lec 5 mcq Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What type of interview is designed to increase organizational productivity?
    A. Interrogation
    B. Perception-based
    C. Cognitive
    D. Job
A

→ D. Job

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2
Q
  1. What is the function of the thalamus in perception?
    A. Long-term memory storage
    B. Emotional processing
    C. Sensory relay station
    D. Language comprehension
A

→ C. Sensory relay station

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3
Q
  1. Which brain structure is primarily responsible for encoding memories?
    A. Cerebellum
    B. Hippocampus
    C. Thalamus
    D. Cortex
A

→ B. Hippocampus

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4
Q
  1. Episodic memory is first stored as:
    A. Semantic storage
    B. Permanent memory
    C. Transient storage
    D. Visual memory
A

→ C. Transient storage

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5
Q
  1. Memory retrieval involves which part of the brain?
    A. Only hippocampus
    B. Cerebral cortex and hippocampus
    C. Thalamus alone
    D. Brain stem
A

→ B. Cerebral cortex and hippocampus

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6
Q
  1. What does proactive interference refer to?
    A. Old memories interfering with new ones
    B. New memories strengthening old ones
    C. Deletion of memories
    D. Short-term memory loss
A

→ A. Old memories interfering with new ones

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7
Q
  1. What is retroactive interference?
    A. Remembering old memories in detail
    B. New information interfering with old memories
    C. Enhanced memory of past events
    D. Forgetting current tasks
A

→ B. New information interfering with old memories

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8
Q
  1. Who is the most reliable interviewee in an investigation?
    A. Bystanders
    B. ATC personnel
    C. Crew
    D. Passengers
A

→ C. Crew

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following should interviews avoid?
    A. Being scheduled ahead
    B. Closed or leading questions
    C. Being private
    D. Involving two interviewers
A

→ B. Closed or leading questions

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10
Q
  1. What is the ideal number of interviewers?
    A. One
    B. Two or more
    C. None
    D. Five
A

→ B. Two or more

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11
Q
  1. What stage of a cognitive interview involves uninterrupted storytelling?
    A. Introduction
    B. Narration
    C. Closing
    D. Review
A

→ B. Narration

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12
Q
  1. What technique enhances detail recall during probing?
    A. Use of silence
    B. Telling answers
    C. Leading questions
    D. Time limits
A

→ A. Use of silence

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13
Q
  1. Why should interviews be done ASAP?
    A. To comply with law
    B. To schedule media briefings
    C. To avoid memory fade and contamination
    D. To get emotional reactions
A

→ C. To avoid memory fade and contamination

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14
Q
  1. What helps with error detection in an interview?
    A. Closing remarks
    B. Reviewing and reading back information
    C. Introduction of participants
    D. Long gaps
A

→ B. Reviewing and reading back information

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15
Q
  1. METAR is what type of report?
    A. Forecast only
    B. Significant meteorological alert
    C. Meteorological observation report
    D. Safety update
A

→ C. Meteorological observation report

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16
Q
  1. What information does ATIS NOT include?
    A. Active runways
    B. Aircraft registration
    C. Weather observations
    D. Approaches being used
A

→ B. Aircraft registration

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17
Q
  1. What is the minimum water depth considered a “bare runway” under GRF?
    A. 10mm
    B. 5mm
    C. 3mm
    D. 1mm
A

→ C. 3mm

18
Q
  1. Which of the following weather phenomena would trigger a SIGMET?
    A. Light drizzle
    B. Clear sky
    C. Tornado activity
    D. Mild turbulence
A

→ C. Tornado activity

19
Q
  1. What is GAF used for?
    A. Forecasts for oceanic routes
    B. Graphical area forecasts
    C. Runway condition updates
    D. Fuel planning
A

→ B. Graphical area forecasts

20
Q
  1. What document provides weight and balance info?
    A. AFM
    B. FCOM
    C. CVR
    D. METAR
A

→ A. AFM

21
Q
  1. What can indicate pilot fatigue during interviews?
    A. Audio distortion
    B. Eye movement
    C. Duty/rest schedule
    D. Blood pressure
A

→ C. Duty/rest schedule

22
Q
  1. CRM aims to avoid:
    A. Engine flameout
    B. Task saturation
    C. Excess weight
    D. ATC conflict
A

→ B. Task saturation

23
Q
  1. What is cockpit gradient?
    A. Flight deck temperature
    B. Altitude difference
    C. Gradient of authority
    D. Wind correction angle
A

→ C. Gradient of authority

24
Q
  1. What is the purpose of operational flight plans?
    A. Review passenger meals
    B. Document weather and route info
    C. Record hotel accommodations
    D. Log voice recordings
A

→ B. Document weather and route info

25
Q
  1. The center of gravity is determined through:
    A. Audio recordings
    B. Simulator reports
    C. Weight and balance analysis
    D. Fuel contamination test
A

→ C. Weight and balance analysis

26
Q
  1. What does the FCOM contain?
    A. Cabin announcements
    B. Airport ground charts
    C. Procedures and limitations
    D. Passenger list
A

→ C. Procedures and limitations

27
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the QRH?
    A. Fuel consumption log
    B. Interview script
    C. Checklist for in-flight situations
    D. Maintenance history
A

→ C. Checklist for in-flight situations

28
Q
  1. SOP stands for:
    A. Safety Officer Plan
    B. Standard Operating Procedures
    C. Standard Observation Protocol
    D. Strategic Overview Plan
A

→ B. Standard Operating Procedures

29
Q
  1. Which manual contains emergency procedures?
    A. AFM
    B. METAR
    C. SIGMET
    D. CVR
A

→ A. AFM

30
Q
  1. Which aspect of CRM promotes balanced workload?
    A. Automation
    B. Simulator time
    C. Division of labor
    D. Manual log entries
A

→ C. Division of labor

31
Q
  1. What is NOT a factor in flight planning interviews?
    A. Duty time
    B. Rest periods
    C. Hair color
    D. Weather products used
A

→ C. Hair color

32
Q
  1. What is required for valid crew qualification?
    A. Crew personality profile
    B. Valid license and medical certificate
    C. Number of passengers flown
    D. Logbook color
A

→ B. Valid license and medical certificate

33
Q
  1. What could indicate crew fatigue risk?
    A. Proper sleep
    B. Excessive simulator time
    C. Extended duty schedule
    D. Light workload
A

→ C. Extended duty schedule

34
Q
  1. What data might support a fatigue claim?
    A. Hotel records
    B. Baggage claim receipts
    C. Headsets
    D. Ticket stubs
A

→ A. Hotel records

35
Q
  1. What is part of operational guidance materials?
    A. Tax records
    B. Personal diaries
    C. SOPs and checklists
    D. Ground crew photos
A

→ C. SOPs and checklists

36
Q
  1. What does ORG data focus on?
    A. Airline competition
    B. Organizational safety culture
    C. Runway length
    D. Weather types
A

→ B. Organizational safety culture

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is part of the 6 M’s?
    A. Maintenance hours
    B. Management
    C. Mood
    D. Magnetism
A

→ B. Management

38
Q
  1. What part of CRM helps avoid communication failure?
    A. Silence between crew
    B. Effective communication
    C. Single pilot decision-making
    D. Autopilot
A

→ B. Effective communication

39
Q
  1. What is a component of SMS (Safety Management System)?
    A. Flight entertainment
    B. Emergency oxygen
    C. Risk management
    D. Inflight meals
A

→ C. Risk management

40
Q
  1. What type of weather report would detail volcanic ash activity?
    A. METAR
    B. GAF
    C. SIGMET
    D. TAF
A

→ C. SIGMET