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Lab Final Review Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the basic aseptic protocol?

A

-disinfect work area
-sterilize loops and needles before use
-sterilize culture tubes before use
working with agar plates
-final sterilization of loops, needles, and tubes
-disinfect work area

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2
Q

List the steps of the plating of microbes

A
  1. inoculating loop is heated until it is red-hot
  2. organisms in culture are dispersed by shaking tube
  3. tube cap is removed and mouth of tube is flamed
  4. a loopful of organisms is removed from tube
  5. loop is removed from culture and tube mouth is flamed
  6. tube cap is returned to tube
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3
Q

generation time =

A

2^n

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4
Q

Describe the lag phase

A

very little growth few to no living cells

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5
Q

Describe the log phase/exponential growth phase

A

lots of binary fission

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6
Q

Describe the stationary phase

A

amount of growth=amount of cells dying; slow growth

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7
Q

Describe the death phase

A

more cells dying than living cells; due to limiting factors

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8
Q

What are the phases of microbial growth in order?

A
  1. lag phase
  2. log phase/exponential growth
  3. stationary phase
  4. death phase
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9
Q

How is microbial growth measured?

A

by serial dilutions

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10
Q

What is direct method serial dilutions?

A

counting colonies by hand

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11
Q

What is indirect method serial dilutions?

A

spectrometry

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12
Q

Absorbance is also referred to as

A

optical density

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13
Q

more tubidity/cloudy=

A

more absorbance

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14
Q

1 colony forming unit(cfu)=

A

1e9

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15
Q

Lower dilutions=

A

higher absorbance=more cells present

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16
Q

Higher dilutions=

A

lower absorbance=fewer cells present

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17
Q

With growth occurring over time, _______________, but serial dilutions will cause less and less cells

A

absorbance will increase

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18
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic cellular respiration?

A

oxygen

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19
Q

Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in

A

aerobic cellular respiration

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20
Q

Obligate/strict aerobes

A

require oxygen to grow

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21
Q

Microaerophiles

A

lower than atmospheric oxygen at 20%

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22
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

most flexible group
-can grow using oxygen and without oxygen

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23
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

do not require oxygen to grow, but can tolerate it
-use other organic molecules for metabolism
-though oxygen is not detrimental to them

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24
Q

Obligate/strict anaerobes

A

will die in the presence of oxygen, uses H2S or iron oxide

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25
Q

Psychorophiles

A

extreme cold, -5-15 celsius

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26
Q

Mesophiles

A

25-45 celsius

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27
Q

Thermophiles

A

heat loving microbes, 45-70 celsius

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28
Q

Hyperthermophiles

A

extreme heat microbes, 75 and above

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29
Q

Increase temperature=

A

denature proteins and lipid break down= no reaction occurring

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30
Q

Decrease temperature=

A

enzyme reactions slow down

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31
Q

Decrease temperature=

A

enzyme reaction slows down

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32
Q

Acidophiles

A

below 7 pH

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33
Q

Neutrophiles

A

7 pH

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34
Q

Alkaliphiles

A

higher than 7 pH

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35
Q

Describe a hypotonic solution

A

fewer solute particles; cell has lots of solutes
-water rushes in
-cells prefer to be in this state

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36
Q

Isotonic solution

A

number of solutes is an equal in and out of cell
-water moves in and out at equal rate

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37
Q

Hypertonic solution

A

lots of solutes outside cell, few solutes in cell
-typical environment microbes die
-water rushes out
-plasma membrane lysis

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38
Q

Obligate halophile

A

requires high salt concentration

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39
Q

Halotolerant

A

slightly salty concentration

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40
Q

Osmophile

A

require high sugar concentration

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41
Q

Antimicrobial

A

chemical agents that halt the growth and/or kill any microorganism

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42
Q

Antibiotics

A

bacteria, living organisms

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43
Q

Antivirals

A

viruses

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44
Q

antifungals

A

fungi

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45
Q

Antiparasitics

A

parasitic animals and protozoans

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46
Q

What are the three main targets of antibiotics?

A

cell wall, DNA/RNA, and protein synthesis

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47
Q

Penicillin and bacitracin target

A

the cell wall

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48
Q

fluoroquinolones targets

A

DNA and RNA

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49
Q

Tetracycline, streptocycline, chloramphenicol targets

A

protein synthesis

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50
Q

Describe penicillin

A

attacks gram positive & negative; specifically the cell wall

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51
Q

Describe bacitracin

A

attacks gram positive only; specifically the cell wall

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52
Q

Describe streptomycin

A

attacks gram positive & gram negative; specifically protein synthesis

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53
Q

Describe tetracycline

A

attacks positive & negative; specifically protein synthesis

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54
Q

Describe chloramphenicol

A

attacks gram negative & positive; specifically protein synthesis

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55
Q

Describe fluoroquinolones

A

attacks gram positive & negative; specifically DNA

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56
Q

What is the goal of identifying antibiotic susceptibility with antibiotics disk diffusion

A

goal is to look for resistance(no growth)

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57
Q

Describe antiseptic

A

inhibit growth and sometimes kill
-gentle on living tissue

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58
Q

Describe disinfect

A

chemical used on nonliving organisms to kill
-kills everything including spores

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59
Q

Describe sanitizers

A

don’t completely eliminate microbes
-reduce number down to a safe level as opposed to killing everything

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60
Q

Describe bacteriostatic

A

inhibit growth

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61
Q

Describe bactericidal

A

kill all microbes

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62
Q

large zone of inhibition=

A

better control of bacteria

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63
Q

Which API 20E tests are used for carbon utilization?

A

-acetoin
-amygdalin
-arabinose
-citrate
-glucose
-inositol
-mannitol
-melibiose
-sorbitol
-sucrose
-rhaminose
_________________________

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64
Q

Which API 20E tests are used for protein utilization?

A

-arginine
-lysine
-ornithine
-tryptophane
-gelatin
-indole

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65
Q

Which API 20E test is used for nitrogen utilization?

A

urea

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66
Q

(API 20E results)
darker boxes=

A

higher number=positive result

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67
Q

(API 20E results)
lighter boxes=

A

lower number=negative result

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68
Q

(API 20E results)
closer to 100

A

positive

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69
Q

0 means

A

negative result

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70
Q

What are the tests for anaerobic conditions

A

ADH, LDC, ODC, H2S, URE

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71
Q

What are the types of horizontal gene transfers?

A
  1. recombination
  2. transformation
  3. conjugation
  4. transduction
72
Q

Define recombination

A

breaking the covalent bonds of the DNA strands to insert new DNA and form covalent bonds

73
Q

Cell division for bacteria is known as

A

Binary fission

74
Q

In this phase, the cells are adjusting to the environment.

A

Lag phase

75
Q

In this phase, the cells reach the maximum rate of cell division

A

Log phase

76
Q

In this phase, cells will stop growing or grow very slowly

A

Stationary phase

77
Q

In this phase, limiting factors intensify becoming detrimental to any cell
growth.

A

Death phase

78
Q

Generation time should be measured during which phase?

A

Log phase

79
Q

A dilution of 1:10,000,000 is equivalent to 10 to which exponent?

A

-7

80
Q

A dilution of 1:1,000,000 is equivalent to 10 to which exponent?

A

-6

81
Q

When plating out a serial dilution series, which dilution would have the
fewest colony forming units?

A

1:10,000,000

82
Q

An increase in the optical density or absorbance indicates ______ microbial
organisms

A

An increase in the number of

83
Q

Bacteria that must grow in oxygen because their metabolism requires oxygen

A

Obligate aerobes

84
Q

Bacteria that have a flexible metabolism for oxygen conditions

A

Facultative anaerobes

85
Q

Bacteria that cannot grow in an oxygenated environment

A

Obligate anaerobes

86
Q

Many bacteria pathogen have an optimal growth between 35ºC and 40ºC are classified as

A

mesophiles

87
Q

Which bacteria’s colonies change color from white (higher temperature) to
red (lower temperature)

A

Serratia

88
Q

pH refers to what?

A

The concentration of hydrogen ions

89
Q

A cell that has fewer solutes than its environment is

A

Hypotonic

90
Q

A cell that has the same solute concentration as its environment is

A

Isotonic

91
Q

A cell that has more solutes than its environment is

A

Hypertonic

92
Q

A microbe such as Halobacterium salinarium thrives in high salt
concentration environment is known as a

A

Obligate halophiles

93
Q

Antimicrobials are compounds that kill or inhibit

A

Any type of microorganisms

94
Q

Antibiotics are compounds that kill or inhibit

A

Bacteria

95
Q

Antivirals are compounds that kill or inhibit

A

Viruses

96
Q

Penicillin targets

A

The cell wall

97
Q

Bacitracin targets

A

The cell wall

98
Q

Tetracyclines targets

A

Protein synthesis

99
Q

Streptomycin targets

A

Protein synthesis

100
Q

Chloramphenicol targets

A

Protein synthesis

101
Q

Substances that inhibit or kill microorganisms but are gentle enough to apply
to living tissue are

A

Antiseptics

102
Q

Chemical agents that are applied to inanimate (non-living) objects to kill
microorganisms are

A

Disinfectants

103
Q

A substance that has been oxidized has ____ an electron.

A

Lost

104
Q

Fermentation (anaerobic) is a form of energy metabolism where the final
electron acceptor is

A

Organic molecule (pyruvate)

105
Q

The API 20 E tests for

A

Gram negative bacteria

106
Q

The API 20 E tests for bacteria that do

A

-Oxidation and fermentation
○ No oxidation and fermentation

107
Q

Which test is NOT completed under anaerobic conditions?

A

-MEL
○ *tests for anaerobic conditions: ADH, LDC, ODC, H2S, URE

108
Q

Which test examines protein utilization?

A

ADH

109
Q

Which test examines carbon utilization?

A

SOR

110
Q

Which test examines antibiotic resistance?

A

ONPG

111
Q

Which test examines aerobic respiration?

A

H2S

112
Q

Which test examines nitrogen utilization?

A

URE

113
Q

The E. coli used in this experiment is either resistant to streptomycin or ampicillin.
Which type of plasmid is responsible for this trait?

A

R plasmid

114
Q

The streptomycin resistance gene is located on

A

Genome chromosome

115
Q

The ampicillin resistance gene is located on

A

Plasmid

116
Q

The nalidixic acid resistance gene is located on

A

Genome chromosome

117
Q

Which resistance gene will be transferred during conjugation?

A

Ampicillin

118
Q

Which strains will grow on the LB plate?

A

E. coli (strr)
E. coli (ampr, nalr)
E. coli (strr, ampr) conjugation strain

119
Q

Which strains will grow on the LB + nal plate?

A

E. coli (ampr, nalr)

120
Q

Which strains will grow on the LB + amp plate?

A

-E. coli (ampr, nalr)
-E. coli (strr, ampr) conjugation strain

121
Q

Which strains will grow on the LB + str plate?

A

-E. coli (strr)
-E. coli (strr, ampr) conjugation strain

122
Q

Which strains will grow on the LB + amp + str plate?

A

E. coli (strr, ampr) conjugation strain

123
Q

In this phase, cells will stop growing or grow very slowly

A

Stationary phase

124
Q

In this phase, the dead cells take up a larger portion of the culture and little to
no growth occurs.

A

Death phase

125
Q

How many cells are present after 10 generations (starting from 1 cell) of
exponential growth (2^n)

A

1024

126
Q

A dilution of 1 ml bacteria from broth into 999 ml broth or water

A

1/(1+999) = 1:1000

127
Q

A serial dilution of 1:100 follow by 1:100 gives a final dilution of

A

1:10,000

128
Q

A serial dilution of 1:4 followed by 1:2 gives a final dilution of

A

1:8

129
Q

A dilution of of 0.1 ml bacteria from broth in 9.9 ml broth or water

A

1/(0.1+9.9) = 1:10

130
Q

A 1:10,000,000 is a common dilution factor, which serial dilution will end
with this dilution?

A

1:100,000,000

131
Q

Which generation time is calculated from 15 x log 2 / (log 1257 - log 536)?

A

1.457

132
Q

Two samples have the following absorbance readings 0.50 (A) and 0.67(B),
which one has more cells present?

A

B

133
Q

The generation of cellular energy, ATP, can have metabolic reaction that
require a particular amount of which physical property?

A

Oxygen levels

134
Q

Microbes that require oxygen to grow but at much lower levels than 20% are

A

microaerophiles

135
Q

When using a fluid thioglycollate media which type of bacteria would be
present at the bottom of the media?

A

Obligate anaerobes

136
Q

Which bacteria have optimal growth above 75ºC?

A

hyperthermophiles

137
Q

When the temperature decreases past the optimal, the activity of this
molecule will slow down

A

Enzyme activity

138
Q

When the temperature increases past the optimal, lipids can be destroyed
affecting which structure?

A

Phospholipid bilayer (The cell membrane)

139
Q

When the temperature increases past the optimal, the hydrogen bonding in
the RNA breaks down and the proteins denature in this structure.

A

Ribosomes

140
Q

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 7

A

neutrophile

141
Q

An environment that has the same amount of solutes as a cell

A

isotonic

142
Q

These microbes can grow in excessive sugar concentrations

A

osmophiles

143
Q

Antibiotics are compounds that kill or inhibit

A

bacteria

144
Q

Bacitracin affects which type of bacterial cells

A

Gram positive

145
Q

Fluoroquinolones targets

A

DNA

146
Q

If Escherichia coli has no zone of inhibition to the antibiotic penicillin, the
bacteria is

A

resistant

147
Q

If Staphylococcus has a zone of inhibition of less than 28 mm to the
antibiotic ampicillin, the bacteria is

A

resistant

148
Q

If Serratia marcescens has no zone of inhibition to the antibiotic penicillin,
the bacteria is

A

resistant

149
Q

If Klebsiella has a zone of inhibition of greater than 15 mm to the antibiotic
streptomycin, the bacteria is

A

sensitive

150
Q

Chemical agents that are applied to inanimate objects to kill microorganisms
are

A

disinfectant

151
Q

These agents reduce microbial numbers to safe levels but do not eliminate all microbes.

A

sanitizer

152
Q

Hydrogen peroxide is a(n)

A

disinfectant

153
Q

A substance that has been reduced has ____ an electron.

A

gained

154
Q

Anaerobic respiration is a form of energy metabolism where the final
electron acceptor is

A

Organic or inorganic molecule, NOT oxygen

155
Q

Which test must be completed under anaerobic conditions?

A

LDC

156
Q

*tests for anaerobic conditions:

A

ADH, LDC, ODC, H2S, URE

157
Q

Which test examines protein utilization?

A

IND

158
Q

Which test examines carbon utilization?

A

GLU

159
Q

Which test examines carbon utilization?

A

ARA

160
Q

Which test examines nitrogen utilization?

A

URE

161
Q

These bacteria have on average a negative reaction to the CIT test?

A

Providencia

162
Q

These bacteria have on average a positive response to the GEL test

A

Vibrio cholerae

163
Q

These bacteria have on average a positive reaction for all the carbohydrates
but a negative response to the GEL test?

A

klebsiella

164
Q

This type of mutation changes the DNA and changes the protein by shortening or
truncating it.

A

Nonsense mutation

165
Q

The synonymous substitution rate is used to determine the mutation rate. Which type of
mutation results in synonymous substitutions?

A

Silent mutation

166
Q

As the genome size increases, the mutation rate _____.

A

decreases

167
Q

Horizontal gene transfer create new variation in bacteria through
recombination. Recombination requires the breaking of which type of bonds in the DNA?

A

covalent bonds

168
Q

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves naked DNA?

A

transformation

169
Q

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer includes indirect contact between two cells
and only specific genes can be transferred between the cells.

A

Specialized transduction

170
Q

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria of the
same species or more distantly related?

A

Transformation

171
Q

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires a dead bacterial cell that leaves
behind DNA?

A

Transformation

172
Q

Microbial eukaryotes create variation within a chromosome by which method?

A

Crossing over

173
Q

This type of mutation changes the DNA and changes the protein by replacing one
amino acid with another.

A

Missense mutation

174
Q

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires two living bacterial cells?

A

conjugation

175
Q

this form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer includes direct contact between two cells.

A

conjugation

176
Q
A

Microbiology (7 decks)

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