Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbio Exam 2 > Lecture 15 - Chapter 18 - Diseases of the Skin and Eye > Flashcards

Lecture 15 - Chapter 18 - Diseases of the Skin and Eye Flashcards

1
Q

skin swelling over the pore leading out of a hair follicle

A

comedo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A mass of sebum and dead cells trapping pores associated with hair follicles

A

acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a comedo with a closed pore

A

“Whitehead”:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a comedo with a pore open to the surface of the skin

A

“Blackhead”:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

based on signs and symptomss

A

anatomical diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

identifying the causative agent

A

etiological diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a lesion that has erupted on the surface

A

pustule or papule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pustules that come to involve deeper layers of skin

A

cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

widespread cysts

A

cystic acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A superficial bacterial infection that causes the skin to flake or peel off.

A

impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what disease is caused by either staphylococcus aureus or streptococcus pyogenes or a mix of these two

A

impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

primary victims of impetigo

A

children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • Causes many types of infections
  • Gram-+ coccus that forms grape-like clusters
  • Metabolically versatile
  • Produces exfoliative toxins A & B, coagulase, hyaluronidase, staphylokinase, DNase, and lipases
  • With stand high salt in medium
  • Can ferment mannitol
  • Mannitol salt agar is differntial and selective for S. aureus growth
A

impetigo - staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

impetigo test for S. aureus

A

coagulase test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

positive coagulase test

A

plasma clots or becomes lumpy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  • causes strep throat, scarlet fever, puerperal fever, necrotizing fasciitis, bloodstream infections, and rheumatic fever
  • Gram-positive coccus, beta-hemolytic
  • Adhesive elements: LTA, M protein, hyaluronic acid capsule
  • Produces hyaluronidase
A

impetigo - streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnosed by visual inspection, but symptoms alone won’t distinguish S. aureus and S. pyogenes

A

impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

antibiotics used to treat both types of impetigo

A
  • topical mupirocin (Bactroban)

- protein synthesis inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Caused by a fast-spreading infection in the dermis and subcutaneous tissues.

A

cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  • Usually follows the introduction of bacteria or fungi into the dermis through trauma or no obvious break in the skin
  • lower leg
  • People with immunocompromise or who have cardiac insufficiency are most at risk
  • Pain tenderness, swelling and warmth.
  • Fever and swelling of the lymph nodes in the area may be observed along with red lines leading away from the affected area
A

cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dermolytic condition caused by S. aureus.

A

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  • A systemic form of impetigo
  • Phage-encoded exfoliative toxins are responsible for symptoms
  • Develops predominately in newborns and infants, can spread when sharing a nursery with a newborn who is colonized with S. aureus.
A

SSSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  • Caused by exfoliative toxins A and B
  • Have the appearance of wrinkled tissue paper
  • Lead to widespread desquamation of the skin
  • Patients are left vulnerable to secondary bacterial infections
A

bullous lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  • caused by a reaction to antibiotics, barbiturate or other drugs
  • high mortality rate
A

TEN - toxic epidermal necrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

split between the dermis and epidermis

A

TEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

split is within the epidermis

A

SSSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clostridium perfringens

  • Gram positive
  • Endospore forming
  • Anaerobic
A

gas gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  • Endospores are found in soil, human skin, human intestine and vagina
  • Anaerobic conditions are required to manufacture and release the toxins that cause disease
A

gas gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Exotoxins produced by C. perfringens:

  • Alpha toxin: causes red blood cell rupture, edema, tissue damage
  • Collagenase
  • Hyaluronidase
  • DNase
A

gas gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

treatment of gas gangrene

A 
Immediate & rigorous cleaning
Surgery to remove infected and dead tissue 
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Amputation
Clindamycin + penicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Two diseases that present as generalized rashes all over the body in which individual lesions contain fluid.
“Pox”
Chickenpox
Smallpox

A

vesicular or pustular rash diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  • mild disease.
  • resolve in 2 – 3 weeks
  • Some experience secondary infections
  • 20% mortality rate in immunocompromised people
  • 0.1% of cases are followed by encephalopathy
  • Vaccine available for infants 12 – 15 months and children 4 – 6 years
A

chickenpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A reactivation of HHV-3 after a chickenpox infection.

A

shingles

34
Q
  • Virus goes into latency in the ganglia of the thoracic and trigemminal nerves
  • Presents with asymmetrical lesions on the trunk or head
  • Develops after psychological stress, X-ray treatments, immunosuppressive drugs, surgery, or developing malignancy
  • Attenuated vaccine recommended for adults
A

shingles

35
Q

causative agent of shingles

A

human herpesvirus 3 (varicella virus) an enveloped DNA virus

36
Q

treatment of shingles

A

no treatment other than alleviation of discomfort, vaccines are now available

37
Q
  • Still considered a biological terror threat
  • Progress of rash: macular, papular, vesicular, and finally pustular
  • Leaves serious scar tissue
A

smallpox

38
Q

two forms of small pox

A

various major and minor

39
Q

highly virulent, leading to toxemia, shock, and intravascular coagulation

A

variola major

40
Q

rash is less sense and patients experience weaker symptoms

A

variola minor

41
Q

causative agent of smallpox

A

various virus (orthopoxvirus) - enveloped DNA virus, can survive outside of the host for long periods of time

42
Q

Flat to slightly raised colored bump

A

maculopapular rash diseases

43
Q

types of maculopapular rash diseases

A 
Measles
Rubella
Fifth disease
Roseola
Scarlet fever
44
Q

causative agent of measles

A

Morbillivirus genus in the Paramyxovirus family

Single stranded RNA viurs

45
Q
  • Small number of cases develop laryngitis, bronchopneumonia, and bacterial secondary infections
  • In 6% of the cases, the virus can cause pneumonia
  • 1 in one million cases develop Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis:
A

sequelae of measles

46
Q

progressive neurological degeneration of the cerebral cortex

A

subacute sclerosis panencephalitis

47
Q
  • “German measles”
  • Causes a relatively minor rash with few complications
  • Serious damage can occur when a fetus is exposed in the womb
  • Women of childbearing years should be vaccinated well before they plan to conceive
A

rubella

48
Q

causative agent of rubella

A

rubivirus (family Togavirus)

single stranded RNA virus, with a loose envelop

49
Q

Infection in the first trimester

    • Induces miscarriage
  • – Causes multiple permanent defects in the newborn
A

congenital rubella

50
Q

Congenital defects caused by rubella

A

Deafness
Cardiac abnormalities
Ocular lesions
Mental and physical retardation

51
Q
  • Erythema infectiosum:
  • Mild disease that results in a “slapped-cheek” appearance
  • Causes low-grade fever and malaise
  • Rash may persist for weeks and recurs under stress or with sunlight
  • Can cause more serious disease in the immunocompromised
A

fifth disease

52
Q

what is fifth disease caused by

A

parvovirus B19

53
Q
  • Common in babies.
  • 70% of cases proceed with no rash
  • High fever that comes on quickly and lasts 3 days
  • Seizures may occur during this period
  • By the time the rash appears, the disease is almost over
  • 100% of the US population is infected by adulthood
A

roseola

54
Q
  • Result of a respiratory infection with Streptococcus pyogenes
  • If the strain carries a bacteriophage carrying the gene for the erythrogenic toxin, scarlet fever can result
A

scarlet fever

55
Q

Develop in nearly all individuals, children more than adults

A

papillomas

56
Q

painless, elevated rough growths on fingers and other body parts

A

seed warts

57
Q

deep, painful papillomas on the soles of the feet

A

plantar warts

58
Q

smooth, skin colored lesions that develop on the face, trunk, elbows, and knees

A

flat warts

59
Q
  • Smooth, waxy nodules on the face, trunk and limbs.
  • May be indented in the middle and contain a milky fluid
  • Highest incidence in certain regions of the Pacific Islands
  • Children: face, arms, legs, and trunk
  • Adults: genital area
  • Immunocompromised: can be disfiguring and more widespread on the body
A

molluscum contagiosum

60
Q

Zoonosis transmitted by female sand flies

A

leishmaniasis

61
Q

Localized infection of the capillaries of the skin

Found in the Mediterranean, African, and Indian regions

A

cutaneous leishmaniasis

62
Q

affects both skin and mucous membrane

A

mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

63
Q
  • Most common and least dangerous infection caused by Bacillus anthracis
  • Forms a black eschar when endospores enter the skin and germinate there
A

cutaneous anthrax

64
Q

Mycoses strictly confined to nonliving epidermal tissues and their derivatives

A

dermatophytes

65
Q

cutaneous mycoses/dermatophytes

A

ringworm

66
Q

derives from the erroneous belief that these infections were caused by worms

A

tinea

67
Q
  • Involve the outer epidermal surface.

- Innocuous infections with cosmetic rather than inflammatory effects

A

superficial mycoses

68
Q

Malassezia

Causes mild, chronic scaling that interferes with melanocytes

A

tine versicolor

69
Q

other conditions of Superficial Mycoses

A

folliculitis
psoriasis
seborrheic dematitis

70
Q
  • Exposed to the environment
  • Thin membrane-like tissue that covers the eye and lines the eyelids
  • Secretes an oil- and mucus-containing fluid that lubricates and protects the surface of the eye
A

conjunctiva

71
Q
  • Exposed to the environment
  • Dome-shaped central portion of the eye lying over the iris
  • Five to six layers of epithelial cells that can regenerate quickly if superficially damaged
  • “The windshield of the eye
A

cornea

72
Q
  • Reduced innate immunity of the eye to protect vision
  • B and T cell response in the eye is reduced
  • Anterior chamber is largely cut off from blood supply
  • Lymphocytes that gain access to the eye are less active than elsewhere in the body
A

immune privilege

73
Q

A relatively common infection of the conjunctiva.

A

conjunctivitis

74
Q

milky discharge

A

bacterial infection

75
Q

clear exudate

A

viral infection

76
Q

copious amounts of clear fluid

A

allergic response

77
Q

Chronic infection of the epithelial cells of the eye caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
Major cause of blindness around the world

A

ocular trachoma

78
Q
  • Can lead to complete corneal destruction
  • Can be caused by any microorganism after trauma to the eye
  • HSV-1: misdirected activation of oral herpes
    Acanthamoeba keratitis:
A

keratitis

79
Q

Amoeba found in tap water and freshwater lakes

Frequent infection in contact lens wearers

A

acanthamoeba keratitis

80
Q
  • Chronic parasitic infection.
  • Worm: Onchocerca volvulus transmitted by black flies
  • Microfilariae migrate through the bloodstream to the eyes
  • Wolbachia infections inside the worm contribute to the damage in human tissues
A

river blindness

Microbio Exam 2 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions