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Microbiology > Learning Objectives Study Guide > Flashcards

Learning Objectives Study Guide Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Who is responsible for the invention of the compound microscope

A

Zaccharias Janssen

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2
Q

Define microphagia

A

fruiting body of molds

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3
Q

What importance did Robert Hooke have on microbiology?

A

-first to report living things are composed to little boxes(cells)
-contributed to cell theory
-first known description of microorganisms

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4
Q

What importance did Antonie van Leeuwenhoek have in microbiology?

A

first observed “animalcules” with self made microscope

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5
Q

What two concepts did Pasteur provide?

A

-air is filled with microorganisms
-microorganisms come from other living microorganisms, thus disproving spontaneous generation

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6
Q

What processes is Pasteur responsible for?

A

fermentation & pasteurization

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7
Q

Define fermentation

A

microbial conversion of sugar to alcohol in the absence of air

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8
Q

Define pasteurization

A

bacteria responsible for food spoilage is killed by heat

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9
Q

What importance did Edward Jenner have in microbiology?

A

Jenner inoculated people with cowpox virus to protect against smallpox infection; aka vaccinations

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10
Q

Compare spontaneous generation and biogenesis?

A

spontaneous generation hypothesizes that life arises from nonliving matter; biogenesis hypothesizes that living cells arise from preexisting living cells

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11
Q

Define microbial genetics.

A

the study of how microbes inherit traits

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12
Q

Define molecular biology.

A

studies how genetic information is carried in DNA molecules

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13
Q

Define genomics

A

the study of an organism’s genes

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14
Q

Define recombinant DNA

A

DNA from two different sources

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15
Q

Define bacteriology

A

the study of bacteria

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16
Q

Define mycology

A

the study of fungi

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17
Q

Define parasitology

A

the study of protozoa

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18
Q

Define immunology

A

the study of immunity and immune system

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19
Q

Define virology

A

the study of viruses

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20
Q

What kind of microscope has made it possible to study the structure of viruses in detail?

A

electron microscopes

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21
Q

C. Woese proposed ______ ____ based on “_______ ______”

A

genetic tree; genetic tree

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22
Q

Define phylogeny

A

history of evolutionary relationships among species or groups

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23
Q

Light consists of ___________ ________ characterized by:

A

electromagnetic radiation; wave behavior; and particle(photon) energy

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24
Q

Define wavelength

A

distance between peaks

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25
Q

Define amplitude

A

height of peak/depth of trough(light intensity)

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26
Q

Define frequency

A

vibration rate per unit of time

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27
Q

What role does electromagnetic radiation play in electron microscopy?

A

Electron microscopy uses electromagnetic coils(lenses) to guide electron beam

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28
Q

Describe images of electron microscopy

A

-always black and white
-may be colored artificially

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29
Q

How does transmission electron microscopy work?

A

electromagnetic coils(lenses) are used to form an image from electrons that have passed through a very thin section of specimen

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30
Q

When using a TEM, specimens must be _________.

A

dehydrated

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31
Q

Describe the view of a transmission electron microscope

A

-detailed ultrastructure of cells and viruses
-shadow casting to predict 3D shape
-Downside: very thin specimens, non-living specimens

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32
Q

In regard to energy, small wavelengths have _____ frequency, and _____ energy

A

high; high

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33
Q

In regard to energy, long wavelengths have _____ and ____ energy.

A

low; low

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34
Q

In regard to penetration, small wavelengths have _____ penetration

A

low

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35
Q

In regard to penetration, long wavelengths have _____ penetration

A

high

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36
Q

What is resolving power(resolution)?

A

ability to tell that two separate points or objects are separate

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37
Q

Resolution increases with ________ wavelength.

A

decreases

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38
Q

Resolution ________ with decreasing wavelength

A

increases

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39
Q

How does resolution affect image visibility?

A

allows you to distinguish details of a specimen

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40
Q

What is contrast?

A

difference in light intensity between image and adjacent background

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41
Q

What is the light source of a compound microscope?

A

visible light

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42
Q

What are the two lenses of a compound microscope?

A

objective and ocular

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43
Q

What is the image produced of a compound microscope?

A

optical replica that is formed by the refraction of light

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44
Q

How does a brightfield microscope form its image?

A

when light is directed at the specimen

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45
Q

What does the image of a brightfield microscope look like?

A

the specimen with appear darker than the surrounding bright illuminated field

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46
Q

What are chromophores?

A

pigments that absorb and reflect particular wavelengths of light

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47
Q

What kinds of specimens can brightfield microscopes observe?

A

live and preserved stained specimens with fair cellular detail

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48
Q

What is the purpose of the opaque light stop in a darkfield microscope

A

blocks light besides light reflecting off specimen

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49
Q

Describe the image observed through a darkfield microscope.

A

-brightly illuminated specimen surrounded by a dark field
-good outline but no internal structures

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50
Q

What kinds of specimen can darkfield microscopes use?

A

-live and unstained cells

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51
Q

Describe the image observed through a phase contrast microscope

A

halo around image

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52
Q

What is the light source of a phase contrast microscope?

A

light condenser

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53
Q

What kinds of specimens are able to be seen using a phase contrast microscope

A

-live and unstained cells
-internal cellular detail

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54
Q

What is the light source used in differential interference microscopy?

A

two beams of light; each a different polarization

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55
Q

Describe the image seen in differential interference contrast microscopy

A

image is slight colored and has a 3D appearance

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56
Q

What kinds of specimen can be used in differential interference contrast microscopy

A

-live & unstained cells
-thick specimens
-excellent for internal cellular detail

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57
Q

What light source is used in fluorescence microscopy?

A

additional UV light source

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58
Q

Describe the image seen in fluorescent microscopy.

A

bright, neon colors with black background

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59
Q

What is fluorescent microscopy good for?

A

-identification of pathogens
-able to see subcellular location of cellular structues

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60
Q

How does a scanning electron microscope work?

A

-electron gun produces a beam of electrons that scan the surface of specimen
-secondary electrons emitted from specimen are captured and recorded

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61
Q

What can scanning electron microscopes be used for?

A

-to study surface structures of intact cells and viruses

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62
Q

What kind of image does SEM produce?

A

-detailed surface structures of intact cells and viruses
-3D

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63
Q

What kinds of specimen can be seen through a SEM

A

dehydrated, non-living specimens

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64
Q

How does atomic force microscopy work?

A

probe scans the surface and transformed it into an image

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65
Q

Pro of AFM is

A

can map atomic and molecular shapes

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66
Q

Con of AFM is

A

non conducting examples

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67
Q

Why do we stain samples?

A

to increase the contrast

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68
Q

What is a chromophore ion?

A

colored ion

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69
Q

What is a counter ion?

A

uncolored ion

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70
Q

What is positive staining?

A

dye is absorbed by cells, adding color to cells in order to stand out against background

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71
Q

What is negative staining?

A

dye is absorbed by background but not cells

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72
Q

What is simple staining?

A

single dye used to color specimen

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73
Q

What is differential staining?

A

multiple dyes to distinguish multiple organisms

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74
Q

What color are gram positive cells?

A

purple

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75
Q

What color are gram negative cells

A

pink

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76
Q

What is acid fast staining used for?

A

to differentiate two types of gram positive cells

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77
Q

In endospore staining, endospores are _____, and vegetative cells are ______.

A

green, red

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78
Q

Prokaryotes consist of

A

archaea and bacteria

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79
Q

Eukaryotes consist of

A

fungi, protozoa, algae, other plants, and animals

80
Q

What types of ribosomes do prokaryotes consist of?

A

70S

81
Q

Where do eukaryotes contain their DNA

A

nucleus

82
Q

What kind of cell walls do bacteria have?

A

peptidoglycan cell wall

83
Q

What type of cell wall do archaea have?

A

pseudomurein cell wall and S layers

84
Q

How do prokaryotes usually divide?

A

binary fission

85
Q

What type of ribosomes do eukaryotes have?

A

80S

86
Q

Eukaryotic cell division can be

A

mitosis or meiosis

87
Q

Prefix for pair arrangement

A

diplo

88
Q

Prefix for chain arrangement

A

strepto

89
Q

Prefix for cluster arrangement

A

staphyo

90
Q

Group of four arrangement

A

tetrads

91
Q

Group of eight arrangement

A

sarcinae

92
Q

Describe the S-layer

A

-outermost layer(if present)
-self assembly

93
Q

What is the function of the S layer in archaea?

A

protection against osmotic lysis

94
Q

What is the function of the S layer in bacteria

A

-exoskeleton
-contact w extracellular environment

95
Q

Describe the capsule

A

organized tight structure and firmly attached to the cell wall

96
Q

Describe the slime layer

A

diffused unorganized structure and loosely attached

97
Q

What are the functions of capsules and slime layers?

A

-adhesion to surfaces
-protection
-prevention of phagocytosis

98
Q

Slime layers facilitate ________ by gliding motility.

A

movement

99
Q

Describe the cell wall.

A

-rigid yet flexible structure

100
Q

Bacterial cell wall consists of

A

peptidoglycan

101
Q

Cell wall of archaea consists of

A

-pseudopeptidoglycan
-S layers

102
Q

What is peptidoglycan?

A

layers of meshwork of fabric

103
Q

Gram positive have _____ peptidoglycan layers

A

thick (bc they have multiple peptidoglycan layers)

104
Q

Gram negative have _____ peptidoglycan layer.

A

thin;

105
Q

Describe the outer membrane of gram negative

A

-rich in lipopolysaccharides
-phospholipid bilayer

106
Q

What is the function of the outer membrane of gram negative?

A

-acts as a barrier(dyes, metals, etc)
-strong negative charge
-porins

107
Q

What do porins help do?

A

increase permeability to hydrophilic molecules

108
Q

What is the structure of lipopolysaccharides?

A
  1. lipid A
  2. core polysaccharide
  3. O-polysaccharide
109
Q

What are the functions of lipopolysaccharides?

A

-structural part of OM
-provide neg. charge to OM
-Endotoxin(A): toxicity to animals
-recognized by immune system to initiate immune response

110
Q

What do lysozymes do?

A

targets peptidoglycan

111
Q

When does a protoplast occur?

A

when cell walls are destroyed(gram positive)

112
Q

When does a spheroplast occur?

A

when cell walls are not completely destroyed(gram negative)

113
Q

How to antibiotics interfere with cells?

A

interfere with cell wall synthesis

114
Q

Which is more susceptible to antibiotics? Gram positive or gram negative

A

gram positive

115
Q

In regard to osmoregulation, what does the cell wall do?

A

protects cell from changes in osmotic pressure

116
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

pressure needed to stop the movement of water across the membrane

117
Q

What is osmosis?

A

movement of water from areas of high to low concentration

118
Q

Plasmolysis occurs when

A

the cell is hypertonic

119
Q

Osmotic lysis occurs when

A

the cell is hypotonic

120
Q

What is the fluid mosaic model?

A

lateral diffusion of phospholipids and proteins

121
Q

What are hopanoids?

A

sterols that strengthen structure of membrane

122
Q

What is the function of the cytoplasmic membrane?

A
  1. selective barrier
  2. secretion of material and waste
  3. energy conservation
  4. protein anchor
123
Q

Passive process is

A

high to low concentration

124
Q

Simple diffusion is

A

molecules and ions move until equilibrium is reached

125
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

substances are transporter proteins across membranes from high to low concentration

126
Q

Active transport is

A

low to high concentration

127
Q

What is primary active transport

A

requires energy in the form of ATP

128
Q

What is secondary active transport?

A

transport against concentration gradient coupled to molecule transport down their conc. gradient

129
Q

What is a symporter?

A

protein that moves two molecules in the same direction

130
Q

What is an antiporter?

A

protein that moves two molecules in opposite directions

131
Q

FtsZ refers to

A

microtubules

132
Q

MreB refers to

A

microfilaments

133
Q

CreS refers to

A

intermediate filaments

134
Q

What is genophore?

A

bacterial chromosome

135
Q

What do conjugative plasmids carry?

A

F factor

136
Q

What do R plasmids carry?

A

antibiotic resistance genes

137
Q

What are virulence plasmids?

A

virulence genes

138
Q

Prokaryotes contain ___ ribosomes

A

70S

139
Q

What is the composition of ribosomes?

A

ribosomal RNA and protein

140
Q

What is the function of ribosomes?

A

protein synthesis

141
Q

What is the structure of inclusions?

A

granule surrounded by liquid monolayer or protein shell

142
Q

What is the function of inclusions?

A

substance storage and/or preserve cytoplasmic osmotic pressure

143
Q

What are fimbria?

A

hairlike appendages

144
Q

What is hami?

A

tiny grappling hooks

145
Q

What are pili?

A

longer protein filaments(only in gram negative)

146
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

directed movement in response to chemicals

147
Q

What is phototaxis?

A

directed movement in response to light

148
Q

Define sporulation

A

endospore formation

149
Q

What is endospore germination?

A

endospore returns to vegetative state

150
Q

Endospore phases are

A
  1. activation
  2. germination
  3. outgrowth
151
Q

What is induced fit

A

enzyme may change its shape to fit better with substrate

152
Q

Mechanisms for ATP production include:

A
  1. substate level phosphorylation
  2. oxidative phosphorylation
  3. photophosphorylation
153
Q

Define substrate level phosphorylation

A

a high energy phosphate is added to ADP; FERMENTATION

154
Q

Define oxidative phosphorylation

A

energy released as electrons are passed to electron acceptors, and finally to O2; RESPIRATION

155
Q

Define photophosphorylation

A

energy from light is trapped by chlorophyll, and electrons are passed through series of electron acceptors. Electron transfer releases energy used to ATP; PHOTOSYNTHESIS

156
Q

Define chemiosmosis

A

proton motive force; aka moving ions to other side of biological membrane

157
Q

Anabolism relies on _________ to build up complex molecules.

A

products of catabolism

158
Q

Define mixotrophs

A

combination of multiple metabolic strategies

159
Q

Define growth in micrbiology

A

increase in number, NOT cell size

160
Q

What are the three stages of the cell cycle

A
  1. cell elongation
  2. DNA replication and septum formation
  3. cytokinesis
161
Q

Define biary fission

A

normal method of division, in which a single cell divides into two identical cells

162
Q

The FtsZ right is

A

little ring formed between two splitting cells

163
Q

The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is

A

generation time

164
Q

What is the order of microbial growth pattern

A
  1. lag
  2. exponential
  3. stationary
  4. death
165
Q

Define inoculum

A

small numbers of starter cells

166
Q

Persisters

A

slow metabolic rate

167
Q

What is a chemostat?

A

open system used to maintain cell populations in exponential growth for extended periods

168
Q

Define quorum sensing

A

explain development and behavior of biofilms

169
Q

Define facultative anaerobe

A

aerobic organisms capable of living without oxygen if necessary

170
Q

Define microaerophile

A

an aerobe that requires a small amount of oxygen bur does not grow under anaerobic conditions

171
Q

Define obligate anaerobes

A

do not use free oxygen and cannot produce enzymes to dismantle reactive oxides

172
Q

Define aerotolerant

A

anaerobe cannot use oxygen for respiration yet is not injured by it

173
Q

Define osmophiles

A

microorganisms capable of living in habitats with a high solute concentration

174
Q

Define halophiles

A

MO that thrive in high salt concentration

175
Q

Describe barophiles

A

live in deep see trenches with high pressures(impossible to grow in lab)

176
Q

Describe xerotolerant

A

able to grow in very dry environments

177
Q

Define fomite

A

inanimate item that may contain and spread microbes(ie: doorknob)

178
Q

Sterilization is

A

killing or removal of all microorganisms

179
Q

Methods of inhibiting microbial growth on fomites include

A

disinfection and sanitization and sterilization

180
Q

Methods of inhibiting microbial growth on living tissue include

A

antiseptic and degerming

181
Q

Define disinfection

A

reduction of microbial load

182
Q

Define sanitization

A

reduction of microbial load to safe public health levels

183
Q

Define steriliation

A

kill all vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses

184
Q

Define antiseptic

A

reduction of microbial load

185
Q

Define degerming

A

reduction of microbial load with scrubbing and mild chemicals(ie: soap)

186
Q

What affects does control of microbial growth have on cells?

A

-alteration of membrane permeability
-damage to proteins
-damage to nucleic acids

187
Q

The decimal reduction time is(D value)

A

the time is takes for a protocol to yield a 90% reduction in microbial population

188
Q

Thermal death time is

A

time it takes to kill all cells at a given temperature

189
Q

Thermal death point is

A

lowest temperature at which all cells in a cliquid culture are killed in 10 min

190
Q

How does moist heat kill

A

denatures proteins/enzymes

191
Q

How does dry heat kill?

A

kills by oxidation

192
Q

Alkylating agents…

A

modify DNA, causing failure in replication and protein

193
Q

Surfactants

A

lipid solvent and disrupt cytoplasmic membrane

194
Q

oxidizing agent

A

remove electrons from organic matter

195
Q

What is the purpose of the efflux pumps

A

actively transport an antimicrobial drug out of the cell

196
Q
A

Microbiology (7 decks)

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