Lecture Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is caring for an infant who has just been born. The nurse knows that Vitamin K will be administered shortly after birth. What is the primary reason for this intervention?

a. Newborns are born with high levels of Vitamin K, which requires supplementation to prevent clotting.
b. Vitamin K is given to prevent jaundice and hyperbilirubinemia in newborns.
c. Newborns are at risk of bleeding due to low levels of Vitamin K at birth.
d. Vitamin K is used to prevent adverse effects from antibiotics commonly given to newborns.

A

c. Newborns are at risk of bleeding due to low levels of Vitamin K at birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A nurse is educating a patient who is starting a GLP-1 agonist injection. Which of the following statements about GLP-1 agonists is most accurate?

a. GLP-1 agonists should be used in Type 1 diabetes to help with glucose control because they increase insulin secretion.
b. These medications can be safely used during pregnancy and lactation because they have no known risks to the baby.
c. GLP-1 agonists can improve lipid profiles and reduce inflammation, which helps lower cardiovascular problems.
d. GLP-1 agonists should be given on an empty stomach to minimize GI upset.

A

c. GLP-1 agonists can improve lipid profiles and reduce inflammation, which helps lower cardiovascular problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A nurse is educating a patient about the potential side effects and interactions of this medication. Which of the following statements is true about SGLT-2 inhibitors is most accurate?

a. SGLT-2 inhibitors increase glucose reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to decreased urination and fluid retention.
b. SGLT-2 inhibitors are associated with an increased risk of GI upset, including nausea and vomiting.
c. Rifampin enhances the effectiveness of SGLT-2 inhibitors by increasing their metabolism and action.
d. These medications can increase the risk of urinary tract infections and yeast infections due to the sugar-rich environment they create in the urinary tract.

A

d. These medications can increase the risk of urinary tract infections and yeast infections due to the sugar-rich environment they create in the urinary tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 58 year old patient with Type 2 diabetes is prescribed a sulfonylurea as part of their treatment plan. The nurse provides education regarding the use of sulfonylureas. Which of the following statements about sulfonylureas is most accurate?

a. Sulfonylureas are most effective when taken without making lifestyle changes.
b. The medication can be used in patients with Type 1 diabetes since it stimulates insulin release.
c. Sulfonylureas are the preferred medication for controlling glucose levels during pregnancy and lactation.
d. Hypoglycemia is a common adverse effect, especially if the patient experiences anorexia.

A

d. Hypoglycemia is a common adverse effect, especially if the patient experiences anorexia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A 10 year old child with Type 1 diabetes is admitted to the hospital. The nurse is aware that monitoring and managing diabetes in children can be more challenging than in adults. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the care of children with diabetes?

a. The insulin dosages for children are usually higher and require less frequent monitoring.
b. It is important to involve all adults in the child’s life to improve adherence to the diabetes care plan.
c. Teenagers are less likely to struggle with following their prescribed diet and injection regimen.
d. Children with diabetes have the same reserves as adults, giving them more time to compensate for fluctuations in glucose levels.

A

b. It is important to involve all adults in the child’s life to improve adherence to the diabetes care plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 55-year-old patient with a history of Type 2 diabetes presents with consistently high blood glucose levels. The nurse provides education on the long-term effects of uncontrolled diabetes. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of chronic untreated diabetes?

a. Improved endothelial function leading to better blood flow.
b. Decreased insulin resistance and improved glucose regulation.
c. Accumulation of reactive oxygen species causing damage to blood vessels.
d. Reduction in urinary glucose excretion due to improved kidney function.

A

c. Accumulation of reactive oxygen species causing damage to blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A patient brings their 4-year-old child to the clinic because they have noticed that their child’s legs are becoming bowed. The child also has a history of delayed growth. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the child’s symptoms?

a. Rickets
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteomalacia
d. Hypervitaminosis D

A

a. Rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A nurse is educating a patient about the role of vitamins and minerals in maintaining health. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the differences between vitamins and minerals?

a. Vitamins are produced by the body and do not need to be obtained through diet, while minerals must always be obtained through diet.
b. Vitamins are inorganic substances that occur naturally in the body, while minerals are organic substances that must be obtained through diet.
c. Both vitamins and minerals are produced by the body and do not require dietary intake for optimal health.
d. Vitamins are essential for growth and maintenance for the body and are obtained through organic sources, while minerals occur naturally in the earth and must be obtained from non-organic sources.

A

d. Vitamins are essential for growth and maintenance for the body and are obtained through organic sources, while minerals occur naturally in the earth and must be obtained from non-organic sources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A patient is prescribed onabotulinumtoxinA for the treatment of chronic migraine headaches. The nurse reviews the patient’s medical history and notes the patient has a known allergy to botulinum toxin and a history of mild liver disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a. Hold the onabotulinumtoxinA treatment and contact the healthcare provider to discusss an alternative treatment plan.
b. Administer the onabotulinumtoxinA as prescribed and monitor the patient for any allergic reaction.
c. Educate the patient about the risk of anaphylactic reactions and continue the medication as prescribed.
d. Encourage the patient to increase fluids to prevent liver damage from the onabotulinumtoxinA injection.

A

a. Hold the onabotulinumtoxinA treatment and contact the healthcare provider to discusss an alternative treatment plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of epilepsy and heart disease who is prescribed tizanidine for muscle spasms. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize?

a. Monitor the patient for signs of increased muscle weakness, as tizanidine may exacerbate symptoms in patients with myasthenia gravis.
b. Educate the patient that tizanidine is safe to use during pregnancy, as it does not cross the placenta.
c. Encourage the patient to take tizanidine as prescribed without any adjustments, as it is not metabolized by the liver.
d. Assess the patient for hypotension or arrhythmias, as tizanidine may worsen cardiac conditions in patients with heart disease.

A

d. Assess the patient for hypotension or arrhythmias, as tizanidine may worsen cardiac conditions in patients with heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A patient is prescribed phenobarbital for seizure management and digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize?

a. Administer the prescribed dose of phenobarbital and inform the patient that digoxin will likely be more effective while taking this medication.
b. Educate the patient to increase their intake of fluids to prevent dehydration, as this combination of medications increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
c. Monitor the patient’s heart failure symptoms closely, as phenobarbital can decrease the effectiveness of digoxin, which may worsen heart failure.
d. Ensure that the patient continues taking their digoxin as prescribed but monitor for signs of increased digoxin effectiveness.

A

c. Monitor the patient’s heart failure symptoms closely, as phenobarbital can decrease the effectiveness of digoxin, which may worsen heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A nurse is reviewing the medication plan for a 75-year-old patient prescribed an anxiolytic medication. The patient also has a history of liver dysfunction. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize?

a. Administer the medication as prescribed and monitor the patient for signs of CNS depression.
b. Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider to discuss potential adjustments due to the patient’s liver dysfunction.
c. Administer the medication as prescribed, but advise the patient to avoid alcohol to minimize the risk of CNS depression.
d. Encourage the patient to use over-the-counter antihistamines as an alternative to the anxiolytic medication.

A

b. Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider to discuss potential adjustments due to the patient’s liver dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A nurse is reviewing a 68-year-old patient’s medical history before administering an anticholinergic medication for Parkinson’s disease. The patient has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and hypertension. What is the nurse’s best course of action?

a. Withhold the anticholinergic medication and notifiy the provider due to the patient’s BPH and hypertension.
b. Instruct the patient to increase fluid intake and avoid heat eposure while on the medication.
c. Administer the anticholinergic medication as prescribed, as the patient has not contraindications.
d. Administer the medication but monitor the patient for signs of tachycardia and urinary retention.

A

a. Withhold the anticholinergic medication and notifiy the provider due to the patient’s BPH and hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient with Parkinson’s disease who has been prescribed dopaminergic agents. The nurse notes that the patient has a history of asthma. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a. Encourage the patient to perform deep breathing exercises before taking the medication.
b. Increase the dose of the medication to ensure better efficacy in patients with asthma.
c. Withhold the dopaminergic agent and notify the provider due to the risk of asthma exacerbation.
d. Administer the medication as prescribed but monitor for signs of bronchospasm.

A

d. Administer the medication as prescribed but monitor for signs of bronchospasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A 67-year-old patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait, mask-like facial expressions, and difficulty swallowing. The nurse should prioritize which of the following nursing interventions to ensure the patient’s safety?

a. Encourage the patient to walk as much as possible to maintain mobility.
b. Provide oral medications without performing a swallow test, as the patient has no cognitive impairment.
c. Monitor the patient for signs of aspiration and perform a swallow test before administering oral medications.
d. Instuct the patient to limit speech therapy to once a week to avoid overexertion.

A

c. Monitor the patient for signs of aspiration and perform a swallow test before administering oral medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is patient teaching an important part of administering immune sera? Select all that apply.

a. Improves patient compliance
b. Includes the patient in their care.
c. Educates the patient about treating adverse reactions.
d. Educates the patient about the drug being administered.
e. Ensures the patient will follow instructions.

A

a. Improves patient compliance
b. Includes the patient in their care.
c. Educates the patient about treating adverse reactions.
d. Educates the patient about the drug being administered.

Nothing ensures the patient will follow the instructions; however, patient teaching does improve patient compliance by involving them in the plan of care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The nurse provides patient teaching to a client. The nurse explains the purpose of vaccines is to promote what?

a. Active Immunity
b. Passive immunity
c. Short term immunity
d. Guaranteed prevention of disease.

A

a. Active Immunity

18
Q

A client is requesting the influenza vaccine. What in the client’s health history may be a contraindication to this vaccine?

a. The client is currently prescribed prednisone
b. The client takes a loop diuretic for hypertension.
c. The client is 36 years old.
d. The client does not know their blood type, and it is not recorded in the health records.

A

a. The client is currently prescribed prednisone

19
Q

A recently hired nurse has been administered the hepatitis B series prior to beginning employment. What type of biological is this?

a. antivenom
b. vaccine
c. immune sera
d. antitoxin

A

b. vaccine

20
Q

When are vaccines contraindicated?

a. When a patient has received immune globulin.
b. When the patient is under 1 year of age.
c. When the patient is immunostimulated.
d. When the patient takes iron supplements.

A

a. When a patient has received immune globulin.

21
Q

The nurse is caring for a pediatric patient with a new onset of hypercalcemia. What condition would be most likely to cause this altered serum calcium level?

a. Radiation injury
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Liver failure
d. Malignancy

A

d. Malignancy

22
Q

The nurse administers teriparatide and evaluates the drug as effective in achieving desired effects when what is assessed?

a. Increase in serum calcium and decrease in serum phosphorus
b. Increase in serum calcium and serum phosphorus.
c. Decrease in serum calcium and serum phosphorus.
d. Decrease in serum calcium and increase in serum phosphorus

A

a. Increase in serum calcium and decrease in serum phosphorus

23
Q

After administering propylthiouracil (PTU), what effect would the nurse anticipate the drug will have in the patient’s body?

a. To inhibit the production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland.
b. To destroy part of the thyroid gland.
c. To suppress the anterior pituitary gland’s secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
d. To suppress the hypothalamus’s production of thryotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

A

a. To inhibit the production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland.

24
Q

When may vaccines be contraindicated?

a. Vaccines are never contraindicated.
b. When the patient is over 80 years old.
c. When the patient received a blood transfusion last month.
d. When the patient has allergic rhinitis

A

c. When the patient received a blood transfusion last month.

25
Q

Which statement made by the client makes the nurse suspect the client is experiencing hyperthyroidism?

a. “I just don’t seem to have any appetite anymore.”
b. “I have a bowel movement about every 5 days.
c. “My skin is really becoming dry and coarse.”
d. “I have noticed all my collars are getting tighter.”

A

d. “I have noticed all my collars are getting tighter.”

26
Q

The client diagnosed with hypothyroidism is prescribed the thyroid hormone levothyroxine. Which assessment data indicate the medication has been effective?

a. The client has a three pound weight gain.
b. The client has a decreased pulse rate.
c. The client’s temperature is WNL.
d. The client denies any diaphoresis.

A

c. The client’s temperature is WNL.

27
Q

The client is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which signs/symptoms should the nurse expect the client to exhibit?

a. Complaints of extreme fatigue and hair loss.
b. Exophthalmos and complaints of nervousness.
c. Complaints of profuse sweating and flushed skin.
d. Tetany and complaints of stiffness of the hands.

A

a. Complaints of extreme fatigue and hair loss.

28
Q

In which of the following ways does the thyroid gland use iodine?

a. To stimulate the production of TSH.
b. To produce the thyroid hormones.
c. To regulate parathyroid hormone.
d. To destroy part of the thyroid gland.

A

b. To produce the thyroid hormones.

29
Q

Which infection is spread by sexual contact?

a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Trichomoniasis
c. Leishmaniasis
d. Amebiasis

A

b. Trichomoniasis

30
Q

What ADE should patients report while taking antimalarial agents?

a. Rapid weight gain, shortness of breath, and fainting
b. Swelling, weight gain, mood changes, and vision problems
c. Nausea, dizziness, hearing loss, visual disturbances, and skin rashes.
d. Diarrhea, rash, or difficulty breathing

A

c. Nausea, dizziness, hearing loss, visual disturbances, and skin rashes.

31
Q

How do people contract malaria?

a. by not washing their hands
b. by eating contaminated food
c. by getting bit by an Anopheles mosquito
d. by living in close quarters

A

c. by getting bit by an Anopheles mosquito

32
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Malaria?

a. confusion, trouble speaking, difficulty walking, and severe headache
b. hives, swelling, difficulty breathing, and a rash
c. chest pain, shortness of breath, nausea, sweating
d. cyclic fevers, chills, profuse sweating, anemia, fatigue

A

d. cyclic fevers, chills, profuse sweating, anemia, fatigue

33
Q

A nurse is educating a patient who is starting therapy with an anti-hepatitis B agent. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan to ensure the patient’s safety during treatment?

a. “It is important to stop the medication immediately if you experience nausea and vomiting, as this could indicate the drug is not effective.”
b. “You should monitor your renal and hepatic function through regular lab tests and report any signs of jaundice, fever, or muscle cramps immediately.”
c. “It is safe to stop the medication if you feel better after a few weeks, as the virus will no longer be contagious.”
d. “There is no need to use additional contraceptive methods during treatment, as the medication will prevent any potential pregnancy.”

A

b. “You should monitor your renal and hepatic function through regular lab tests and report any signs of jaundice, fever, or muscle cramps immediately.”

34
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient receiving antiretroviral therapy (ART) for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following nursing actions is most important when monitoring the patient for therapeutic response and potential adverse effects?

a. Focus only on monitoring gastrointestinal side effects, as they are the most common.
b. Only monitor for the patient’s T-cell count, as other assessments are less important.
c. Assess for relief of AIDS-related symptoms and monitor for common adverse effects like dizziness, confusion, and headache.
d. Ensure the patient understands the medication regimen.

A

c. Assess for relief of AIDS-related symptoms and monitor for common adverse effects like dizziness, confusion, and headache.

35
Q

A nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is being treated with a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) for HIV. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize to ensure safe and effective use of the medication?

a. Instruct the patient to continue breastfeeding to support the infant’s immune system.
b. The patient should be reassured that the medication poses no risk to the liver or kidneys during pregnancy.
c. Monitor the patient closely for signs of hypersensitivity, such as fever, chills, or flu-like symptoms, and stop the medication if these symptoms occur.
d. Ensure that the patient is receiving a combination of antiviral drugs to prevent any resistance to the NRTI.

A

c. Monitor the patient closely for signs of hypersensitivity, such as fever, chills, or flu-like symptoms, and stop the medication if these symptoms occur.

36
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed an antiviral drug for influenza. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize to ensure the most effective treatment?

a. Administer the antiviral medication at any time of day, as the timing is not critical.
b. Monitor the patient for gastrointestinal effects and discontine medication if nausea occurs.
c. Withhold the influenza vaccine until after the flu season ends to ensure maximal efficacy.
d. Initiate the antiviral regimen as soon as possible after the patient shows symptoms, ideally within 2 days of exposure.

A

d. Initiate the antiviral regimen as soon as possible after the patient shows symptoms, ideally within 2 days of exposure.

37
Q

How do ergot derivatives work?

a. They constrict blood vessels in the brain to reduce pain.
b. They activate opioid receptors to reduce pain.
c. They inhibit chemicals that cause inflammation which reduces pain.
d. They cause increased stimulation of A-fibers which reduces pain.

A

a. They constrict blood vessels in the brain to reduce pain.

38
Q

What patient education would you provide to a patient taking an opioid antagonist?

a. You can’t take this if you’re pregnant.
b. It’s okay to take opioid antagonist if you’ve taken an opioid recently.
c. Opioid withdrawal symptoms include: nausea, vomiting, a fast heartbeat, and sweating
d. The effects of opioid antagonists can take some time to start working.

A

c. Opioid withdrawal symptoms include: nausea, vomiting, a fast heartbeat, and sweating

39
Q

Which of these is an adverse effect of opioid agonists-antagonists?

a. Tachypnea
b. Respiratory depression
c. Tingling in the hands.
d. Polyphagia

A

b. Respiratory depression

40
Q

Which of these is a contraindication of opioid agonists?

a. GI surgery
b. Pregnancy
c. Asthma
d. Poison induced diarrhea

A

d. Poison induced diarrhea