Lecture final Flashcards

(118 cards)

1
Q

what test is the most reliable assessment of the effective erythroid activity of the bone marrow?

A

retic count

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2
Q

what conditions (including parasitc infections) produce a macrocyitic/normochromic picture?

A

pernicious anemia
liver disease
folate deficiency
B12 deficiency

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3
Q

what conditions produce a microcytic/hypochromic blood picture?

A
thalassemia
iron deficiency
sideroblastic anemia
Lead poisoning
hookworm infection
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4
Q

what are the typical findings in pernicious anemia?

A

oval macrocytes
shift to the right
BM WBC precursors, giant band and metas

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5
Q

what is the schilling test and what body fluid is used for the test?

A

indirect measure of intrinsic factor (pernicious anemia)

urine

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6
Q

what are macropolycytes?

A

large cells with 5-7 lobes in nucleus. larger than hypersegs

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7
Q

what portion of the red blood cell is damaged leading to the formation of burr cells and thorn cells?

A

membrane

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8
Q

what are the distinguishing characteristics of hereditary ovalocytosis?

A

ovalocytes

Normal Hgb and normal cental palor

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9
Q

what is the most unusual and significant finding in patients suffering for AIHA?

A

positive direct coobs test (DAT)

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10
Q

what poikilogyte is associated with ABO HDN?

A

spherocytes (not normal)

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11
Q

what poikilocyte is associated with extramedullary hematopoiesis?

A

tear drop cells

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12
Q

what are the lab finding is PCH?

A

positive DAT
positive Donath Landsteiner
syptoms after exposure to cold

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13
Q

what are the hemoglobin electrophoresis results in sickle cells anemia?

A

Has Hgb S and F

No Hgb A

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14
Q

hat hemoglobin is insoluble in reducing agents such as sodium dithionite and sodium meatbisulfate?

A

Hgb S

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15
Q

which beta chain of the Hgb molecule is abnormal in Hgb C disease, sickle cell anemia and thalassemia major?

A

beta chain

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16
Q

what does the PBS of a patient with sickle cells trait usually look like?

A

occcasional target cells otherwise normal

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17
Q

what does the PBS of a patient with IDA show?

A

pale, microcytic/hypochromic cells

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18
Q

what are the serum iron and TIBC results in IDA?

A

decreased iron increased TIBC

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19
Q

what is the specific cause of thalassemia?

A

decreased rate of synthesis of either slpha or beta chains. inherited not normal

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20
Q

what is another name for homozygous alpha thalassemia?

A

barts disease

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21
Q

what is another name for heterozygous alpha thalassemia?

A

Hgb H disease

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22
Q

what cause relative polycythemia?

A

stress
dehydration
severe burns
not increased erythropoeiten

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23
Q

what are the typical lab findings in acute leukemia?

A

anemia
thrombocytopenia
young cells

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24
Q

what has auer rods and a positive peroxidase stain?

A

AML

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25
what has a positive periodic acid-Schiff stain
ALL
26
what has a positive chloroacetate esterase stain?
AMML
27
what has a prescence of myelomonocytes?
AMML (Naeglis)
28
what has a presence of the philadelphia chromosome?
CML
29
what has hypermature lymphs and smudge cells?
CLL
30
what has extreme thrombocytosis?
CML
31
what has increased incidence of bleeding disorders
APL
32
what leukemia is most frequently seen in patients over the age of 50?
CLL
33
whay type of cells might be expected to be found in the bone marrow of a leukemic patient?
small cells in PBS acute=blasts CML=all stage of granulocytes (except IM)
34
what is the "end stage" of DiGuglielmo's syndrome?
AML (arythro Leukemia)
35
what condition would be described as acute granuocytopenia?
agranulocytosis/neutropenia
36
what are the lab findings in Hodgkins disease?
increase EOS decreased lymphs increased monos Reed sternberg cell
37
what are the lab findings in multiple myeloma?
``` occasional plasma cell bence jones protein rouleaux increased sed rate high protein ```
38
what is the L.E factor?
anti-nucleoprotein IgG antibody
39
how is a downey cell described?
a typical lymph in IM scalloping around RBC | blue at the edges aka reactive lymph
40
what disease is indicated by a positive ANA
SLE (lupus)
41
with what conditions is a decreased LAP associated?
CML AML increased leukomoid reactions
42
what are the causes of bleeding?
``` trama decreased clotting factor synthesis DIC increased utilization of clotting factors genetic defects ```
43
what is the immediate response to vessel injury?
vasocontriction
44
what comprises the initial plug in the wall of an injured vessel?
platelets
45
what is meant by platelet adhesion?
sticks to surfaces
46
what is meant by platelet aggregation?
platelets stick to each other
47
which platelet factor is most important in the clotting process?
factor 3
48
what factor is fibrinogen?
I
49
what factor is prothrombin?
II
50
what factor is tissue thromboplastin?
III
51
what factor is Ca?
IIII
52
what factor is the labile factor?
V
53
what if the anti-hemophiliac factor?
VIII
54
what are the christmas factors?
X XI
55
what factors are hageman factors?
XII
56
what factor is hemophilia A?
VIII
57
what factore is hemophilia B?
IX
58
what is the stuart power factor?
X
59
what factor is plasma thromboplastin?
XI
60
what factor is the hagemans factor?
XII
61
intrinsic factors
1,2,,5,8,9,10,11,12
62
extrinsic factors
1, 2, 5, 7, 10
63
factors in common
1, 2 ,5, 10
64
vitamin K dependant factors
2, 7, 9, 10
65
liver factors
everything but 8
66
labile factors
5, 8
67
adsorbed plasma factors
5, 8, 11, 12
68
aged serum factors
7, 9, 10, 11, 12
69
factors that lac enzymatically active form
5, 8
70
component of thromboplastin
activated factor x platelet factor III Ca ions factor 5
71
end result of stage 1
plasma thromboplastin
72
end result of stage II
thrombin
73
end result of stage III
fibrin
74
substance which initiates the extrinsic system
tissue factor 3 | not contained in the blood until injury occurs
75
substance which initiates the intrinsic system
platelet factor 3 plasma factor 12 contact with exposed colagen
76
precursor of thrombin
prothrombin
77
substance which converts fibrinogen to fibrin
thrombin
78
activated substance responsible for clot lysis
plasmin (activated)
79
final end products of th breakdown of fibrin and of fibrinogen
frag, E | 2 D frag.
80
components which are depleted in DIC
1, 5, 8, platelets
81
factor deficiency that would be incompatible with life
IV Ca
82
principle of the coagulyzer (orMLA)
change in optical density cuts the timer off
83
principle of the fibrometer
completion of electrical circut due to formation of a clot
84
principle and normal value for duke
ear | 1-3 mins
85
principle and normal value for ivy
forearm | 1-7 mins
86
principle for tourniquet test
capillary fragility
87
principle and normal value for thrombin time
measure of availability of fibrinogen | 15-20 secs (factor 1)
88
what is the principle of the Lee-White clotting time?
monitoring heparin therapy | detects intrinsic defects
89
what is the principle of prothrombin consumption test?
meausres amount of prothrombin remaining in serum after clotting
90
normal values for fibrinogen
200-400 mg/dl
91
factors which influence clot retention
platelet factor 6 | normal fibrin normal hct (thrombosthenin 6)
92
what deficiency is PT especially sensitive to?
deficiency of factor 7
93
what abnormalities could be indicated by and increased PTT?
liver disease | hemophilia A and B
94
what is the principle of plasma recalcification time?
amount of time required for clot to form in plasma
95
what factor is stypven time most useful for?
russels viper venom -factor 7
96
what does euglobulin lysis measure?
fibrinolysis
97
thrombo wellco test especially normal values
if agglutination occurs in 1:5 dilution but not in 1:20 | FDP >10>40 in both >40
98
what factor does 5 M urea test detect?
factor 13
99
tests useful in the diagnosis of DIC
bleeding time, abnormal PT/PTT, fibrinolysis, factors 1, 5, 8 platelets
100
effect of asprin in testing
increased BT | abnormal glass bead test
101
characteristics and lab results for hemophilia A
deficincy of 8 sex linked recessive increased PTT
102
characteristic and lab results for hemophilia B
christmas disease factor 9 increased PTT
103
characteristics and lab findings of vonwillebrands disease
increased PTT abnormal bleeding time factor 8 def.
104
characteristics and lab findings of ITP
due to anti-platelets Ab increased bleeding time decreased platelets pinpoint hemorrhages
105
characteristics and lab findings of glanzmanns thrombasthenia
defect in platelet aggrigation | abnormal platelet funcion
106
what is the characteristic of hereditary telangiectasia
vascular defect
107
what is parahemophilia
factor 5 def.
108
what is the mode of action of coumadin?
anti-vitamin k
109
what is the mode of action of heparin?
netralized/inactivates thrombin
110
what test is used to monitor coumadin
PT
111
what test is used to monitor heparin
PTT
112
what level must be reached for a clotting factor to cause and abnormality
30-40% abnormal | 50-150% normal
113
what is anti-thrombin III
heparin cofactor needs anti-thrombin to be bound, wouldnt work without it
114
name a test that will distinguish between primary and secondary fibrinolysis
d dimer
115
what factors are removed when plasma is adsorbed?
vitamin k dependent | factors 2, 7, 9, 10
116
what reagents can be used to prepare adsorbed plasma?
barium sulfate | aluminum hydroxide
117
irreversible aggregation of platelets | 1st is reversible 2cnd is not
viscous metamorphosis
118
what plasminogen activators are now being used to treat heart attack and stroke victims
tPA tissue plasminogen activator urokinase