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Clinical Bacteriology > LEC: Infection > Flashcards

LEC: Infection Flashcards

1
Q

infection and immunity involves interaction between the ____________ and _____________

A

between the body of the host and the infecting microorganism

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2
Q

microorgnisms can be classified according to their relationship with the _________ and ___________

A

environment and their host

``

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3
Q

these are free living microbes that live and thrive on dead or decaying organic matter

A

saprophytes

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4
Q

the term “saprophytes” come from what greek words

A

“sapros” = decayed, “phyton” = plant

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5
Q

these organisms typically have little importance to human diseases

A

saprophytes

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6
Q

organisms that have little relevance in infectious diseases

A

saprophytes

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7
Q

organisms that are commonly found in soil and water

A

saprophytes

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8
Q

right now, these organisms are being studied among immunocompromised patients, which makes them an opportunistic pathogens

A

saprophytes

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9
Q

microorganisms that are also called as “normal or usual flora’”

A

commensal

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10
Q

the live and thrive within the host but they do not cause harm nor benefit from their host

A

commensal

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11
Q

these microorganisms are mostly found inside the body

A

commensal

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12
Q

these microrganisms live in complete harmony with their host

A

commensal

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13
Q

Pathogen is derived from what greek words

A

“pathos” = disease
“gen” = produce

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14
Q

there is a wide variety of clinically important pathogens; some of which are what

A

bacteria, fungi, viruses, and parasites.

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15
Q

it is the ability of the pathogen to cause disease

A

pathogenicity

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16
Q

the degree or level of their pathogenicity

A

virulence

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17
Q

it describes how easy a microorganism can cause disease and how fatal the infection would be

A

virulence

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18
Q

the 2 main types of pathogens

A
  • primary (frank) pathogen
  • opportunistic pathogens
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19
Q

these are type of microorganisms that can cause disease to an individual regardless of their immune condition

A

primary (frank) pathogens

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20
Q

these causes disease to previously health individuals

A

primary (frank) pathogens

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21
Q

these microorganisms are known to cause infectious diseases even if the immune system is intact

A

primary (frank) pathogens

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22
Q

they rarely cause disease to healthy individuals

A

opportunistic pathogens

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23
Q

they are known to only cause disease to individuals with impaired or compromised immune system

A

opportunistic pathogens

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24
Q

is defined as the bodily invasion of microorganisms which involve replication of the agent within the host.

A

infection

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25
Q

is defined as the bodily invasion of microorganisms which involve replication of the agent within the host.

A

infection

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26
Q

In most cases though, __________________ agents result in the damage to the host tissues and organs.

A

multiplication of the microbial

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27
Q

Initial infection of an organisms in the host Initial infection of an organisms in the host

A

primary infection

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28
Q

some ________ can be an opportunists, Such happens when the immune defense system of the host is compromised and the normal flora takes over and gets out of control.

A

normal flora

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29
Q

Subsequent infections by the same organism in the host

A

Reinfections

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30
Q

When the host has recovered from the primary infection and got infected again by the same agent, it is called _________________.

A

reinfection

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31
Q

When a new agent sets up an infection in a host whose resistance is lowered by a preexisting infectious disease,

A

Secondary infection

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32
Q

Apart from the cell and tissue damage caused by a primary infection, it may also exhaust and weaken the host’s immune system. This gives other agents or microorganisms a chance to establish their own infection. This is classified as what type of infection?

A

Secondary infection

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33
Q

an infection that is confined in one area or part of the body

A

local infection

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34
Q

give an example of local infection

A

infected wound

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35
Q

This is in direct contrast with systematic or generalized infection

A

local infection

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36
Q

an infection where the microbes have spread throughout the body through the blood or lymph

A

Systematic infection

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37
Q

Cross-infections occurring in hospitals are called

A

Nosocomial infections

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38
Q

type of infection that is acquired at a healthcare facility and are best controlled through hand washing to avoid spread.

A

nosocomial infection

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39
Q

Contributing factors to nosocomial infections include

A
  • wide variety of microbes present in hospital environments
  • the constant presence of immunocompromised patients
  • possible direct transmission from healthcare workers to patients and from patients to other patients.
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40
Q

refers to physician induced infections resulting from investigative, therapeutic or other procedures.

A

iatrogenic infection

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41
Q

this infection is a result of medical treatment or procedures.

A

iatrogenic infection

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42
Q

Urinary tract infection due to cathetherization and wound infection following blood collection are prime examples of what type of infection

A

iatrogenic infection

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43
Q

a type of infection where clinical effects are not apparent

A

inapparent infection

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44
Q

it is often used as a synonym to inapparent infection.

A

subclinical infection

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45
Q

this type of infection refer to the proliferation of organisms in a host in which there are no apparent signs or symptoms.

A

Inapparent or subclinical infections

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46
Q

this type of infection is one in which the typical or characteristic clinical manifestations of the particular infectious disease are not present

A

atypical infection

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47
Q

Some organisms, following infection, may remain in the tissues in a hidden form proliferating and producing clinical disease when the host resistance is lowered. This is termed _____________.

A

latent infection

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48
Q

There are cases where an organism is present inside the body of the host but is dormant and inactive where it presents no noticeable disease or illness. what infection

A

latent infection

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49
Q

Human source infections are transmitted through:

A

o Airborne transmission
o Direct contact
o Through infected materials (Fomites)

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50
Q

Most common source of infection for human beings is ___________________

A

human beings themselves.

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51
Q

it is person who harbors the microorganisms without suffering from any ill effect` because of it.

A

carrier

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52
Q

An individual who has recovered from the infectious disease but continues to harbor large numbers of pathogen.

A

Convalescent carrier

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53
Q

is an individual who harbors the pathogen but is not ill.

A

A healthy carrier

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54
Q

is an individual who is incubating the pathogen in large numbers but is not yet ill.

A

incubatory carrier

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55
Q

Individual that does not have signs or symptoms because the disease is still in its incubation phase but are still capable of spreading the infection.

A

incubatory carrier

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56
Q

Convalescent, healthy, and incubatory carriers may harbor the pathogen for only a brief period (hours, days, or weeks) and lasts less than six months.

A

Temporary carriers

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57
Q

They harbor the pathogen for long periods (months, years, or life).

A

chronic carriers

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58
Q

The term ______________ is applied to a person who acquires the pathogen from a patient

A

contact carrier

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59
Q

This refers to a carrier who acquires the pathogens from another carrier.

A

Paradoxical carrier

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60
Q

Many pathogens are capable of causing infections in both human beings and animals. Therefore, animals may act as a source of infection of such organisms. These, animals serve to maintain the parasite in nature and act as reservoir and they are, therefore, called

A

reservoir hosts

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61
Q

The diseases and infections, which are transmissible to man from animals are called

A

zoonosis

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62
Q

defined as a disease of animals that is transmitted to humans.

A

Zoonosis or zoonotic infection

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63
Q

Anthrax, brucellosis, Q fever, leptospirosis, bovine tuberculosis, bubonic plague, Salmonella food poisoning.

A

bacterial (Zoonotic Diseases)

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64
Q

Rabies, yellow fever, cowpox, monkeypox.

A

viral (Zoonotic Diseases)

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65
Q

Leishmaniasis, toxoplasmosis, trypanosomiasis, babesiosis.

A

protozoal (Zoonotic Diseases)

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66
Q

Echinococcosis, taeniasis, trichinellosis.

A

helminthic (zoonotic diseases)

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67
Q

Microsporum canis, Trichophyton verru- cosum

A

fungal (zoonotic diseases)

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68
Q

zoonotic infection that is transmitted through bites of rabid animals to hosts

A

Rabies

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69
Q

disease caused by a spirochete bacteria, often acquired by the exposure of broken skin with the urine of an infected animal.

A

leptospirosis

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70
Q

As the insects that transmit this infections are called vectors, they are referred to as _____________ or _____________ diseases.

A

vector-borne or arthropod-borne diseases

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71
Q

Blood-sucking insects, such as mosquitos, ticks, mites, flies, and lice may transmit pathogens to human beings and diseases so caused are called _______________

A

arthropod-borne diseases.

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72
Q

Besides acting as vectors, some insects may also act as _____________ (for example, ticks in relapsing fever and spotted fever).

A

reservoir hosts

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73
Q

Insects that transmit infections are called ________

A

vectors

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74
Q

this type of transmission can be of two types either mechanical (external) or biological (internal).

A

vector-borne

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75
Q

a type of vector in which the disease agent is transmitted mechanically by the arthropod.

A

mechanical vector

76
Q

Those that carry microorganisms through their feet and mouth parts and proceed to infect hosts when they land on food, mucous membranes, or open wounds. what type of vector?

A

mechanical vector

77
Q

Prime examples are flies that carry bacteria when they land on infected materials such as feces and proceed to drop this bacteria when they land on human food. what type of vector?

A

mechanical vector

78
Q

those in whom the pathogens multiply sufficiently or has undergone a developmental cycle. what type of vector?

A

biological vector

79
Q

Aedes aegypti mosquito in yellow fever, Anopheles mosquito in malaria are what type of vector?

A

biological vector

80
Q

Those that are used by microbes as part of their life cycle. what type of vector?

A

biological vector

81
Q

Microorganisms within __________ vectors undergo change and development until such a time that the vector itself because the source of infection.

A

biological vector

82
Q

Prime example is the parasitic infection malaria, caused by plasmodium parasites that develop inside anopheles mosquitoes. what type of vector?

A

biological vector

83
Q

Spores of ** and ** remain viable in the soil for several decades and serve as source of infection.

A

tetanus and gas gangrene

84
Q

Spores of *** can survive in the soil for long periods and when given access to the body such as through wounds may cause tetanus.

A

clostridium tetani

85
Q

Fungi (causing **, **, and ***) and parasites such as roundworms and hookworms also survive in the soil and cause human infection.

A

causing mycetoma, sporotrichosis, histoplasmosis

86
Q

*** are also known to be obtained through the soil such as when children proceed to eat without washing their hands after playing with dirt.

A

Parasitic infections

87
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Pathogens in contaminated water can also cause outbreaks of diseases.

A

true

88
Q

*** may act as the source of infection either due to contamination with pathogenic microorganisms (Shigella, Salmonella, Vibrio cholerae, poliomyelitis virus, hepatitis virus) or due the presence of aquatic vector (cyclops containing larvae of guinea worm infection)..

A

Water

89
Q

causative agent of typhoid fever

A

Salmonella

90
Q

causative agent of Cholera

A

Vibrio cholerae bacteria

91
Q

bacteria that causes traveller’s diarrhea

A

E. coli

92
Q

what enteric pathogens that are known to be transmitted through ingestion of contaminated water?

A
  • Salmonella (causative agent of typhoid fever)
  • Vibrio cholera (causative agent of Cholera)
  • pathogenic strains of E.coli (causes traveller’s diarrhea)
93
Q

What enteric pathogens are known to be transmitted through ingestion of contaminated water.

A
  • Salmonella (causative agent of typhoid fever)
  • Vibrio cholera (causative agent of Cholera)
  • pathogenic strains of E.coli (causes traveller’s diarrhea)
94
Q

** may act as source of infection of organisms causing food poisoning, gastroenteritis, diarrhea and dysentery.

A

Contaminated food

95
Q

Most of the time, such infections affect the gastrointestinal tract leading to ** and **

A

gastroenteritis and diarrhea

96
Q

Common way of transmitting infection.

A

contact

97
Q

Infection may be acquired by contact, which may be ** or **

A

direct or indirect.

98
Q

STD (sexually transmitted diseases), such as syphilis, gonorrhea, lymphogranuloma venereum, lymphogranuloma inguinale, trichomoniasis, herpes simplex type 2,hepatitis B and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) are transmitted via

A

direct contact

99
Q

Diseases transmitted by direct contact include

A
  1. STD (sexually transmitted diseases)
    - syphilis
    - gonorrhea
    - lymphogranuloma venereum
    - lymphogranuloma inguinale
    - trichomoniasis
    - herpes simplex type 2
  2. hepatitis B
  3. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
100
Q

This may include venereal disease or sexuallytransmitted infections such as gonorrhoea, syphilis,hiv, aids. (MODES OF TRANSMISSION OF INFECTION)

A

direct contact

101
Q

mode of transmission such as when a person coughs and covered his mouth with his hands and proceed to touch another person.

A

hand-to-hand transmission

102
Q

*** may be through the agency of fomites, which are inanimate objects, such as clothing, pencils or toys which may be contaminated by a pathogen from one person and act as a vehicle for its transmission to another.

A

Indirect contact

103
Q

Is a transmission that involves the source of infection an inanimate object called fomites, and a susceptible host.

A

indirect contact

104
Q

Microorganisms from the reservoir can be passed on through the *** and infect a new host.

A

fomites

105
Q

Doorknobs, clothing, and everyday objects can be classified as ***.

A

fomites

106
Q

mode of transmission that is through inhalation of respiratory droplets is a mechanisms in which respiratory infections are passed.

A

airborne transmission

107
Q

Respiratory infections, such as common cold, flu, influenza, measles, mumps, tuberculosis and whooping cough are acquired by inhalation. what mode of transmission

A

airborne transmission

108
Q

these are fine particles that are produced when respiratory secretions are aerosolized through sneezing and coughing.

A

droplet nuclei

109
Q

generally acquired by the ingestion of food or drink contaminated by pathogens. what type of infection

A

intestinal infection

110
Q

Infection transmitted by ingestion may be water borne (cholera), food borne (food poisoning o hand borne (dysentery).

A

intestinal infection

111
Q

Ingestion of contaminated food or water may result in (type of infection), therefore careful preparation is necessary to avoid outbreaks of diarrhea and possible food poisoning

A

gastrointestinal infections

112
Q

Intestinal infections are generally acquired by the ingestion of food or drink contaminated by pathogens. this belongs to what mode of transmission?

A

Ingestion

113
Q

Disease agent may be inoculated directly in to the skin or mucosa, e.g. Rabies virus deposited subcutaneously by dog bite, tetanus spores implanted in deep wounds, and arboviruses injected by insect vectors. This belongs to what mode of transmission?

A

Inoculation

114
Q

e.g. Rabies virus deposited subcutaneously by dog bite, tetanus spores implanted in deep wounds, and arboviruses injected by insect vectors. What mode of transmission is mentioned

A

inoculation

115
Q

Infection by inoculation may be *** when unsterile syringes and surgical equipment are employed.

A

iatrogenic

116
Q

A deep piercing wound is a possible way of contracting tetanus such as when a person steps on a sharp object contaminated with clostridium tetany. Reusing intravenous needles between different individuals also pose a risk. What mode of transmission?

A

Inoculation

117
Q

defined as an arthropod or any living carrier (e.g. snail) that transports an infectious agent to a susceptible individual.

A

vector

118
Q

Some pathogens are able to cross the placental barrier and reach the fetus in uterus. What mode of transmission?

A

Vertical Transmission

119
Q

Mother to child transmission is also possible inside the womb as some pathogen are able to pass through the placenta and reach the developing fetus. What mode of transmission?

A

vertical transmission

120
Q

This may have serious complications that may lead to birth defects and death of the child as in the case of rubella. What mode of transmission?

A

vertical transmission

121
Q

If meticulous care in asepsis is not taken, infections like ** and ** may sometimes be transmitted during administration of injections, lumber puncture and catheterization.

A

AIDS and hepatitis B

122
Q

These are known as iatrogenic or *** infections.

A

physician-induced infections.

123
Q

Modern methods of treatment, such as exchange transfusion, dialysis, and heart and transplant surgery have increased the possibilities for ***

A

iatrogenic infections.

124
Q

Medical procedure such as blood collection, catheterization, insertion of needles for IV contractions can also transmit or induce infection to an already deceased or immunocompromised patient. What type of infection?

A

iatrogenic or physician-induced infection

125
Q

it is the ability of a microbe to produce disease in a susceptible individual

A

pathogenicity

126
Q

Relates to the capability of an organism to cause disease to a susceptible host.

A

pathogenicity

127
Q

the relative ability of microorganism to cause disease or the degree of pathogenicity.

A

virulence

128
Q

The degree or level of pathogenicity of an organism

A

virulence

129
Q

It is usually measured based on its infective dose or the number of microorganisms needed to establish infection, the lower the infective dose the more virulent the agent is.

A

virulence

130
Q

The severity of the disease produced is also considered, the more severe and fatal the resulting infection the more virulent the microorganism.

A

virulence

131
Q

reduction of virulence

A

attenuation

132
Q

A process that reduces the infectivity of microorganisms can enter the body of the host

A

attenuation

133
Q

The first step of the infectious process is the entry of microorganism into the host by one of several ports: the respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, urogenital tract, or through skin that has been cut, punctured, or burned. What determinant of virulence

A

transmissibility

134
Q

Refers to how easy a microorganism can enter. the easier the agent is transmitted, the more virulent it can be. What determinant of virulence

A

transmissibility

135
Q

Entry to the human body can be through inhalation of respiratory droplets through broken skin, direct contact or ingestion. what determinant of virulence>

A

transmissibility

136
Q

The initial event in the pathogenesis is the attachment of the bacteria to body surfaces. what determinant of virulence

A

adhesion

137
Q

This attachment is not a chance event but a specific reaction between surface receptors on host cells and adhesive structures (ligands) on the surface of bacteria. what determinant of virulence

A

adhesion

138
Q

This attachment is not a chance event but a specific reaction between * on host cells and adhesive structures (* ) on the surface of bacteria.

A

surface receptors;

ligands

139
Q

*** may occur as organized structures, such as fimbriae or fibrillae and pilli, or as colonization factors.

A

adhesions

140
Q

are usually made of protein and are antigenic in nature.

A

adhesins

141
Q

*** with adhesins has been attempted as a method of prophylaxis in some infections.

A

specific immunization

142
Q

A microorganism must attach itself to cells and tissues of the host in order to establish infection. This happens when adhesins; the structure that mediate attachment binds to the receptors on the host cells. What determinant of virulence is mentioned?

A

adhesion

143
Q

Adhesins in bacteria include the ** and ** . Attachment by bacteria to the host cells increases its colonizing ability and may offer protection against phagocytosis

A

common pili and fimbriae

144
Q

As adhesins are protein and antigenic in nature, development of immunity from such may be an effective way of ** **

A

avoiding infection

145
Q

this signifies the ability of a pathogen to spread in the host tissues after establishing infection.

A

invasiveness

146
Q

** ** pathogens characteristically produce spreading or generalized lesions (e.g. Streptococcal septicemia following wound infection)

A

Highly invasive

147
Q

in infection caused by highly invasive pathogen

A

Streptococcal septicemia following wound infection

148
Q

** ** pathogens cause more localized lesions (e.g. staphylococcal abscess).

A

Less invasive pathogens

149
Q

A process which pathogens penetrate and colonize the tissues. This is an important factor as it determines if an organism is capable of dissemination to distant sites in the body

A

invasiveness

150
Q

** organisms can cause generalized infection, while ** organisms stay localized in the initial site or tissue

A

highly invasive; less invasive

151
Q

Some bacteria cause disease by producing toxins, of which there are two general types. what determinant of virulence?

A

toxigenicity

152
Q

*** are substances that are released by microorganisms that disrupt the normal metabolism of cells resulting to cell and tissue damage

A

Toxins

153
Q

are soluble, heat-labile proteins inactivated at 60°–80°C and diffuse readily into the surrounding medium.

A

exotoxins

154
Q

a type of toxin that are highly potent in minute amounts and include some of the most poisonous substances known.

A

exotoxins

155
Q

Treatment with *** converts exotoxin into toxoids, are thus useful in preparing vaccines.

A

formaldehyde

156
Q

Treatment with formaldehyde converts exotoxin into ***, are thus useful in preparing vaccines.

A

toxoids

157
Q

toxins that exhibit specific tissue affinity and pharmacological activities.

A

exotoxins

158
Q

toxins that are associated with specific diseases and have specific mechanisms of action.

A

exotoxins

159
Q

exotoxins are easily inactivated by **, **, and other chemicals to form immunogenic toxoids.

A

formaldehyde, iodine,

160
Q

*** are generally formed by gram- positive bacteria but may also be produced by some gramnegative organisms such as Shiga’s dysentery bacillus, cholera vibrio and enterotoxigenic E. coli.

A

exotoxins

161
Q

toxins that can be produced by either gram-positive or gramnegative bacteria which are released into the extracellular environment

A

exotoxins

162
Q

a type of toxin that has specific biologic activity against the host cells. some causes paralysis, diarrhea, or tissue damage.

A

exotoxins

163
Q

Such toxins are protein in composition and are heat sensitive which can be inactivated by increased temperature and can be detoxified with the use of formaldehyde

A

exotoxins

164
Q

These toxins are heat-stable, lipopolysaccharide (LPS) components of the outer membranes of gram negative.

A

endotoxins

165
Q

Their toxicity depends upon the component (lipid A).

A

endotoxins

166
Q

toxins that are released into the host’s circulation following bacterial cell lysis.

A

endotoxins

167
Q

They are toxic only at high doses.

A

endotoxins

168
Q

They cannot be toxoided.

A

endotoxins

169
Q

toxins that are poor antigens and weakly immunogenic.

A

endotoxins

170
Q

They do not exhibit specific pharmacological activities.

A

endotoxins

171
Q

Intravenous injections of large doses of endotoxin and massive gram-negative septicemias causes ***

A

endotoxic shock

172
Q

*** is marked by fever, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, significant fall in blood pressure, circulatory collapse and bloody diarrhea leading to death

A

endotoxic shock

173
Q

toxins that are substances found in the outer membrane and are exclusive only to gram-negative bacteria.

A

endotoxins

174
Q

The toxic activity of endotoxins come from the *** a component of the cell wall.

A

lipid

175
Q

Endotoxins are released only after ** **

A

cell lysis

176
Q

The toxicity of endotoxins consist of changes in bodily function such as ** ** ***

A

low blood pressure.

177
Q

Endotoxins also causes intravascular coagulation of blood that may result in ***.

A

bleeding

178
Q

Fever and decreased circulating white blood cells are also observed as effects of what toxins

A

endotoxins

179
Q

exotoxins: proteins,
endotoxins: ***

A

lipopolysaccharide on the outer membrane, Lipid A portion is toxic

180
Q

exotoxins: ***
endotoxins: heat-stable

A

heat-labile, inactivated at 60-80 degree Celsius

181
Q

The human body contains circulating neutrophils and macrophages that ingest foreign materials in a process called *** .

A

phagocytosis

182
Q

However microbes evolved to produce structures that *** phagocytosis.

A

inhibit

183
Q

name some bacteria that can produce a slippery mucoid capsule that prevents the phagocyte from effectively contacting the bacterium.

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Haemophilus influenzae
184
Q

these are polysaccharide coating that mask the surface structure of bacteria that is also necessary for recognition for phagocytes

A

capsules

185
Q

these prevents binding of the host antibodies to the bacterial cell

A

capsules

186
Q

other bacteria evade phagocytosis by producing specialized surface proteins such as *** on Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Streptococcal M protein

Clinical Bacteriology (9 decks)

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