Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biotechnology disease > Lecture 6A & B > Flashcards

Lecture 6A & B Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Passive vector

A

agent does not

replicate within the vector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is active vector

A

agent does replicate

within the vector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the route of transmission

A
  • Vector-borne transmission
  • Airborne transmission
  • Faeco-oral transmission
  • Direct transmission
  • Indirect / fomite transmission
  • Common vehicle transmission
  • Iatrogenic transmission
  • Zoonotic transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the types of transmission

A

Horizontal and Vertical transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is horizontal transmission

A
  • Vector-borne transmission
  • Airborne transmission
  • Faeco-oral transmission
  • Direct transmission
  • Indirect / fomite transmission
  • Common vehicle transmission
  • Iatrogenic transmission
  • Zoonotic transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Vertical transmission

A

Mother to offspring transmission in utero
or in ovo (early post-partum period)
Transmission across placenta, in birth
canal, in colostrum/milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can vertical transmission do

A

Cause embryonic death, mummification,
resorption (time of gestation) or congenital
defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Disease control

strategy based on

A

Vaccination
Movement restrictions
Stamping out
Quarantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does the disease happen

A

when a non-vector animal(reservoir animal) infect a vector animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some passive vector disease

A

• Equine infectious anaemia: biting flies
• Myxomatosis: fleas, mites, mosquitos
• HIV/AIDS: injecting drug use
(not primary route of transmission)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How to prevent passive transmission

A 
Prevent contamination
of vector
Prevent access of vector
to susceptible new host
Immunological
protection of susceptible
new host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What disease is Equine infectious anaemia

A

Retrovirus disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is Equine infectious anaemia transmitted

A

Transmitted by biting flies:
tabanid flies and stable flies
(stomoxys spp.).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does Equine infectious anaemia spread

A 
Iatrogenic spread (non-sterile needles and syringes)
Blood containing EIAV is transmitted when fly bites next host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does Equine infectious anaemia do

A 
White cells attacking red blood cells
Sub-acute EIA: continued moderate
fever followed by recovery. Some
recurrent episodes of fever/disease
Chronic EIA: mild illness, fever,
anaemia, oedema

Life-long persistent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How to control Equine infectious anaemia

A

Prevent insect bites
Remove life-long carriers
(Coggins test)
Use sterile needles and syringes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is myxomatosis

A 
Poxvirus disease of rabbits:
Causes benign fibromas in wild
rabbits in Americas
Severe generalised disease in
European rabbits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the vectors for myxoma virus

A

Mosquito, fleas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Arboviruses

A

Arthropod borne viruses
replicate in their haematophagous arthropod hosts and
transmitted to vertebrate host by biting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does haematophagous mean

A

blood sucking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the usual virus reservoir for mosquito

A

birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is ornithophilic mosquito?

A

bird attracted mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is enzootic cycle

A

also enzootic or sylvatic transmission cycle, is a portion of the natural transmission cycle of a pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is epizootic cycle

A

An epidemic outbreak of disease in an animal population, often with the implication that it may extend to humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the pathogenesis of genus flavivirus

A 
Bite from infected arthropod
Local virus replication
Viraemia
Dissemination to target organs
(endothelium, liver, foetus, CNS)
Family Flaviviridae
Mature virions quite labile:
sensitive to heat, detergents, common disinfectants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where did west nile virus start?

A

USA bronc zoo in queens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why was the virus so successful?

A

there were a lot of birds present in the city

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the distinct clinical syndromes in NSW 2011 of the arbovirus

A
  • Myalgia and arthralgia

* Neurological signs and encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do you monitor the arbovirus outbreak

A 
Monitoring:
Disease in vertebrate host
Antibody in vertebrate host
Presence of vector
Presence of virus in vector
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a good indicator whether a place is safe

A

Presence of vector
Presence of virus in vector
before arriving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes Bluetongue
African Horse Sickness
Equine Encephalosis

A

Genus

Orbivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does blue tongue infect

A

Disease of sheep, cattle and goats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the clinical signs of blue tongue

A

Hyperaemia of oral and buccal cavities (salivation / frothy mouth)
Nasal discharge (serous – mucopurulent – blood flecked)
Cyanosis of the tongue
Hyperaemia of the coronary bands
Oedema (head and neck)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why was it hard to cure blue tongue

A

there are 25 setypes of bluetongue, and are different virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the control for bluetongue

A

Vaccination programmes
Monitoring schemes: Vector and host surveillance
Live attenuated vaccines are available and used overseas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the reservoir host of african horse sickness

A

horses

37
Q

What are African Horse Sickness

A

Peracute pulmonary form:
Nasal discharge progressing to respiratory distress and often 100% mortality
difficult to breath due to oedema

38
Q

What is the definition of infection

A

entry and development or
multiplication of an infectious agent in the
body.

39
Q

What is the definition of disease(infectious)

A

clinical and/or

pathological manifestation of infection

40
Q

What is anthroponosis

A

from infected humans [farmers, owners, veterinarians…] to

animals

41
Q

What is the Basis of host specificity

A

• Presence/absence of Host receptors for
colonisation; presence/absence of Pathogen
adhesion systems or other virulence factors
• Persistence within tissues, macrophages, and
translocation
• Frequency of contact between different host
species or mode of contamination
• Host-specific immune responses

42
Q

What is the difference between Salmonella Gallinarum vs. Salmonella Dublin in
experimentally infected calves

A

– Dublin and Gallinarum are both able to colonize
and invade bovine intestines, BUT…
– Dublin persists within the mucosa and tranlocates
in lymph more than other serovars

43
Q

Major cause of antibiotic resistance in human pathogens

A 
is the (over) use of
antibiotics in humans rather than animals.
44
Q

Where does Enterotoxinogenic E. coli (ETEC) fimbriae colonise

A

– Colonise the intestine and cause diarrhoea

toxins

45
Q

Is virtually all animal-derived human pathogens arose from

pathogens of other warm-blooded vertebrates

A

yes

46
Q

What increases the Probability of cross-species infection

A
  • abundance of the existing donor host
  • frequency of encounters with donor host
  • phylogenetic distance between the hosts
  • pathogen variability
47
Q

How many percent of the zoonotic pathogen do not persist

A

• approx. 25% do not persist in humans without

repeated reintroductions from animals

48
Q

What is 1: agent
only in
animals type of transmissibility

A

Not zoonotic

49
Q

2: primary

infection

A

None, only from

animals

50
Q

3: limited

outbreak

A

From animals or
humans (few
cycles)

51
Q

4: long

outbreak

A

From animals or
humans (many
cycles)

52
Q

5: exclusive
human
agent

A

Only from

humans

53
Q

What evolution does Yesinia pestis have

A
  • Lost genes encoding urease, toxic for fleas

* Gained genes helping flea gut colonisation

54
Q

What is one disease that is anthroponotic

A

S. aureus infection in broiler

chickens

55
Q

What does ELISA detect

A

antibodies

56
Q

What can serum component do

A 
• Neutralize toxins
• Agglutinate bacteria
• Precipitate toxins
• Lyse bacteria (with assistance of
complement)
57
Q

What are antibodies produced by

A

B cells

58
Q

What does antibodies recognise

A

recognise antigens in a specific way

59
Q

What is the basic structure of antibody

A

2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

60
Q

What is an epitope

A

An epitope is a part of an antigen that is recognised by

immune system

61
Q

What is a paratope

A

A paratope is the part of the antibody binding the antigen
√ The paratopes is defined by a combination of the variable
region of the heavy and light chains of the antibody

62
Q

Where can B cell epitopes be accessed?

A

B cell epitopes are

accessible from the outside

63
Q

Where are B cell epitope located

A 
– Exposed on the surface of the
cell
• Antibodies are hydrophilic and
water soluble
• Antibodies can not pass
through the plasma membrane
64
Q

What does the choice of isotype depend on

A

– Depends on cytokine environment

– Depends on type of T cell help provided

65
Q

What is the full name for ELISA

A

ELISA = Enzyme-Liked Immuno-Sorbent Assay

66
Q

What is are the steps for indirect

A
  1. Antigen - coated well
  2. Add specific antibody to be measured
  3. add enzyme-conjugated secondary antibody
  4. Add substrate (S) and measure color
67
Q

What are the steps for sandwich ELISA

A
  1. Antibody-coated well
  2. Add antigen
  3. Add enzyme-conjugated secondary antibody
  4. Add substrate and measure color
68
Q

What is the meaning indirect of captured antigen

A

– Often using a detection antibody and an antibody to the
detection antibody (i.e. indirect detection)
– Amplification (several enzyme linked antibodies bind to 1
detection antibody)
– Capture antibody and detection antibody MUST be different
• Different species
• Different isotypes

69
Q

Why is indirect detection flexible

A

– Increased flexibility (only needs one enzyme linked reagent

70
Q

What is streptavidin

A

– Very strong binding to biotin
– Increased flexibility
• Can be bound to fluorescent molecule (FITC)
• Can be bound to enzyme for ELISA
– One streptavidin molecule can bind 4 biotin molecules and
several enzymes can be bound to one stretavidin molecule
• Amplification

71
Q

What is sandwich ELISA

A

• Epitope recognised by the capture and detection Ab
needs to be different
• Capture Ab needs to be relatively pure as the binding
to the ELISA plate is by adsorption and this non-specific

72
Q

What is the difference between IgG and IgM

A

IgM is the first stage of the antibody, or the first time it was affected

73
Q

What is class switch

A

changing from IgM to IgG

74
Q

Is class reversible

A

Class switch is irreversible

75
Q

How many antibodies does one be cell produce

A

one, epitope

76
Q

How to immortalise b cells

A

Thymidine Kinase (TK)
mutant method
Thydmidine: rescue of nucleotide synthesis pathway

77
Q

Why cancer cell can never die

A

Cancer cell has a mutation in the Thymidine Kinase gene (TK-) to achieve this.

78
Q

What does aminopterin do

A

blocks pathways for synthesis of nucleotides

79
Q

How help to cancer cell survive in HAT

A

In the presence of hypoxanthine

and thymidine a rescue pathway exists provided that thymidine kinase (TK) and HGPRT enzymes are present.

80
Q

How to select TK- myeloma cells

A

– Myeloma cells are naturally TK+
– To make TK- myeloma cells culture in presence of
bromodeoxyuridine
– The bromodeoxyuridine gets incorporated into the
DNA and kills the cells only TK- cells survive

81
Q

How to select Ab negative myelomas

A

Myeloma cells used for fusion are derived from B
cells and normally make their own antibodies
– This would result in mixed Ab secretion (native Ab of
fusion partner, native Ab of spleen cells and mixed
Ab with different specificity)
– Need to select for H and L chain negative mutants so
that only native Ab of spleen cells are remaining

82
Q

What is the diagnostic application of monoclonal antibodies

A

Detection of specific proteins
• Detection of specific small molecule (i.e. competitive dip-stick test)
– Detection of antibiotic in milk

83
Q

what is the use of PCR

A

It’s a quick, easy way to create copies

of DNA from a small starting input

84
Q

What is the annealing temperature

A

5 degree different from the melting temperature oh primer(lower)

85
Q

What is the effect of MgCl2 in PCR

A

• Cofactor of DNA polymerase

86
Q

what can high Mg2 concentration cause

A

increase PCR yield but

decrease the specificity of the reaction

87
Q

What can low Mg2 concentration cause

A

Lower Mg2+ concentrations increase specificity, but

decrease yield.

88
Q

What differs Conventional PCR vs qPCR

A 
qPCR  Uses non-specific DNA binding dyes
(SYBR GREEN)
2. Uses labelled probe that binds
between forward and reverse primers
(Taqman)
89
Q

What is Cycle threshold (CT

)

A

– The cycle number at which the

signal crosses the threshold line.

Biotechnology disease (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions