Lecture 4: Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

How many bones are in the adult human body?

A

206

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2
Q

What are the two types of tissues of the skeletal system?

A

Bone and Cartilage

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3
Q

What are the two types of bones?

A

Compact (outer layer) and Concellous (spongy, inner layer)

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4
Q

What are the two types of bone cells?

A

Osteoclasts and osteoblasts

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5
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Cells that dissolve old, damaged bone tissue so it can be replaced with new, healthier cells

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6
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

Cells that form new bones and growth to existing bone tissue

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7
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A
  • provides structural support and protection for internal organs
  • stores minerals such as calcium and phosphorus
  • produces blood cells in the bone marrow
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8
Q

What are some congenital and hereditary disorders of the skeletal system?

A
  • spina bifida
  • osteopetrosis
  • osteogenesis imoerfecta
  • achondroplasia
  • congenital hip dysplasia
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9
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

A congenital condition where the spinal column doesn’t close completely during fetal development

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10
Q

What are the 3 types of spina bifida?

A
  • Occulta
  • Meningocele
  • Meningomyelocele (open spina bifida)
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11
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

A

The mildest form of spina bifida, which results in a small gap in the vertebra without a visible sac

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12
Q

What is spina bifida with meningocele?

A

When a sac of CSF protrudes through the spin cord opening, but the spinal cord remains unaffected

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13
Q

What is spina bifida with miningomyelocele?

A

The most severe form of spina bifida when a sac of CSF, the spinal cord and meninges protrude through an opening in the spine

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14
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

A rare hereditary bone dysplasia in which defective osteoclasts prevent the resorptive mechanism of bones making them very dense

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15
Q

What is another name of osteopetrosis?

A

Marble bone since the bones are highly calcified

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16
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

A hereditary disorder of connective tissue that results in multiple bone fractures and blue color of the sclera of the eyes

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17
Q

What is another name for osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Brittle bone disease

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18
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

The most common form of dwarfism that results from impaired cartliage development

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19
Q

What is achondroplasia characterized by?

A

Short limps with a normal acial skeleton

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20
Q

What is congenital hip dysplasia/dislocation?

A

Incomplete formation of the acetabulum which leads to hip dislocation

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21
Q

What are inflammatory/infectious disorders of the skeletal system?

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Bursitis
  • Rotator cuff tears/meniscus tears
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22
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

A chronic inflammatory disease affecting the small joints

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23
Q

What are the RA variants?

A
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Reactive arthritis
  • Psoriatic arthritis
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24
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

A type of RA that primarily affects the spine, causing the joints between the vertebra and SI joints to be inflammed

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25
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis also known as?

A

Bamboo spine

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26
Q

What is reactive arthritis?

A

A type of inflammatory arthritis that develops as a reaction to an infection elsewhere in the body

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27
Q

What are the causes of Reactive arthritis?

A

Chlamydia and STI’s

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28
Q

What are the sumptoms of Reactive arthritis?

A

Joint pain and swelling, typically 2-6 weeks after the initial STI infection

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29
Q

What is reactive arthritis also known as?

A

Reiters syndrome

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30
Q

What is psoriatic arthritis?

A

A chronic inflammatory condition that affects the joints and the skin

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31
Q

What is Osteomyelitis?

A

Bone infection caused by bacteria that commonly affects the long bones

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32
Q

What are the two types of osteomyelitis?

A
  • Bacterial osteomyelitis
  • Tuberculous osteomyelitis
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33
Q

What is bacterial osteomyelitis?

A

Inflammation of the bone and marrow casued by infectious organisms, typically staph infections

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34
Q

What is tuberculous osteomyelitis?

A

Bone infections of the T and L spine also known as Pott’s disease

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35
Q

What is bursitis?

A

Inflammation of the small fluid sacs located near the joints that reduce the friction caused by movement

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36
Q

What is bursitis usually caused by?

A

Repeated physical activity, trauma, rheumatoid arthritis, gout or infections

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37
Q

What are rotator cuff tears?

A

A tear in the musculotendinous structure of the shoulder

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38
Q

What is the modality of choice to diagnose bursitis?

A

MRI

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39
Q

What are metabolic bone diseases?

A
  • osteoporosis
  • osteomalacia/rickets
  • gout
  • paget’s disease
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40
Q

What is osteporosis?

A

Decreaed bone mass that causes the bone to become porous and break easily

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41
Q

What are the causes of osteoporosis?

A

Aging and postmenopausal hormonal changes

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42
Q

How should kVp be altered when imaging osteoporosis?

A

A lower kVp

43
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton that causes softening of the bone and bowing

44
Q

What is osteomalacia caused by?

A

An inadequate intake or absorption of calcium

45
Q

What is rickets?

A

The childhood form of osteomylacia that causes the softening of bones due to vitamin deficiency

46
Q

What are the 3 classifications of rickets?

A
  • bowing in the thighs
  • bowing in the knees
  • knock knees
47
Q

How are osteomalacia and rickets treated?

A

Through vitamin D therapy

48
Q

What is gout?

A

A disorder in the metabolism of purine which increases the uric acid in the blood and leads to deposits of uric acid crystals on the joints

49
Q

How does gout manifest?

A

As painful arthritis that attacks a single joint, 1st MSP joint

50
Q

What is paget disease?

A

An abnormal bone remodeling also known as osteitis deformans

51
Q

What is an associated risk of paget’s disease?

A

Osteosarcoma later in life

52
Q

What are the symptoms of paget’s disease?

A

Bone pain, bone deformities, fractures, joint pain and hearing loss

53
Q

What are types of bone tumors?

A
  • benign tumors
  • malignant tumors
  • bone metastases
54
Q

What are types of benign bone tumors?

A
  • Osteochondroma
  • Enchondroma
  • Giant cell tumor (osteclastoma)
  • Osteoma
55
Q

What is osteochondroma also known as?

56
Q

What is Osteochondrom/Exostosis?

A

A benign projection of bone with a cartilagenous cap that arises in childhood

57
Q

Where do osteochondroma/exostosis normally appear?

A

Near the knee

58
Q

What are characteristics of osteochondroma?

A
  • Long axis of the tumor runs parallel to the bone shaft
  • points away from the nearest joint
59
Q

What is Enchondroma?

A

A low growing benign cartilaginous tumor that arises in the medullary canal

60
Q

Where does Enchondroma usually present?

A

in small bones of the hands and feet

61
Q

How are enchondroma found?

A

When imaging fractures that occur with minimal force

62
Q

What are giant cell tumors (osteoclastoma)?

A

Tumors that arise athe ent end of the distal femur or proximal tibia of young adults

63
Q

What is osteoma?

A

Tumors that arise in the outer table of the skull, paranasal sinus and the madible that are painful

64
Q

What are types of malignant bone tumors?

A
  • Osteosarcoma
  • Chondrosarcoma
  • Ewing’s sarcoma
  • Multiple myeloma
65
Q

What is osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma)?

A

A malignant tumor of osteoblasts that generally appear at the end of long bones in the metaphysis

66
Q

What group of people do osteogenic sarcomas appear in?

A

Most common in people between the age of 10-25

67
Q

What is Chrondrosarcoma?

A

A malignant tumor that originates from a pre-existing cartilaginous lesion (osteochondroma or enchondroma)

68
Q

Where do chondrosarcoma typically originate?

A

In ribs, scapula or vertebra

69
Q

When do chondrosarcoma develop?

A

Later in age and grow slowly/metastasize later

70
Q

What is Ewing sarcoma?

A

A type of cancer that begins as a growth of cells in the bone and soft tissue around the bone

71
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

A widespread malignancy of the plasma cells

72
Q

What are multiple myeloma associated with?

A

Bone destruction, bone marrow failure, hypercalcemia, renal failure and recurrent infections

73
Q

What group of people do multiple myeloma affect?

A

Persons between 40-70

74
Q

What is bone metastases?

A

The most common malignant bone tumorH

75
Q

How do bone metastases spread?

A

From primary tumors by means of the bloodstream or lymphatic vessels

76
Q

What are typical sites of metastic spread?

A

Bones containing red bone marrow, spine, pelvis, ribs, skull and upper ends of humerus/femur

77
Q

What are complete fractures?

A

Fracture that results in two bone fragments

78
Q

What are incomplete fractures?

A

Fracture where one side is broken but the cortex is intact

79
Q

What is an open fracture?

A

Compound fracture where there is an associated skin wound

80
Q

What is a closed fracture?

A

Fracture with the skin intact

81
Q

What are the types of bone fractures?

A
  • Transverse
  • Oblique
  • Spinral
  • Communinuted
  • Greenstick
  • Stress
82
Q

What is a transverse fracture?

A

Fracture line that is horizontal to the long axis of a bone

83
Q

What is an Oblique fracture?

A

A fracture line that extends at an angle to the long axis of a bone

84
Q

What is spiral fracture?

A

Fracture line that encircles the shaft of a bone

85
Q

What is a communinuted fracture?

A

More than two bone fragments

86
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

Occurs in immature bone where one side of cortex remains intact

87
Q

What is a stress fracture?

A

Response of bone to repeated streessors none of which alone would cause a fracture, but combined will

88
Q

What are common fractures?

A
  • Colles’ (wrist)
  • Boxer’s (hand)
  • Jones (foot)
  • Monteggia (forearm)
  • Galeazzi (radius/ulna)
89
Q

What is a Colles fracture?

A

A transverse fracture through the distal radius (wrist)

90
Q

What is a Boxer’s fracture?

A

Transverse fracture of the neck of the 5th metacarpal oftne caused by hittin an object with a closed fist

91
Q

What is a Monteggia fracture?

A

Fracture in the ulnar shaft (forearm) associated with anterior dislocation of the radius at the elbow

92
Q

What is Galeazzi fracture?

A

A fracture of the radial shaft and rosal disloation of the ulna at the wrist

93
Q

What is a Jones fracture?

A

Transverse fracture of the 5th metatarsal bone (foot)

94
Q

What are the two classifications of spinal fractures?

A

Stable and unstable

95
Q

What is a stable spine fracture?

A

Where one of the two major columns of the spine are intact

96
Q

What is an unstable spine fracture?

A

Both major columns of the spine are disrupted

97
Q

What are the types of spinal fractures?

A
  • Jefferson
  • Hangman’s
  • Odontoid
  • Clay Shovler’s
98
Q

What is a Jefferson fracture?

A

Communited fracture of C1

99
Q

What is an Odontoid fracture?

A

Fracture at the base of the dens

100
Q

What is a Hangman’s fracture?

A

Fracture of C2 arch with sublucation of C2-C3

101
Q

What is a clay shoveler’s fracture?

A

An avulsion fracture of a spinous process in the lower C spine or upper T spine

102
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

Where small fragments of are pulled away from bone by attached ligaments

103
Q

What is spondylosis?

A

A cleft in the pars interarticulars of the vertebra without displacement that is very painful and can lead to small stress fractures or cracks

104
Q

What site is spondylosis most common?