  4. enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

ion channels

A

allow the passage of ions (ie. sodium, potassium, calcium) in and out of the cell

facilitates nerve impulse transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

transporters

A

assist in the movement of molecules and ions across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

receptors

A

bind to specific neurotransmitters or signalling molecules, initiating cellular responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

enzymes

A

catalyze specific chemical reactions crucial for cellular functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

function of neurons cannot be understood without understanding structure and function of…

A

membrane and its associated proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

membrane is important in maintaining difference in…

A

electrical charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

resting membrane potential

A

cell is at rest

not generating impulses

inside the cell = negative
outside the cell = positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

how do neurons maintain the difference in electrical charge?

A

ion channels

sodium, potassium and chloride

sodium and potassium = positively charged

chloride = negatively charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

sodium-potassium pump

A

uses energy (via ATP -> ADP)

to constantly pump 3 sodium ions OUT of the cell

and 2 potassium ions INTO the cell

uses energy to constantly maintain the difference in electrical charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

sodium-potassium pump helps to keep the electrical charge inside the cell…

A

less positive than the electrical charge outside the cell

so more negative inside the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what percentage of brain’s energy is used to maintain the electrical diff for neurons?

A

60-70%

very energy-demanding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what happens when neuron receives a stimulus?

A

rapid reversal of the resting state

the membrane becomes positively charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

the _______ and _______ of action potentials constitute the code used by neurons to transfer info from one location to another

A

FREQUENCY and PATTERN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

in resting state, charge of inside of cell is

A

-70 mV

while the outside is positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

when neuron receives stimulus, what channels open?

A

sodium channels

because sodium ions are more concentrated OUTSIDE the cell, they flow inside the cell (concentration gradient)

because sodium is positive, the membrane DEPOLARIZES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

repolarization

A

cell depolarizes with the stimulus

sodium ions enter the cell and make the inside positively charged

reaches a peak of 50 mV

then there is a process of REPOLARIZATION where the neuron returns to resting state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

during depolarization, what peak charge does the inside of the cell reach?

A

50 mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

hyperpolarization

A

when neuron is too negative

cannot depolarize/fire in this state

refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what channels open during repolarization?

A

potassium channels

potassium leaves the cell (because of concentration gradient) until it reaches its resting state of -70 mV once more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

how does neuron return to resting potential after firing?

A

sodium-potassium pump

brings 2 potassiums into cell

brings 3 sodiums out of cell

now ready for another action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

unmyelinated versus myelinated axons

A

myelinated with nodes of ranvier = faster transmission

signal/action potential jumps from node to node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

5 action potential properties

A
  1. all same size
  2. all same duration
  3. don’t diminish as they move down the axon
  4. frequency and pattern of action potentials constitute the code used by neurons to transfer info from one location to another
  5. very rapid - 100 times faster than blink of an eye
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

how long do action potentials last?

A

about 2 milliseconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

at the axon hillock…

A

action potentials undergo summation

potentially is enough to generate the release of neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

neural firing chain of 6 events

A
  1. neurotransmitter release
  2. receptor binding
  3. ion channels open/close
  4. conductance change causes current flow
  5. postsynaptic potential changes
  6. postynaptic ions excited or inhibited
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

ionotropic vs metabotropic

A

ionotropic: ligand-gated ion channels

metabotropic: G-protein coupled receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

4 NT pathways

A

DANS

  1. dopamine
  2. acetylcholine
  3. norepinephrine
  4. serotonin

NTs occur in specific pathways, aren’t just randomly distributed across the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what creates the potential in a cell?

A

the -70 mV difference between the inside and the outside of the cell

this difference in charge creates the potential for action and for rest as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

communication between neurons and glands is very _____, while communication between glands is very _____

A

fast

slow (because the hormone must travel through the bloodstream to reach the target)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

behavioural endocrinology is the study of…

A

scientific study of the BIDIRECTIONAL interactions between hormones and behaviour

hormones can affect behaviour, and behaviour can influence hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

3 things that hormones affect which indirectly impact behaviour

A

they affect individuals’:

  1. sensory systems
  2. integrators
  3. effectors (output systems)

^all three of these are important for behaviour, and hormones affect all of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

hormone

A

organic chemical messenger

released from endocrine cells

travels through blood system to interact with cells via very specific receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

endocrine glands

A

ductless glands from which hormones are released into the blood stream

release hormones in response to specific physiological signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

hormones do what to influence probability of behaviour

A
  1. they change gene expression
  2. or they change rate of cellular function

these two things affect behaviour by increasing the probability that a given behaviour will occur in the presence of a specific stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

endocrine cells versus endocrine glands

A

endocrine cells: ie. fat
- fat releases hormones

endocrine glands:
- produce and release hormones
- can be released by direct innervations or if something binds to the gland (cascade)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

the effects of hormones are notable not only in behaviour…

A

but also in several human ATTRIBUTES and CHARACTERISTICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

3 examples of how hormones affect other human attributes and characteristics

A
  1. Lance Armstrong admittedly used EPO, blood transfusions, testosterone and corticosteroids when competing
  2. Testosterone treatment
  3. Messi had Growth Hormone Deficiency (GHD) and received GHD injections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

testosterone causes…

A

gain of body mass

higher levels of aggression/paranoia

messes with feedback mechanisms between communication between brain and testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

historical roots of behavioural endocrinology

A

remarkably multidisciplinary from the very beginning

relationships among endocrine glands, their hormone products and behaviour have been implicitly recognized for centuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

example of relationship between endocrine glands, their hormone products and behaviour

A

male sex organs (testes) produce and secrete a hormone called testosterone that influences sexual behaviour, aggression, territoriality, as well as other behaviours that differentiate males from females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Alessandro Moreschi

A

the last known castrato

removing testes causes behavioural changes

Europe in times past - if you were a young boy with a good voice, the Church might castrate you to keep your voice high (castratos)

childlike voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

first method used to determine if a gland affects a behaviour

A

ablation and replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

steps of ablation and replacement

A
  1. gland that is suspected to be the source of the hormone affecting behaviour is surgically removed
  2. effects on behaviour are observed
  3. hormone is replaced by re-implantation, injection of an extract from the gland, or injecting a purified hormone
  4. determination is made whether the observed consequences of removal are reversed by the hormonal replacement therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Berthold’s experiment

A

first ever hormones and behaviour experiment

had three groups of chicks

group 1: castrated
group 2: castrated and re-implanted
group 3: castrated and transplanted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Berthold’s experiment: group 1

A

castrated

caponization
- small comb and wattles
- no interest in hens
- no aggression towards other males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Berthold’s experiment: group 2

A

castrated and reimplantation of testes

normal male development
- normal comb and wattles
- normal male behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Berthold’s experiment: group 3

A

castration and transplantation of testes

normal male development
- normal comb and wattles
- normal male behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Berthold’s 3 major conclusions

A
  1. testes are transplantable organs
  2. transplanted testes can function and produce sperm
  3. because testes functioned normally after all nerves were severed, there are no specific nerves directing testicular function
    - so certain glands receive info from innervations, but not all
    - can conclude that something in the blood is functioning to affect behaviour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

most research in behavioural endocrinology involves only a few types of _______ _______. why?

A

simple behaviour

this narrow focus on only a few behavioural measures is partially a response to the enormous variation in complex behaviours

this approach has advantages and disadvantages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

categorize behaviour into two main classes

A
  1. description of action
    - how questions: allow us to infer causation and role of experience
  2. description of consequence
    - why questions: evolution and function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

4 things that flow out of “description of action” and “description of consequence”

A

mechanisms (how question)

development (how question)

evolution (why question)

function (why question)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

2 areas of “how questions”

A
  1. immediate causation: the physiological mechanisms underlying behaviour
  2. development: the role of experience in individual behaviour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

2 areas of “why questions”

A
  1. evolution: the perspective(s) adopted by biologists who assume that evolutionary processes are central to issues in ecology, systematics, and behaviour
  2. adaptive function: the role of any structural, physiological, or behavioural process that increases an individual’s fitness to survive and reproduce
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

3 pieces of evidence needed to determine that a particular hormone affected a specific behaviour OR that a specific behaviour changed hormone concentration

A
  1. a hormonally-dependent behaviour should disappear when the source of the hormone is removed, or the actions of the hormone are blocked
  2. after the behaviour stops, restoration of the missing hormonal source or its hormone should reinstate the absent behaviour
  3. hormone concentrations and the behaviours in question should be covariant: the behaviour should be observed only when hormone concentrations are relatively high and never/rarely when hormone concentrations are low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

latency of action of hormones

A

have a long latency of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

manner in which many hormones are released (and an example)

A

pusatile manner

ie. secretion of cortisol occurs approximately every 90 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

5 classes of evidence for determining hormone-behaviour interactions

A
  1. quasi-experimental designs
  2. comparison groups
  3. natural observations
  4. non-random assignment
  5. use of statistical controls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

quasi-experimental designs

A

inferring causation in a research setting in cases where experimenting would be unethical/difficult

this approach falls between experimental and non-experimental designs

aims to investigate cause-and-effect like experimental design, but often lacks some key elements (like random assignment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

comparison groups

A

researchers might compare groups that naturally differ in hormone levels (such as individuals with naturally high vs low testosterone) or groups influenced by external factors (such as individuals using hormone replacemeent therapy versus those not using it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

natural observations

A

these designs often rely on naturally occurring variations in hormone levels rather than manipulating them artificially

try not to influence/bias the quantification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

non-random assignment

A

participants aren’t randomly assigned to groups due to limitations in controlling or manipulating hormone levels in a controlled manner

instead, researchers observe and compare existing groups

try to account for confounders in the analysis - lack of random assignment makes it harder to establish causality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

use of statistical controls

A

quasi-experimental designs employ statistical techniques to control for confounding variables to strengthen the validity of the findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

lack of random assignment makes it harder to establish…

A

a clear cause-and-effect relationship between hormones and behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

correlational designs

A

examination of relationships between variables without intervening or manipulating them

instead of seeking causation, they aim to IDENTIFY ASSOCIATIONS/CORRELATIONS between variables to understand how they relate to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

4 traits of correlational designs

A
  1. measurement of variables
  2. assessment of relationships
  3. no manipulation of variables
  4. identification of associations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

correlational designs: measurement of variables

A

researchers measure 2+ variables to determine if they’re related

these variables can be anything measurable (height, age, test scores, hormone levels…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

correlational designs: assessment of relationships

A

statistical analyses, likely correlation coefficients, are used to assess the STRENGTH and DIRECTION of relationships between variables

correlation coefficients range from -1 to 1 (positive, negative or no relationship)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

correlational designs: no manipulation of variables

A

in contrast to experimental designs, correlational studies don’t manipulate variables or control experimental conditions

instead, they observe and analyze existing data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

correlational designs: identifying associations

A

these studies can reveal is changes in one variable = associated with changes in another variable

ie. correlational study might examine whether there’s a relationship between testosterone levels and aggression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

longitudinal designs

A

study changes in variables over an EXTENDED PERIOD within the SAME INDIVIDUALS/GROUPS

unlike cross-sectional studies that capture data at a single point in time, longitudinal studies follow participants over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

6 key aspects of longitudinal designs

A
  1. data collection over time
  2. tracking changes
  3. identification of trends and patterns
  4. analysis of stability and change
  5. challenges and attrition
  6. resource-intensive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

example of longitudinal study: cortisol in pregnant women

A

measured cortisol during 1st, 2nd and 3rd trimesters

cortisol release in 1st semester = more similar to non-pregnant women

but in 2nd and 3rd trimester, cortisol is produced more during the day

this expression has an association with depressive symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

immunoassays

A

very important technique in behavioural endocrinology

analytical techniques used for the quantification of an analyte (hormone) based on the antigen-antibody reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

antigen

A

a molecule that can bind to a specific antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

antibodies for a given hormone are produced how?

A

by injecting the hormone of interest (antigen) into an animal to raise an antibody against the hormone

body produces very specific antibodies, and the given antigen will only bind to a certain antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

bioassay

A

assays that use LIVING TISSUES/ANIMALS to test effects of hormones/other chemical compounds

useful historically - measured biological response to hormone in question

sometimes determined PRESENCE/ABSENCE of hormone in question

sometimes allowed QUANTITATIVE MEASUREMENT of specific hormones

test the effects of the hormone and measure its biological activity on a living animal

but require much time and labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

bioassay example: pregnant rabbits

A

relies on human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

^a hormone produced during pregnancy

  1. take pregnant woman’s urine
  2. inject that urine into the mice
  3. if the hCG hormone was present in the mice, the animal’s ovaries would enlarge and show follicular maturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

level of precision in the bioassay rabbit example

A

98%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

bioassays: evolution of pregnancy testing

A

1927-1960: used the animal testing method (urine injection)
- carried out in lab

1960-1988: antibody testing method (blood tests, pregnancy test sticks)
- carried out at the doctor’s office/at home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

radioimmunoassay (RIA) is based on the principle of…

A

competitive binding of an antibody to its antigen (hormone) that results in a change in radioactivity

a radioactive antigen competes with a non-radioactive antigen for a fixed number of antibody binding sites

an antibody produced in response to any antigen (in this case a hormone) has a binding site that is specific for that antigen

antibodies have a given number of binding sites for its antigen
- antigen molecules can be “labeled” with radioactivity
- antibody cannot discriminate between radiolabeled (hot) and normal (cold) antigen

radiolabeled hormone and cold hormone compete for binding sites on antibody

so the more cold hormone there is present in the tube, the less hot hormone will bind to the antibody

quantity of hot hormone that binds can be determined by precipitating the antibody and measuring the associated radioactivity resulting from the radiolabeled hormone that remains bound

concentration of hormone in sample can then be determined by subjecting sample to same procedure and comparing results with standard curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

competitive binding process in radioimmunoassay

A

several test tubes with different known concentrations of the hormone (antigens that are unlabeled and radioactive labeled) and the antibody are used to BENCHMARK hormone concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

cold antigen

A

in radioimmunoassay, the known hormone concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

hot antigen

A

in radioimmunoassay, the known RADIOLABELED hormone concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

what do radioimmunoassays do?

A

use antibodies to detect and quantitate the amount of antigen (hormone) in a sample

increase precision with which hormone concentrations can be measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

RIA process

A

in the well, place antibodies

introduce the corresponding antigen
- labelled antigen
- this will bind to the antibodies

then add the unlabelled antigen (ie. from patient serum)

we want to see if the serum has the unlabelled antigen or not

if the sample has a bunch of unlabeled antigens (radioactive), then radioactivity would DECREASE progressively with the increase in antigen concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

if the sample has a bunch of unlabeled antigens, then radioactivity…

A

radioactivity would decrease progressively with the increase of the antigen concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

if there’s a low level of concentration in the sample, radioactivity…

A

won’t fall that much

because there’s less competition for binding (less labeled antigens are being replaced by unlabeled antigens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

3 main steps of radioimmunoassay

A

step 1: immune reaction
- radiolabeled antigen
- competition between labeled and unlabeled antigens

step 2: competitive displacement
- radiolabeled antigen released
- unlabeled antigen (hormone) binds

step 3: radioactivity count
- measure radioactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

A

most common way to quantify hormones

uses an enzyme instead of radioactivity

ie. Rapid Covid Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

4 main steps in EIA/ELISA

A

step 1: have a well of captured antibody
- add the antigen that we want to measure (antigen binds to antibody)

step 2: add labelled antibody
- labelled antibody will attached to first set of antibody/antigen

step 3: add the substrate and enzyme
- substrate will attach to the labelled antibody
- enzyme will cause a change in the substrate that will produce a SIGNAL (ie. change in colour)

detect the signal and/or quantify the product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

EIA/ELISA can do what two things…

A
  1. detect a hormone (ie. through colour change)
  2. quantify a hormone using a standard curve (gradient of colour)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

immunocytochemistry (ICC) versus immunohystochemistry (IHC)

A

immunocytochemistry: applied to CELLS

immunohystochemistry: applied to TISSUES

both use antibodies to determine the LOCATION of a hormone in a specific tissue/cell

antibodies linked to marker molecules, such as those in fluorescent dye, are usually introduced into dissected tissue from an animal, where they bind with the hormone/neurochemical of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

immunofluorescence

A

use fluorescence to determine the location of a hormone in a specific tissue/cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

what does autoradiography do?

A

determines the location of hormonal action

(location of hormonal uptake and receptor location)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

autoradiography basic idea

A

radiolabeled hormones are injected into a tissue/animal to determine hormonal uptake and indicate receptor location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

4 steps of autoradiography

A

step 1:
- tissues = sliced into several very thin sections
- adjacent sections = subjected to different treatments

step 2:
- one section of target tissue = stained in usual way to highlight various cellular structures

step 3:
- next section = placed in contact with photographic film
- emission of radiation from radiolabeled hormone develops an image on the film

step 4:
- areas of high radioactivity on the film can then be compared with stained section to see how areas of highest hormone concentration correlate with structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

autoradiography basic process

A
  1. determine cellular structures
  2. use radiation emission to determine location of radiolabeled hormone
  3. overlay the structure with the hormone locations

(dark spots on photo of structures = where radiolabeled hormone has undergone binding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

blot test - western blot

A

quantifyies several proteins at the same time

technique used to fractionate mixtures of proteins, DNAs or RNAs so they can hybridize with markers that travel different distances in an electrophorectic gel based on their size

electrophoresis: application of an electric current through a matrix/gel that results in a gradient of molecules separating out along the current basis of size (smaller molecules move farther than larger molecules during a set time period)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

steps: blot test - Western blot

A

step 1: get the sample
- tissue of interest is homogenized and the cells are lysed
- makes it so that all the cells’ contents are loose in the fluid

step 2: homogenate is placed in gel and subjected to electrophoresis
- the small electric current applied to the gel separates the proteins based on their electric charges

step 3: transfer gel to a membrane
- protein bands will have formed

step 4: transfer gel to an incubator with a specific antibody
- antibody is specific to the antigen that is being searched for

step 5: detect bound antibody by chemiluminescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

in blot test/Western blot, how do we detect the bound antibody?

A

chemiluminescence

can quantify the substrate that emits the colourful reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

in situ hybridization

A

determining whether a particular substance is produced in a specific tissue

figuring out WHERE the protein/hormone is produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

in situ hybridization follows the principles of…

A

immunohystochemistry

technique is used to identify cells/tissues in which messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules encoding a specific protein (hormone/neurotransmitter) are being produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

why does in situ hybridization look for mRNA?

A

it looks for specific sequences of mRNA - because if that mRNA is present in a tissue it means that gene transcription is happening for the protein of interest

because mRNA is what carries the genetic info needed to produce proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

4 steps of in situ hybridization

A

step 1: tissue is fixed, sliced very thin, mounted on slides, and either dipped into an emulsion or placed over film
- developed with photographic chemicals

step 2: tissue is also counterstained to identify specific cellular structures

step 3: radiolabeled cDNA probe is introduced into the tissue. if the mRNA of interest is present in the tissue, the cDNA will form a tight association (hybridize) with it

step 4: the tightly bound cDNA, and hence the mRNA, will appear as dark spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

in situ hybridization: the hybridization part

A

if the mRNA of interest is present in the tissue, the cDNA will form a tight association (hybridize) with it

hybridization will appear as dark spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

immunohistochemistry versus in situ hybridization

A

IHC: marks protein

ISH: marks RNA associated with gene expression for the same protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

PCR stands for

A

polymerase chain reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

applying immunoassays and genetic marking for COVID - PCRs

A

PCRs use fluorescence

PCRs amplify and replicate a specific segment of DNA and RNA

this process creates NUMEROUS copies of the targeted DNA/RNA

this enables detection and analysis

basically, saliva provides nucleic acids and RNA or DNA - any viral contents will be marked and become fluorescent

the viral mRNA will bind to complementary DNA of the test

then we’ll create a reaction to amplify the signal and we can quantify the presence of the hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

applying immunoassays and genetic marking for COVID - lateral flow immunoassay technology

A

in a RAPID ANTIGEN TEST

patient test sample is mixed with chemicals that react with specific proteins on the surface of the SARS-Cov-2 virus

saliva swabs - if mRNA from virus is present, the immune response will occur and colour will change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

7 types of immunoassays

A
  1. bioassays
  2. radioimmunoassays
  3. enzyme immunoassays (EIA) or enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
  4. autoradiography
  5. blot tests
  6. in situ hybridization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

bioassay in a nutshell

A

biological assays assessing the effects of substances

uses living animal tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

radioummunoassay in a nutshell

A

measures concentrations of antigens using radioactive labels

concentrations of a given hormone is inversely related to the radioactive labels

measures concentrations using standard curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

A

detects antigens or antibodies using enzyme-based reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

immunocytochemistry (ICC)/immunohystochemistry

A

visualizes proteins in cells (ICC) or tissues (IHC)

does this using immmunohystochemistry

labels antibodies with dyes or enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

autoradiography in a nutshell

A

captures and visualizes radioactively labeled molecules in the tissue

photographic film is overlayed with an adjacent stained tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

blot wests in a nutshell

A

techniques (ie. Western blot) for transferring and detecting biomolecules using specific probes

detects several proteins at same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

in situ hybridization in a nutshell

A

locates and visualizes specific nucleic acid sequences (ie. mRNA) within cells or tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

pharmacological techniques

A

use of synthetic chemical agents can alter the action/function of a hormone

two major groups of synthetic chemical agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

2 major groups of synthetic chemical agents

A
  1. agonists: simulate endocrine function by affecting hormonal release
  2. antagonists: inhibit endocrine function by affecting hormonal release (blocking hormones)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

example of pharmacological technique

A

cyproterone acetate -> anti testosterone

cyproterone acetate binds to the testosterone reception

inactivates it

testosterone levels fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

brain imaging 2 techniques

A
  1. Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
  2. Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

positron emission tomography

A

PET

injection of radiotracers - specific molecules (hormone)

PET scanner detects the radioactivity as the compound accumulates in different regions

can infer the locus of the hormone’s action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

functional magnetic resonance imaging

A

fMRI

involves exposing brain to multiple magnetic fields

high spatial and temporal resolution

detects changes in brain activity during specific tasks/conditions

can be task-based or resting-state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

gene

A

discrete region of DNA within a chromosome that when expressed (transcribed), leads to the production of ribonucleic acid (RNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

transgenic

A

relating to an animal in which a gene has been INSERTED, ALTERED, or DELETED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

knockout

A

an individual, usually a mouse, in which a specific gene has been INACTIVATED

237
Q

chimera

A

animal whose tissues are composed of two or more genetically distinct cell types

alter DNA in the embryonic (not yet differentiated) cells
- these cells will multiply in the embryo
- born as chimera

238
Q

alternative name for a chimera

A

mosaic

239
Q

new inducible knockouts

A

new innovation

timing and tissue-specific placement of the targeted gene disruption can be controlled

240
Q

genetic manipulations

A

insertion, alteration (over or under-expression), deletion of genes

study resulting behaviour

241
Q

CRISPR/Cas 9

A

CRISPR (clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats)

revolutionary tech in molecular biology that allows precise editing of genes WITHIN organisms

involves cutting DNA at specific location using the Cas9 protein guided by a designed RNA sequence

this precise DNA cleavage allows researchers to introduce modifications by relying on the cell’s natural repair mechanisms

allows insertion of new DNA sequence

242
Q

integrating diff hormone & behaviour methods: hunger hormones - Leptin

A

leptin is a hormone that helps maintenance of normal weight on a long term basis

242
Q

level of leptin in blood is directly related to…

A

the amount of body fat that you have

243
Q

leptin resistance causes you to…

A

feel hungry and eat more even though your body has sufficient fat stores

244
Q

ob mice

A

specific mutations in mice cause extreme obesity in those that are homozygous for the defective gene

considered natural knockouts

245
Q

from the ob mice, a mice strain was devised for…

A

studies of body mass regulation

246
Q

ob/ob mice have a pair of…

A

defective ob genes

they are HYPERPHAGIC (overeat), obese, reproductively sterile

247
Q

researchers take advantage of purified leptin…

A

availability of purified leptin allows researchers to produce specific antibodies to this substance that could be used in developing assays to determine concentration in blood

248
Q

an RIA was developed to…

A

determine the blood plasma leptin concentrations of obese and diabetic humans

the anti-leptin antiserum was raised in a rabbit against highly purified recombinant human leptin

249
Q

immunocytochemical localization techniques revealed that leptin was present in…

A

both white and brown adipose tissue as well as other peripheral tissues

250
Q

to determine the site of action of leptin in the brain…

A

purified leptin was labeled with a radioactive tag and then injected into mice

autoradiography

251
Q

differences in what blot tests versus in situ hybridization can determine

A

blot tests can typically determine WHETHER OR NOT a particular substance is PRESENT in a specific tissue

in situ hybridization can determine WHETHER a particular substance is PRODUCED in a specific tissue
- can also quantify the substance being produce
- and have higher resolution/sensitivity than blot tests

252
Q

hormones

A

chemical messengers that travel through the blood stream

target specific organs/tissues

253
Q

hormones coordinate…

A

the physiology and behaviour of an animal

they do this by regulating, integrating and controlling its bodily function

254
Q

can hormones have more than one effect?

A

yes

examples: gonadotropin hormone, epinephrine

255
Q

can hormonal messages travel anywhere in the body?

A

yes

they can travel anywhere in the body via the circulatory system

any cell receiving blood is potentially able to receive a hormonal message

hormonal messages can travel up to 2 meters in the blood system

256
Q

main 2 differences between hormonal and neural signalling

A
  1. speed
    - because hormones travel through the blood, hormonal signals are slower than neural ones
  2. precision
    - as hormones travel long distances, they need very specific receptors
    - the specificity of receptors is what makes hormonal signalling so precise
257
Q

double action of the epinephrine hormone

A

epinephrine can have more than one effect

  1. in liver cell
    - epinephrine binds to beta receptor
    - causes glycogen deposits to break down
    - glucose is released from cell
  2. in skeletal muscle blood vessel
    - epinephrine attaches to beta receptor
    - vessel dilates
258
Q

5 forms of chemical communication

A
  1. intracrine mediation
  2. autocrine mediation
  3. paracrine mediation
  4. endocrine mediation
  5. ectocrine mediation
259
Q

intracrine mediation

A

intracrine substances regulate INTRACELLULAR events

ie. molecules produced at the nucleus of a neuron affect the axon of the same cell

260
Q

autocrine mediation

A

autocrine substances feed back to influence the same cells that secreted them

LEAVE AND THEN RETURN TO THE SAME CELL

affect the cell that first produced the hormone

cells have receptors for their own products

261
Q

paracrine mediation

A

paracrine cells secrete chemicals that affect ADJACENT CELLS

262
Q

endocrine mediation

A

endocrine cells secrete chemicals into the BLOODSTREAM, where they may travel to DISTANT TARGET CELLS

263
Q

ectocrine mediation

A

released into the ENVIRONMENT by individuals to communicate with others

ie. pheromones

264
Q

chemical messenger

A

any substance that is produced by a cell that affects the function of another cell

265
Q

cytokine

A

chemical messenger that evokes proliferation of other cells

especially in the immune system

266
Q

hormone

A

chemical messenger that’s released into the bloodstream or tissue fluid system that affects the function of target cells some distance from the source

267
Q

neurohormone

A

hormone produced by a neuron

268
Q

neuromodulator

A

hormone that changes (modulates) the response of a neuron to some other factors

269
Q

neuropeptide

A

peptide hormone produced by a neuron

270
Q

neurosteroid

A

steroid hormone produced by a neuron

271
Q

neurotransmitter

A

chemical messenger that acts across the neural space

272
Q

can neurotransmitters be neurohormones?

A

yes

produced in hypothalamus or pituitary

pass along the axons of neurons and then are released into the bloodstream

273
Q

examples of neurohormones

A

oxytocin

vasopressin

norepinephrine

gonadotropin-releasing hormone

corticotropin-releasing hormone

274
Q

T/F: endocrine glands are ductless

A

true

closed structure - no ducts that communicate with body

so rely on blood vessels for communication

275
Q

T/F: endocrine glands have a rich blood supply

A

true

276
Q

5 main features of the endocrine system

A
  1. endocrine glands are ductless
  2. endocrine glands have a rich blood supply
  3. hormones, the products of endocrine glands, are secreted into the bloodstream
  4. hormones can travel in the blood to virtually every cell in the body and can thus potentially interact with any cell that has appropriate receptors
  5. hormone receptors are specific binding sites, embedded in the cell membrane or located elsewhere in the cell, that interact with a particular hormone/class of hormones
277
Q

where are hormone binding sites/receptors located?

A

either embedded in the cell membrane

or located elsewhere in the cell

278
Q

can glands be both endocrine and exocrine?

A

yes

like the pancreas

279
Q

endocrine versus exocrine

A

exocrine:
- secrete substances into a ductal system to an epithelial surface

endocrine:
- secrete products directly into the bloodstream

280
Q

pancreas: endocrine and exocrine components

A

exocrine: pancreas secretes digestive juices into the intestines via DUCTS

endocrine: pancreas secretes hormones directly into the BLOODSTREAM

from here they travel throughout the body to regulate energy utilization and storage

281
Q

receptor concentration and hormone concentration can interact…

A

insufficient receptors might cause endocrine deficiency

if there aren’t enough receptors, we call this ‘resistance’
ie. insulin resistance

282
Q

cross-reaction

A

when the blood concentration of a hormone is high, they can sometimes bind with receptors that are meant for a different hormone

causes a biological response

283
Q

hormone molecules vary substantially in…

A
  1. size
  2. chemical properties
284
Q

major chemical classes of hormones

A

polypeptides (proteins and peptides)

steroids

amines

lipid-based (some authors don’t include this last one)

285
Q

amines can be both…

A

water-soluble (hydrophilic)

or

lipid-soluble (hydrophobic)

286
Q

other term for water-soluble

A

hydrophilic

287
Q

other term for lipid-soluble

A

hydrophobic

288
Q

polypeptides: hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

hydrophilic (water-soluble)

so they dissolve well in watery plasma blood

but the cell membrane = lipid - so water can’t mix

so polypeptides bind to the cell’s surface receptors, which relay info to nucleus via intracellular signalling

289
Q

where are polypeptides stored?

A

in vesicles within cells

can’t freely enter cell because cell membrane is made of lipids

290
Q

steroids: hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

hydrophobic (lipid-soluble)

can easily pass through the lipid cell membrane

but cannot travel through watery blood

so need a transporter protein to move through blood

291
Q

to travel through blood, what to steroids need?

A

a transporter protein

because steroids are hydrophobic

292
Q

how are peptide hormones released from parent cell? how about steroid hormones?

A

peptide hormones = exocytosis

steroid hormones = simple diffusion

293
Q

reminder: study hormone chart

A

it’s in onenote

294
Q

if a hormone acts inside a nucleus, it likely has…

A

transcriptional properties

295
Q

any hormone with ‘chorionic’ in its name is…

A

produced by the placenta

296
Q

8 major endocrine structures

A
  1. hypothalamus
  2. pineal gland
  3. pituitary gland (anterior and posterior)
  4. thyroid
  5. adrenal glands (medulla and cortex)
  6. pancreas
  7. gut
  8. gonads (testes/ovaries)
297
Q

hypothalamus: main function it regulates

A

control of hormone secretions

298
Q

pineal gland: main function it regulates

A

reproductive maturation

body rhythm

299
Q

anterior pituitary: main function it regulates

A

hormone secretion by thyroid, adrenal cortex and gonads

growth

300
Q

posterior pituitary: main function it regulates

A

water balance

salt balance

301
Q

thyroid: main function it regulates

A

growth and development

metabolic rate

302
Q

adrenal cortex (outer bark): main function it regulates

A

salt and carbohydrate metabolism

inflammatory reactions

303
Q

adrenal medulla (inner core): main function it regulates

A

emotional arousal

304
Q

pancreas (islets of Langerhans): main function it regulates

A

sugar metabolism

305
Q

gut: main function it regulates

A

digestion and appetite control

306
Q

gonads (testes/ovaries): main function it regulates

A

body development

maintenance of reproductive organs in adults

307
Q

hypothalamus

A

comprises several collections of neuronal cell bodies (nuclei)

at the base of the brain

receives projections from the brain

controls hormone secretion (and produces hormones)

308
Q

2 main types of hormones released by the hypothalamus

A
  1. releasing hormones
    - stimulates the release of certain hormones from glands
  2. inhibiting hormones
    - inhibits the release of certain hormones from glands
309
Q

hypothalamus: 6 main releasing hormones

A
  1. thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
  2. growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH, somatocrinin)
  3. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
  4. melanotropin-releasing hormone (MRH)
  5. corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
  6. kisspeptin

^these are all EXCITATORY

310
Q

hypothalamus: 3 main inhibiting hormones

A
  1. somatostatin (growth hormone-inhibiting hormone/GHIH)
  2. gonadotropin inhibitory hormone (GnIH)
  3. dopamine (DA)

^these are all INHIBITORY

311
Q

where is the hypothalamus and what is it composed of?

A

it’s at the base of the brain

comprises several collections of neuronal cell bodies or nuclei

receives projections from the brain

312
Q

corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

A

excitatory hypothalamic hormone

stimulates secretion of ADRENOCORTICOTROPIC hormone

313
Q

releasing hormones do what

A

act on another gland - get it to release a hormone

314
Q

every time you see ‘tropic’, think about…

A

nourishment

ie. adrenocorticotropic means a hormone that nourishes the adrenal gland

315
Q

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

A

excitatory hypothalamic hormone

controls the release of:

  1. LUTEINISING HORMONE (LH)
  2. FOLLICLE-STIMULATING HORMONE (FSH)
316
Q

growth hormone-releasing hormone (GH-RH)

A

excitatory hypothalamic hormone

tells appropriate gland to release growth hormone (GH)

317
Q

thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

A

excitatory hypothalamic hormone

tells pituitary gland to produce/release THYROID-STIMULATING HORMONE (TSH)

318
Q

melanotropin releasing hormone (MRH)

A

excitatory hypothalamic hormone

stimulates secretion of melanotropin

319
Q

kisspeptin

A

excitatory hypothalamic hormone

initiates secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at puberty

thus is involved in sexual maturation

but it role isn’t yet clearly described

319
Q

dopamine (DA)

A

inhibitory hypothalamic hormone

dopamine is typically excitatory but in the endocrine system it’s inhibitory

prolactin-inhibitory hormone

319
Q

somatostatin (SOM)

A

inhibitory hypothalamic hormone

acts to inhibit secretion of:
1. growth hormone (GH)
2. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

also has inhibitory effects on insulin, glucagon, secretin production

320
Q

pituitary gland was once considered what?

A

the “master gland”

321
Q

why was pituitary once considered the “master gland”?

A

because it mediates so many physiological processes - it secretes many hormones

but now we know that it receives lots of commands from the hypothalamus

it’s really two distinct glands fused into one

322
Q

the two different embryological origins of the pituitary

A
  1. roof of the mouth = anterior pituitary
  2. base of the brain = posterior pituitary
323
Q

how do neurohormones from hypothalamus reach anterior pituitary?

A

via the PORTAL SYSTEM

324
Q

portal system

A

the way that neurohormones travel from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary

special closed blood circuit

two beds of capillaries (one in hypothalamus and one in anterior pituitary) are connected by a vein

hypothalamic factors stimulate cells in the anterior pituitary to secrete hormones in general circulation

325
Q

how do neurohormones from hypothalamus reach posterior pituitary?

A

hypothalamic neuro-secretory cells

these cells innervate DIRECTLY to the posterior pituitary

rather than being released into portal system, neurohormones are secreted directly into this structure

here they enter blood vessels and the general circulation

326
Q

anterior pituitary: 3 steps of hormone release

A
  1. axon terminals of hypothalamic neurons release neurohormones near capillaries that give rise to portal vessels
  2. neurohormones from portal vessels stimulate or inhibit the release of hormones from anterior pituitary cells
  3. anterior pituitary hormones leave the gland via the blood

so two steps really: hypothalamus releases neurohormones into the portal and then in response, the pituitary releases the specific hormones into general circulation

327
Q

3 main anterior pituitary hormones

A
  1. corticotropin-related peptides (painkillers/stress response)
    - adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
    - melanocyte-stimulating hormone
    - beta-endorphins
  2. somatomammotropins (growth, breast milk)
    - growth hormone (GH or somatotropin)
    - prolactic (PRL)
  3. glycoproteins (thyroid, gonads, sex hormones)
    - thryoid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
    - luteinizing hormone (LH)
    - follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
328
Q

what do corticotropin-related peptides do?

A

(anterior pituitary hormones)

  1. ACTH:
    stimulate synthesis/release of the following from the adrenal glands:
    - glucocorticoids
    - mineralocorticoids
    - androgenic steroids
  • exposure to stressful events can trigger ACTH release
  1. beta-endorphins:
    endogenous opioids that resemble opiates in its action as a “natural” pain killer
329
Q

anterior pituitary hormones are often considered as what? and why?

A

polypeptides tropic hormones

because they stimulate various physiological processes

either by acting directly on target tissues or by causing other endocrine glands to release hormones

330
Q

what do somatomammotropins do?

A

(anterior pituitary hormones)

(think ‘soma’ - ‘body’ - growth)

  1. growth hormone (GH):
    promote linear growth

a) GH and somatotropin:
enhance amino acid uptake and mRNA transcription/translation
- increased protein synthesis

  1. prolactin:
    promotes breast development, initiates milk synthesis
331
Q

what do glycoproteins do?

A

(anterior pituitary hormones)

  1. TSH:
    works on thyroid gland to stimulate uptake of iodide and release of thyroid hormones
  2. LH and FSH:
    bind to receptors in ovaries and testes, regulate gonad function
    stimulate sex steroid production and development of gametes
332
Q

posterior pituitary: 3 steps of hormone release

A
  1. hypothalamic neurons produce vasopressin and oxytocin and transport them to the posterior pituitary
  2. the neurohormones are released in the posterior pituitary and diffuse into capillaries
  3. then leave the posterior pituitary via the blood

hormones from posterior pituitary enter circulation more quickly than those from anterior pituitary

333
Q

oxytocin and vasopressin in relation to the posterior pituitary

A
  1. oxytocin and vasopressin = made and packaged in neurosecretory cell bodies
  2. then are transported down the axons to be stored in vesicles at the axon terminals in the posterior pituitary
  3. can be released in response to a NEURAL IMPULSE via exocytosis and enter the bloodstream

SO POSTERIOR PITUITARY HORMONES CAN BE RELEASED AS FAST AS NEURAL IMPULSES

334
Q

how are vasopressin and oxytocin released?

A

FROM VESICLES, SUPER QUICKLY

released from vesicles at axon terminals

in response to neural impulse via exocytosis

from here enter bloodstream

release is as fast as neural impulses

335
Q

hormones associated with the posterior pituitary

A

vasopressin

oxytocin

336
Q

vasopressin

A

aka antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

acts to retain water in the body

337
Q

what does vasopressin do during serious blood loss?

A

it has pressor (hypertensive) effects

pressor - pressin

it causes the CONSTRICTION of blood vessels to help deal with blood loss

338
Q

oxytocin (5 points)

A
  1. influences reproductive function in mammals
  2. important during birth
  3. causes uterine contractions
  4. often used to medically induce labour
  5. involved in suckling reflex
339
Q

reminder to look at screenshot of hypothalamic hormones and what hormones they stimulate/inhibit

A

it’s on desktop

340
Q

pineal gland location

A

top of midbrain

above third ventricle

just in front of cerebellum

341
Q

pineal gland secretes what?

A

melatonin

342
Q

what pineal cells produce melatonin?

A

secretary cells called PINEALOCYTES

produce melatonin, that resembles serotonin

343
Q

pinealocytes

A

cells in the pineal gland

they produce melatonin

344
Q

how is melatonin synthesized?

A

synthesized from melatonin via the amino acid tryptophan

345
Q

how is melatonin secreted?

A

secreted into cerebrospinal fluid and bloodstream

346
Q

what is melatonin secretion regulated by?

A

the sympathetic NS in response to changing light levels

as light levels fall, melatonin secretion increases

as light levels rise, melatonin secretion ceases

347
Q

pineal gland’s main function

A

related to control of the CIRCADIAN CYCLE OF SLEEP AND WAKEFULNESS by secreting melatonin

348
Q

thyroid

A

large bilateral structure

in the neck

consists of many spherical follicles

349
Q

what do the thyroid’s spherical follicles produce?

A

thyroid hormones

in direct response to the thyrotropin-releasing hormone released by the anterior pituitary

350
Q

what does the thyroid gland produce?

A

iodinated substances

T3 and T4

produces these dependent upon dietary levels of iodate

low levels of dietary iodine result in REDUCED THYROID FUNCTION and HYPERTROPHY

351
Q

how does reduced thyroid function and hypertrophy manifest physiologically?

A

swelling in the neck

352
Q

thyroid hormones do what?

A

increase oxidation rates in tissue

3 general areas of effect in mammals:
1. metabolism
2. growth and differentiation
3. reproduction

353
Q

2 thyroid hormones

A

triiodothyronine (T3)

thyroxine (T4)

354
Q

both T3 and T4 are fat-soluble, and they diffuse…

A

rapidly across cell membranes

but they need carrier protein to travel through the blood

355
Q

4 key functions of T3 and T4

A
  1. regulation of body metabolism
  2. control of development of brain and nervous system
  3. sexual maturation
  4. temperature regulation
356
Q

2 forms of thyroid dysfunction

A
  1. hyperthyroidism
    - too much T3 and T4 are produced
    - weight loss, fast heart rate, weak menstrual cycle, shaky hands
  2. hypothyroidism
    - under-active thyroid
    - weight gain, constipation, cold sensitivity
357
Q

Ronaldo was diagnosed with what?

A

hypothyroidism

had problems with weight

358
Q

parathyroid glands are located where?

A

at the rear of the thyroid

359
Q

hormones produced by the parathyroid gland and by C cells of the thyroid are both…

A
  1. both are protein hormones
  2. both are involved in calcium metabolism
360
Q

parathyroid (PTH)

A

produced by C cells

elevates blood levels of calcium

does this by increasing reabsorption of calcium from the bone and from the gut

via its effects on vitamin D3

also inhibits phosphate reabsorption from the kidney, reducing calcium clearance

361
Q

calcitonin (CT)

A

released from C cells of the thyroid

acts in opposition to parathyroid hormone

lowers blood levels of calcium by inhibiting the release of calcium from bone

362
Q

PTH and CT are both controlled directly by…

A

blood calcium levels

there are no pituitary tropic hormones (releasing hormones) involved in their regulation

direct reaction to calcium levels in blood

363
Q

pancreas functions as both…

A

an endocrine and exocrine gland

364
Q

most of the pancreas consists of…but…

A

exocrine cells

these produce and secrete DIGESTIVE JUICES into the intestines

BUT nested throughout the exocrine tissue are islands of endocrine tissue called islets of Langerhans

365
Q

exocrine cells of pancreas do what?

A

produce and secrete digestive juices into the intestines

366
Q

what are the endocrine cells of the pancreas called?

A

islets of Langerhans

367
Q

islets of Langerhans

A

islands of endocrine tissue nested throughout the exocrine tissue of the pancreas

within these endocrine islands, there are 4 cell types:
- alpha cells
- beta cells
- theta cells
- polypeptide-secreting cells

368
Q

glucagon

A

simple peptide

similar to those of secretin family

typically has 29 amino acids

released from alpha cells of the pancreas

369
Q

do all cells have insulin receptors?

A

yes, all cells do

NS (neuronal) cells do as well

so insulin can have effects in the CNS as well as the PNS

insulin resistance is correlated with depression and bipolar

370
Q

where does glucagon go once released from alpha cells?

A

once released from the alpha cells of the pancreas, glucagon travels first to the liver

in the liver it stimulates glycogenolysis

371
Q

glycogenolysis

A

breakdown of stored glycogen

this acts in opposition of insulin and serves to increase blood levels of glucose

372
Q

alpha cells do what? for what purpose?

A

alpha cells release gulcagon

glucagon travels to the liver

there it stimulates glycogenolysis (breakdown of stored glycogen)

acts in opposition of insulin: SERVES TO INCREASE BLOOD LEVELS OF GLUCOSE

373
Q

ultimately, alpha cells do what?

A

release glucagon to increase blood levels of glucose

374
Q

beta cells produce what?

A

insulin

375
Q

what does insulin promote?

A

efficient movement of energy from the blood into the cells

can lower blood sugar

376
Q

diabetes

A

disease caused by:

  1. insulin deficiency
  2. decreased response to insulin in target tissues

thought that in type I diabetes, pancreatic islets are destroyed by immune assaults (autoimmune disorder)

377
Q

insulin is the only known hormone that can…

A

lower blood sugar

378
Q

glucagon versus insulin

A
  1. glucagon releases glucose into blood stream
  2. insulin lowers blood sugar

they work in opposition with one another

379
Q

theta cells

A

release somatostatin

somatostatin inhibits insulin release and glucagons locally in the pancreas

380
Q

somatostatin

A

inhibitory hormone released from theta cells

inhibits insulin and glucagon release in pancreas

somatostatin = also released from hypothalamus to regulate release of growth hormone from anterior pituitary

381
Q

type I versus type II diabetes

A

type I:
- genetic condition appearing in early life
- auto-immune condition: immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas

type II:
- lifestyle related disease
- develops over time
- either your body isn’t able to produce sufficient insulin because you’re consuming too much sugar OR the insulin you create isn’t working properly

type III?
- alteration of insulin metabolism in brain
- common in Alzheimer’s

382
Q

two possibilities in type II diabetes

A
  1. body can’t produce enough insulin because you’re consuming too much sugar
  2. the insulin being produced by your body isn’t working properly
383
Q

adrenal gland location

A

atop the kidneys

384
Q

2 distinct regions of the adrenal gland

A
  1. adrenal cortex
  2. adrenal medulla
385
Q

adrenal cortex

A

has distinct cellular zones with diff functional roles

  1. zona glomerulosa (outside)
  2. zona fasciculata (middle)
  3. zona reticularis (inside)
386
Q

zona glomerulosa

A

marked by WHORLS of epithelial cells

aldosterone

387
Q

zona fasciculata

A

epithelial cells are organized in ORDERLY BANDS

glucocorticoid

388
Q

zona reticularis

A

epithelial cells are DISORGANIZED

sex steroid hormones

389
Q

adrenal medulla

A

made up of CHROMAFFIN CELLS

in embryonic development: these cells = derived from primitive neural tissue

after birth they work as part of the ANS

respond to neural signals

390
Q

chromaffin cells

A

make up the adrenal medulla

derived from embryonic primitive neural tissue

post-birth: work as part of ANS

respond to neural signals that come from the spinal cord

391
Q

in response to neural signals, adrenal medulla releases…

A

3 monoamine hormones

392
Q

3 monoamine hormones released by the adrenal medulla

A
  1. epinephrine
  2. norepinephrine
  3. dopamine
393
Q

class of protein hormones released from adrenal medulla (in addition to the monoamine hormones)

A

enkephalins

394
Q

why/how is the adrenal medulla important for fight or flight?

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

and because chromaffin tissue: receives neural signals so quite fast

395
Q

HPA axis

A

hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis

396
Q

tissue in medulla of adrenal glands receives info through what?

A

through innervations to spinal cord

short term effects - fast

397
Q

tissue in adrenal cortex receives info through what?

A

the blood

longer term effects - more prolonged

398
Q

3 zones of the adrenal cortex release what hormones?

A
  1. aldosterone
  2. glucocorticoid
  3. sex steroid hormones
399
Q

2 functions of gonads

A

(these functions are usually compartmentalized)

  1. production of GAMETES (sperm or eggs)
  2. production of HORMONES
400
Q

hormones produced by gonads are primarily of what type?

A

steroid hormones

401
Q

what are steroid hormones required for?

A

gamete development

development of secondary sex characteristics

also mediate behaviours necessary to bring sperm and eggs together

402
Q

what regulates the function of the gonads?

A

tropic hormones from the anterior pituitary

these are called gonadotropins

403
Q

gonadotropins

A

tropic hormones from the anterior pituitary

regulate gonad function

404
Q

HPG axis

A

hypothalamic pituitary gonad axis

405
Q

testes

A

bilateral glands

located in most mammals in an external sac called the scrotum

seminiferous tubules

406
Q

seminiferous tubules

A

long, convoluted tubes

where sperm cells undergo various stages of maturation (spermatogenesis)

407
Q

sertoli cells

A

located along basement membrane of seminiferous tubules

involved in spermatogenesis

facilitate progression of germ cells to spermatozoa

via direct contact and by controlling environmental milieu within seminiferous tubules

408
Q

leydig cells

A

interstitial cells between seminiferous tubules in the testes

produce androgens/testosterone

409
Q

leydig cells produce testosterone in response to what?

A

in response to the luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary

410
Q

sertoli versus leydig cells

A

both work in testes

sertoli: aid spermatogenesis

leydig: produce androgens in response to LH

411
Q

ovaries: 4 main features

A
  1. paired glands located in dorsal part of abdominal cavity, normally below kidneys
  2. compartmentalized (diff parts have diff functions)
  3. within fetal ovary are germinal epithelia - eventually develop into primordial follicles
    - infant ovaries contain about 500 000 immature follicles
    - approx 400 eggs (ova) are ovulated by women between puberty and menopause
  4. three functional units:
    - follicles
    - corpora lutea
    - stroma
412
Q

where are the ovaries located?

A

dorsal part of the abdominal cavity

normally below the kidneys

413
Q

ovaries: germinal epithelia eventually develop into…

A

primordial follicles

414
Q

how many immature follicles are contained in infant ovaries?

A

about 500 000

415
Q

how many eggs are ovulated by average woman between puberty and menopause?

A

400 eggs

416
Q

3 main functional subunits of the ovaries

A
  1. follicles
  2. corpora lutea
  3. stroma
417
Q

atresia

A

the continual degeneration of follicles throughout life

no additional gametes are formed postnatally

418
Q

stroma

A

noendocrine connective tissue of endocrine glands

419
Q

follicles

A

epithelial cell-lined sacs that contain an egg

420
Q

egg/ovum

A

haploid female gamete

contained in folliclees

421
Q

corpora lutea

A

endocrine structures that form from remnants of ovarian follicles after the egg is released

secrete progestins

422
Q

what secretes progestins?

A

corpora lutea

423
Q

what do progestins do?

A

support the uterine lining in prep for blastocyst implantation

424
Q

each primary follicle consists of an…

A

ovocyte

425
Q

ovocyte

A

an immature egg

426
Q

what surrounds the ovocyte?

A

layer of epithelial cells called GRANULOSA cells

427
Q

granulosa cells

A

epithelial cells that surround the ovocyte

428
Q

what do granulosa cells produce? what do these cells regulate?

A

two peptide hormones

  1. inhibin
  2. activin

these hormones regulate hypothalamus and pituitary gland

429
Q

theca cells

A

surround granulosa cells

during follicular maturation

these cells participate in estrogen synthesis

430
Q

antrum

A

space between ovum and surrounding epithelial cells

filled with fluid prior to ovulation

431
Q

as the antrum enlarges, the follicle is called a…

A

tertiary follicle

432
Q

antrum fluid

A

called the follicular fluid

is rich in steroid hormones

433
Q

what is in follicle called when it reaches its maximal size?

A

Graafian follicle

434
Q

what happens to the granulosa cells and theca cells after ovum release?

A

after ovum release

both granulosa cells of the erupted follicle

and the surrounding thecal cells

UNDERGO RAPID MITOSIS

and CAPILLARIES GENERATED FROM THE THECAL CELLS VASCULARIZE THE GRANULOSA CELLS

435
Q

how does the corpus luteum form?

A

from the rapid mitosis that occurs in the granulosa and thecal cells following ovum release

and from the vascularization of the granulosa cells by the capillaries generated from the thecal cells

436
Q

how long does the corpus luteum persist for? what do they do?

A

corpus luteum persists for some time on surface of ovary

produce another class of important sex steroid hormones: progestins

437
Q

progestins

A

important sex steroid hormones

produced by the corpus luteum after ovum release

438
Q

zona pellucida

A

multiple layer of epithelial cells that surrounds the follicle

439
Q

placenta: 4 main features

A
  1. temporary endocrine organ that develops in uterus during mammal pregnancy
    - forms from tissues derived from blastocyst and maternal uterus
  2. important in maintaining nutritional, respiratory, and excretory functions for fetus
  3. source of several steroid and peptide hormones that affect mother and offspring
  4. pregnancy tests measure human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by rudimentary placenta that forms right after blastocyst implantation
440
Q

what does the placenta form from?

A

tissues derived from:

  1. blastocyst
  2. maternal uterus
441
Q

what functions is the placenta important for maintaining within the fetus?

A
  1. nutritional functions
  2. respiratory functions
  3. excretory functions
442
Q

placenta is the source of several _____ and ______ _____ that affect both the _____ and the _______

A

steroid and peptide hormones

mother and the offspring

443
Q

what do pregnancy tests measure?

A

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

^hormone produced by rudimentary placenta that forms immediately after blastocyst implantation

444
Q

blastocyst

A

cluster of dividing cells made by a fertilized egg

early stage of the embryo

445
Q

what’s relaxin produced by?

A

not produced by placenta

BUT by the corpora lutea during pregnancy

446
Q

what does relaxin do?

A

softens the estrogen-primed PELVIC LIGAMENTS

to allow enough stretch for the passage of large head of fetus through the pelvis

447
Q

“supplementary” tropic hormones released by the placenta do what?

A

stimulate the:

  • gonadal
  • mammary
  • adrenal
  • thyroid

functions

448
Q

what are the 4 supplementary protein hormones released by the placenta?

A
  1. chorionic gonadotropins (CG)
  2. chorionic somatomammotrophin (CS, aka palcental lactogen)
  3. chorionic corticotropin (CC)
  4. chorionic thyrotropin (CT)
449
Q

chorionic gonadotropin

A

hCG

  1. maintains corpora luteal function (and progesterone secretion) during pregnancy
  2. part of regulatory system that inhibits ovulation during pregnancy
450
Q

if chorionic is in the name…

A

then it’s produced in the placenta

451
Q

what hormone helps inhibit ovulation during pregnancy

A

chorionic gonadotropin

hCG

452
Q

gastrointestinal hormones: 3 main features

A
  1. endocrine cells of gastrointestinal tract = scattered throughout gut
    - in a “primitive organization”
  2. gastrointestinal hormones regulate cells and organs in which they’re produced
    - intracrine/autocrine chemical mediation is usually considered a more primitive mechanism that endocrine mediation
  3. main hormones: secretin, cholecystokinin, ghrelin
    - these hormones = released into circulation and act to supplement the actions of the ANS during digestion
453
Q

endocrine cells of gastrointestinal tract are organized in what fashion?

A

scattered around the gut

in what is called a PRIMITIVE ORGANIZATION

454
Q

what kind of chemical mediation occurs for gastrointestinal hormones?

A

intracrine/autocrine chemical mediation

these hormones regulate the cells and organs in which they are produced

455
Q

secretin

A

small peptide of 27 amino acids

release of secretin by duodenal mucosa = stimulated by passage of food into small intestine

stimulates pancreas to produce secretions which aid in digestion

456
Q

what releases secretin? what stimulates it?

A

duodenal mucosa

release is stimulated by passage of food into small intestine

457
Q

what does secretin do?

A

it stimulates the pancreas to produce secretions which aid in digestion

  • stimulation of hepatic (liver) tissue
  • pepsin secretion
  • inhibition of gastrointestinal (GI) tract movement and gastric acid secretion
458
Q

cholecystokinin (CKK)

A

hormone released by lining of small intestine that may be involved in satiation of food intake

causes exocrine pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes

CKK also causes gallbladder to contract/release bile

459
Q

what releases cholecystokinin (CKK)?

A

lining of the small intestine

460
Q

CKK causes exocrine pancreas to do what?

A

secrete digestive enzymes

461
Q

CKK causes gallbladder to do what?

A

contract/release bile

462
Q

CCK hormone has been identified where outside of the gastrointestinal tract?

A

in the brain

here it functions as a neurotransmitter or nueromodulator

463
Q

gastrin

A

peptide hormone

secreted by mucous layer of stomach

induces secretion of water and electrolytes by stomach, pancreas, liver

induces secretion of enzymes by stomach and pancreas

produced in antral glands of stomach

464
Q

gastrin is secreted by…

A

mucous layer of the stomach

465
Q

what does gastrin do?

A

induces secretion of:

  1. water and electrolytes by the stomach, pancreas and liver
  2. enzymes by the stomach and pancreas
466
Q

where is gastrin produced?

A

antral glands of the stomach

467
Q

what does ghrelin do?

A

stimulate GHRH from anterior pituitary

468
Q

where is ghrelin made?

A

endocrine cells in the stomach

469
Q

what happened when ghrelin was administered to mice?

A

was done to see if it would enhance GH secretion

food intake and fat deposition increased

470
Q

human participants treated with ghrelin…

A

ate about 30% more food than individuals not given the hormone

concentrations of ghrelin increased to peak levels prior to each meal (~80% increase) and fell dramatically after the meal

471
Q

2 basic patterns of internal hormonal regulation

A
  1. regulation by the physiological by-products generated in response to their actions (thermostat)
  2. regulation by the stimulatory or inhibitory effects of other hormones
472
Q

example of regulation of hormones by the physiological by-products generated in response to their actions

A

ie. parathyroid hormone is released when blood levels of calcium decrease

when the action of the hormone has raised concentration of blood calcium to an optimal level, parathyroid hormone secretion stops

thermostat analogy

473
Q

example of hormonal regulation by the stimulatory or inhibitory effects of other hormones

A

within this form of control, one or more hormones in a regulatory chain may be involved in hormonal regulation

ie. GnRH is regulated by a multiple chain of negative feedback

474
Q

negative feedback

A

part of hormonal regulation

a regulatory system that tends to STABILIZE a process when its effects are pronounced by REDUCING ITS RATE/OUTPUT

475
Q

positive feedback

A

part of hormonal regulation

a regulatory process that tends to ACCELERATE an ongoing process by INCREASING PRODUCTION in response to the end product

generally less frequent - must be tightly controlled

ie. short term stress response can’t be let go on for too long

476
Q

can hormones affect the levels of their own receptors?

A

yes

through up-regulation or down-regulation

477
Q

up-regulation

A

process similar to positive feedback

hormone causes INCREASE in production of RECEPTORS for that hormone

478
Q

down-regulation

A

overproduction of a hormone can cause occupation or REDUCE the number of hormone RECEPTORS

479
Q

cellular and molecular mechanisms of hormone action

A

hormonal messages/signals evoke intracellular responses via SIGNAL TRANSDUCTION

essentially, the chemical hormonal message is transformed into intracellular events that ultimately affect cell function

480
Q

signal transduction

A

the way in which hormonal messages/signals evoke intracellular responses

481
Q

signal transduction pathway

A

sequence of events that begins with a hormone binding to its receptor and ends with the ultimate response in a target cell

482
Q

steroid hormone receptors: signal transduction

A

steroid hormone receptors = located inside cells (cytosol or nucleus)

steroids = lipid soluble, so can penetrate cell membrane to bind with these intracellular receptors

when the receptors bind to a specific steroid/thyroid hormone, they migrate to nucleus

here, they regulate gene transcription

483
Q

protein and peptide hormone receptors: signal transduction

A

protein/peptide hormone receptors = embedded in cell membrane

have at least three domains with specific functions

  1. extracellular domain (binds to hormone to form hormone-receptor complex)
  2. transmembrane domain
  3. cytoplasmic/intra-cellular domain (inside cells, often transmits a signal)
484
Q

protein/peptide hormones have two types of activity…

A
  1. intrinsic enzymatic activity
    - have enzymes in the cytoplasmic domain that phosphorylate/activate intracellular proteins
  2. require a second messenger
    - these receptors are coupled to G proteins
    - G proteins are activated when the appropriate hormone binds to the receptor
    - this part of the activated G protein activates an effector protein that converts thousands of reactants to products, amplifying action within the cell
485
Q

what is the definition of sex?

A

several ways to answer this

because there are different levels of sexual determination

each step of mammalian sexual development = a different step in a cascade of events

486
Q

why do sex differences exist?

A

some species don’t have different sexes: they reproduce asexually

ie. white spotted bamboo shark

but asexual reproduction results in less genetic diversity

so, SEXUAL REPRODUCTION PROVIDES GENETIC VARIABILITY THAT ENHANCES EVOLUTIONARY FLEXIBILITY

through the separation of haploid pairs in parents and their recombination in offspring

combo of genetic info = more flexibility

487
Q

why do sexually dimorphic behaviours exist?

A

mating system

either MONOGAMOUS or POLYGAMOUS

sex differences = reduced in monogamous species

ie. prairie voles are monogamous: virtually impossible to tell male and females apart

ie. elk are polygamous: males and females are readily distinguishable

488
Q

what kind of mating system causes more sexually dimorphism?

A

polygamous

489
Q

male bowerbirds: sexually dimorphic behaviours

A

males compete against one another to win over female mates

male bowerbirds have lots of different mating partners, and females raise offspring alone

so females must choose their mate wisely

males impress them by building colourful, elaborate bowers

490
Q

sexual selection favours sexual ___________ and ____________ it over time

A

dimorphism

amplifies

491
Q

sexually dimorphic behaviours are products of…

A

both NATURE and NURTURE

reflect role of biology and environment (socialization)

ie. boys are more likely to play in large groups, rough and tumble activities

ie. girls are more likely to play in twos and threes, more verbal communication

492
Q

4 recaps from beginning of sexual differences lecture

A
  1. sex determination occurs in various steps
  2. sexual reproduction favours evolutionary flexibility by providing genetic variability
  3. possibly because of the mating system related to sexual reproduction, several behaviours are sexually dimorphic
  4. sexually dimorphic behaviours are a product of nature and nurture
493
Q

5 levels of mammalian sexual differentiation

A
  1. chromosomal sex
  2. gonadal sex
  3. hormonal sex
  4. morphological sex
  5. behavioural sex

each level affects the next one

494
Q

step 1 in process of mammalian sexual differentiation

A

chromosomal sex

495
Q

chromosomal sex

A

defined during fertilization

chromosomal sex of the child = determined by whether the sperm contributes with an X or a Y chromosome (female gametes always contributes an X chromosome)

XX: female
XY: male

496
Q

step 2 in process of mammalian sexual differentiation

A

gonadal sex

497
Q

gonadal sex

A

testes or ovaries

each embryonic individual (regardless of chromosomal sex) develops a thickening called the GERMINAL RIDGE

this is a bipotential primordial gonad

expression of SRY gene (found on Y chromosome) produces testis determination factor (TDF)

498
Q

location of germinal ridge

A

on the ventromedial surface of each protokidney

499
Q

bipotential primordial gonad

A

this is what the thickening of the germinal ridge gives way to

bipotential: can either turn into ovaries or testes

depends on whether or not there is SRY gene

500
Q

where is the SRY gene found? what does it produce?

A

found on the Y chromosome

produces TDF (testis determination factor)

501
Q

SRY presence versus absence

A

presence: will produce TESTIS DETERMINATION FACTOR (TDF)

absence: no testis determination factor

502
Q

testis determination factor (TDF)

A

produced by the SRY gene

503
Q

SF-1

A

steroidogenic factor 1 protein

in combination with TDF, produces a transcription factor

this transcription factor regulates expression of SOX9 gene

504
Q

SF1 + TDF =

A

transcription factor

this transcription factor regulates expression of SOX9 gene

505
Q

protein products of SRY and SOX9 lead to…

A

development of the middle of the germinal ridge

this forms the testis

506
Q

so development of the testis requires…

A

SRY gene

TDF

SF-1

transcription factor

SOX9

507
Q

if SRY or SOX9 aren’t produced…

A

the outer part of the germinal ridge develops

and ovary forms

508
Q

what part of germinal ridge develops if SRY and SOX9 are produced? what about if they’re absent?

A

if present: middle of the germinal ridge develops (into testis)

if absent: outer part of germinal ridge develops (into ovaries)

509
Q

recent evidence suggests that _______ gene is required for normal ________ _____________

A

Wnt4 (wingless-related MMTV integration site 4) gene

ovarian development

510
Q

discovery of Wnt4 gene is important because…

A

used to be thought that mere absence of SRY and SOX9 would cause female development (ovaries)

but turns out there is another gene that probably must be present (Wnt4 gene)

511
Q

step 3 of mammalian sexual differentiation

A

hormonal secretions

512
Q

hormonal sex

A

hormonal secretions from the developing gonads determine whether the individual develops in a male or female manner

mammalian embryonic testes produce ANDROGENS

embryonic ovaries of mammals don’t secrete high concentrations of hormones

in presence of ovaries or in complete absence of any gonads, the development follows female pathway

513
Q

androgens =
no gonads/hormones =

A

male development

female development

514
Q

mammalian embryonic testes produce…

A

androgens

515
Q

embryonic ovaries don’t secrete…

A

high concentrations of hormones

516
Q

interesting finding: sexually dimorphic transcription of over 50 genes in brains of mice at 10.5 days post-conception

A

50 chromosomal genes were different between males and females

even at 20.5 days post-conception

wayyyy before gonads were developed

suggests that sex genes = mediated by chromosomes, not gonads

517
Q

interesting finding: cell culture from XY mice contain more cells expressing tyrosine hydroxylase than XX cultures, irrespective of the gonadal sex of the embryos from which the cells were taken

A

again, suggests that chromosomes are mediating sex to certain degree

independently from gonads

518
Q

step 4 of mammalian sexual differentiation

A

morphological sex

519
Q

morphological sex

A

Mullerian (female) and Wolffian (male) duct systems are normally BOTH PRESENT early in embryonic development

dual anlagen

520
Q

dual anlagen

A

rudimentary basis of accessory sex organs

apparatus for both male and female accessory organs (“dual”)

both Wolffian and Mullerian

521
Q

Mullerian duct system develops into…

A

fallopian tubes

uterus

upper vagina

and the Wolffian ducts regress

522
Q

Wolffian ducts develop into…

A

seminal vesicles

vas deferens

Mullerian system regresses

523
Q

what do male accessory sex organs require?

A

two products from the embryonic testes

  1. testosterone
  2. Mullerian inhibitory hormone (MIH)
524
Q

what do testosterone and MIH do, respectively?

A

testosterone: stimulates Wolffian duct development (masculinization)

MIH: causes regression of the Mullerian duct system (defeminization)

525
Q

what is responsible for the differentiation of the external genitalia?

A

androgens

526
Q

what happens in the presence of androgens?

A
  1. urethral groove fuses
  2. genital tubercle develops into penis
  3. genital folds fuse into scrotum
527
Q

what happens in absence of androgens?

A
  1. clitoris develops from genital tubercle
  2. vaginal labia develops from genital folds
528
Q

are accessory sex organs differentiated at 6 weeks?

A

no, they’re undifferentiated

  1. genital tubercle
  2. urogenital sinus
  3. anal fold
529
Q

male versus female external genitalia

A

male: penis, scrotum

female: clitoris, labia

530
Q

what controls mating behaviour in both sexes?

A

gonadal steroid hormones

531
Q

castration of male mice - effect on mating behaviour

A

castrated males stop mounting behaviour

but testosterone replacement therapy restores mounting behaviour to original levels

532
Q

typical female versus male mating behaviour

A

female: lordosis

male: mounting

533
Q

does injection of adult females with testosterone increase their mounting behaviour?

A

no, it does not

suggests that at some point in development, female rats lose potential to exhibit male-typical behaviour

534
Q

do males injected with estrogen display female-typical behaviour?

A

no

535
Q

first study that led to organizational/activational hypothesis of hormonal differentiation

A

Charles Phoenix

wanted to know at what point differentiation occurs

studied effects of PRENATAL and EARLY POSTNATAL androgen treatment on guinea pigs

on female reproductive behaviour (mounting/lordosis)

did this by observing and manipulating mating behaviour

536
Q

Charles Phoenix study: Phase 1 setup

A

PHASE 1:
- pregnant guinea pig was injected with testosterone

  • some received larger doses than others
537
Q

female offspring from mother with larger dose…

A

possessed external genitalia indistinguishable from those of brothers/typical males

538
Q

female offspring from mother with smaller dose…

A

no visible changes to external genitalia

referred to as “unmodified females”

539
Q

Charles Phoenix study: Phase 2 three groups

A

looked at the adult offspring

  1. smaller dose prenatal testosterone exposed females and males
  2. bigger dose prenatal testosterone exposed females and males
  3. control females and males
540
Q

Charles Phoenix study: Phase 2

A

all 3 groups were:

  1. gonadectomized
  2. injected with estrogen and progesterone
    (to stimulate female sexual behaviour)
  3. paired with male guinea pig
  4. some time later, were all injected with androgens (to stimulate male sexual behaviour)
  5. paired with female guinea pig
541
Q

Charles Phoenix study: conclusion

A

androgens given to guinea pigs prenatally

  1. decreased tendency of both experimental groups of females to display lordosis in adulthood
  2. increased tendency of both experimental groups of females to display mounting behaviour in response to testosterone therapy
  3. caused no deleterious effects on mounting behaviour or other masculine behavioural patterns in males treated
542
Q

Charles Phoenix study: important distinction that emerged

A

clear distinction can be made between PRENATAL ACTION of HORMONES in causing differentiation/ORGANIZATION of neural substrates for behaviour

and the actions of HORMONES in ADULTHOOD in causing ACTIVATION of these hormones

organization - activation hypothesis

543
Q

Charles Phoenix study led to…

A

basis for the organizational/activational hypothesis of sexually dimorphic behaviours

544
Q

organizational/activational hypothesis of sexually dimorphic behaviour

A
  1. sex hormones act during prenatal stage to permanently (irreversibly) organize the nervous system in a sex-specific manner
  2. during adult life, the same hormones have activation effects
545
Q

cyclic versus tonic gonadal function

A

cyclic: present in females
- females display cycles of mating behaviour

tonic: present in males
- males display continuous willingness to mate

546
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH) profile in females and males

A

females:
- pulsatile release
- then negative feedback is broken
- big increase of LH and FSH secretion
- after ovulation, neg feedback returns

males:
- steady pulsatile release

547
Q

gonadal function (LH levels) is driven by…

A

gonadotropins secreted from the anterior pituitary

GnRH –> LH –> gonadal function

548
Q

luteinizing hormone affects…
differences in males versus females…

A

testis and ovaries

testis: testosterone
ovaries: estrogen and progesterone

549
Q

in females, the negative feedback control of GnRH secretion is altered on a…

A

cyclical basis

females escape the negative feedback loop on a cyclical basis

550
Q

process of breaking the negative feedback loop

A
  1. females escape negative feedback loop on cyclical basis
  2. estrogen levels increase
  3. surge of GnRH is released in response to rising estrogen levels
  4. GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to release surges of LH and FSH
  5. after ovulation, negative feedback mechanisms are engaged
551
Q

how does the negative feedback system work to regulate steroid secretion?

A

both males and females have this

increasing gonadal steroid concentrations feed back to the gonads, anterior pituitary and hypothalamus

this slows secretion of GnRH, gonadotropins and gonadal steroids

552
Q

atypical sexual development

A

a lot happens in the process of sexual differentiation

because it’s a complicated process

high potential for atypical development

553
Q

chromosomal to gonadal sex

A

SRY gene is located on the short arm of the Y chromosome

this gene causes male gonadal development

554
Q

partial expression of SRY gene

A

leads to incomplete gonadal differentiation

555
Q

chromosomal XY but no SRY

A

male mice develop ovaries

556
Q

chromosomal XX but inserted SRY gene

A

female mice develop testes

557
Q

Swyer syndrome

A

rare disorder

failure of sex glands (testis or ovaries) to develop

in XY individuals that lack SRY gene

without intervention, won’t experience puberty

external female genitalia, but no menstruation

gonads = functionless

558
Q

what is Swyer syndrome classified as?

A

a disorder of sex development (DSD)

DSDs encompass any disorder in which chromosomal, gonadal or anatomic sex development is atypical

559
Q

how is Swyer syndrome treated?

A

hormone replacement therapy

560
Q

hormonal to morphological sex

A

even if individual is XY, testosterone and MIH must be secreted at the correct time

if MIH isn’t secreted at right time, the Mullerian syndrome will develop

depending on hormonal secretion, possible for both systems or for neither to develop

561
Q

intersex

A

general term used for variety of conditions in which a person is born with reproductive/sexual anatomy that doesn’t fit the typical definitions of male or female

ie. discrepancies between external genitalia and internal sexual organs

ie. when both systems develop in a single individual (can be separate or combined)

562
Q

is intersex considered a medical problem?

A

no, although it may signal underlying metabolic concern

intersex individuals aren’t in need of medical treatment

although it used to be considered one - “normalization” srugery

563
Q

spectrum of hormonal to morphological sex

A

two continuum which intersect

  1. masculinization to de-masculinization
  2. feminization to de-feminization

potential for multiple different outcomes

564
Q

Prader scale

A

scoring system for grading degrees of genital masculinization

starts at a 0: unvirilized female
ends at 5: completely virilized female

565
Q

completely virilized female

A

5 on the Prader scale

female who appears externally male at birth with the labial/scrotal sac empty since there are no testicals

566
Q

what is responsible for differentiation of external genitalia?

A

androgens

and androgenic metabolites

567
Q

what androgenic metabolite of testosterone is critical for genital fusing process?

A

5 alpha-dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

testosterone is converted to DHT by an enzyme

568
Q

in females, unusually high levels of DHT leads to…

A

development of male external genitalia

569
Q

5alpha-reductase deficiency

A

genetic males (XY) with this deficiency are born with:

  1. ambiguous genitalia
  2. small, undescended testes
  3. usually considered females at birth, reared as females
  4. at puberty, testosterone masculinizes the body
570
Q

what happens at puberty for XY individuals with 5alpha-reductase deficiency?

A

at puberty, testosterone masculinizes the body

  1. male-typical musculature
  2. axillary hair growth
  3. genitalia develop to resemble male-typical penis and scrotum
571
Q

Turner syndrome

A
  1. congenital condition
  2. individuals LACK an X chromosome (XO) or DAMAGE to second X (or Y) chromosome
  3. have female external appearance
  4. but ovarian development = usually limited
  5. don’t attain puberty without medical attention
572
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

caused by lack of 21-HYDROXYLASE enzyme

leads to overproduction of ADRENAL ANDROGENS

  • progesterone also needs 21-hydroxylase in order to create other important hormones
573
Q

does congenital adrenal hyperplasia cause problems in congenital males?

A

no

574
Q

what does congenital adrenal hyperplasia do to female genitalia?

A

causes moderate/sever masculinization

575
Q

androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

functional androgen receptors are absent

XY individuals born with androgen insensitivity syndrome have normal-appearing female external genitalia

but vagina is oftenshort and they’re sterile

are sexed and reared as girls

576
Q

people with androgen insensitivity syndrome are sexed and reared as…

A

girls

but vagina is short and no menstruation occurs (they’re sterile)

577
Q

when do people discover that they have androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

at adolescence

when menstruation fails to occur

578
Q

3 possible trisomic anomalies

A
  1. Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)
  2. XYY
  3. XXX
579
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

XXY

extra X chromosome

presence of Y chromosome = sufficient for SRY gene to be activated and for masculinization to occur

usually sterile because of reduced sperm production

often severe learning disabilities

580
Q

people with Klinefelter syndrome are sexed as…

A

males at birth

581
Q

Klinefelter syndrome seems to mainly reflect…

A

variation in the androgen receptor

582
Q

MODERN organizational/activation hypothesis of sexual differentiation

A

expands the variables that influence sex differences:
1. genes
2. hormones
3. ENVIRONMENT

expands the amount of time in which organization effects take place
1. extend to pre-pubertal period

essentially, the modern theory sees things as much less fixed (more variables are at work and time period in which they have effects are longer)

583
Q

average sex differences in behaviour often reflect significant overlap between the sexes…

A

are often greater differences in behaviour BETWEEN INDIVIDUALS OF THE SAME SEX

than between individuals of the opposite sex

considerable overlap between the sexes

584
Q

gender role

A

what roles society expects genders to perform

585
Q

gender identity

A

internal and personal process by which individuals come to perceive themselves

what they understand their own gender to be

binary, non-binary and plural

586
Q

sexual orientation

A

enduring pattern of:

  • emotional
  • romantic
  • and/or sexual

attractions that individuals feel towards people of the same and/or opposite sex