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FHP Lieutenant Study Material > Leadership Terms: Multiple Choice Format > Flashcards

Leadership Terms: Multiple Choice Format Flashcards

1
Q

A person’s perceived ratio of inputs and outcomes, as compared to his/her perception of another person’s ratio of inputs and outcomes.

a. Reinforcement
b. Motivation through consequence (MTC)
c. Focal Person
d. Comparison Ratio

A

Comparison Ratio

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2
Q

Motivational theory which assumes that people value fair treatment when comparing themselves with others, and that the perception of inequity motivates people to take action.

a. Operant conditioning
b. Positive Reinforcement
c. Equity Theory
d. Inequity

A

Equity Theory

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3
Q

The organizational leader who directly supervises, manages, and leads the employees involved in a given situation of case study.

a. Actor/Observer Bias
b. Focal Leader
c. Focal Person
d. None of the above

A

Focal Leader

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4
Q

Any individual who perceives equity or inequity by comparing himself/herself with others.

a. Focal Person
b. Transactional Leadership
c. Transformational Leadership
d. None of the above

A

Focal Person

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5
Q

Exists when someone perceives that the ratio of his/her outcomes to inputs is not equal to the ratio of someone else’s outcomes to inputs.

a. Inputs
b. Outcomes
c. Inequity
d. Self Regulation

A

Inequity

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6
Q

In the employee-employer exchange, this is what the focal person perceives are his contributions to the exchange, for which he expects a just return. Some examples include work effort, experience, education, training, and intelligence.

a. Focal Person
b. Comparison Ratio
c. Inputs
d. None of the above

A

Inputs

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7
Q

Theory dealing with perceptions of fairness in organizations

a. Equity Theory
b. Organizational Justice Theory
c. Law of effect theory
d. Apology Effect

A

Organizational Justice Theory

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8
Q

In the employee-employer exchange, this is what the employee perceives are the rewards he receives for his services. Examples include pay, benefits, praise, and promotion.

a. Outcomes
b. Reference Source
c. Reinforcement
d. Reward Contingency

A

Outcomes

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9
Q

The person or group that focal person uses to evaluate the equity or inequity of his/her exchange relationship.

a. Inequity
b. Focal Leader
c. Operant Response
d. None of the above

A

None of the above

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10
Q

The study of human interaction, including the study of attraction, attitude formation, influence (of which leadership is a part), and group dynamics.

a. Behavior
b. Law of effect
c. Social Psychology
d. Observational Learning

A

Social Psychology

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11
Q

The tendency to attribute one’s own successes to one’s abilities, and to blame failures on external factors beyond one’s control

a. Self Serving Bias
b. Internal Attribution
c. Attribution
d. None of the above

A

Self Serving Bias

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12
Q

The tendency for a leader to punish a follower more severely if the follower’s behavior has negative consequences.

a. Continuous Reinforcement Schedule
b. Negative Reinforcement
c. Negative Outcome Bias
d. None of the above

A

Negative Outcome Bias

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13
Q

The process of assigning blame or credit for a person’s behavior (including one’s own behavior) to that person’s abilities or lack of abilities.

a. Internal Attribution
b. External Attribution
c. Attribution
d. None of the above

A

Internal Attribution

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14
Q

The tendency to overvalue internal factors in explaining someone’s behavior, while undervaluing external factors

a. Internal Attribution
b. External Attribution
c. Fundamental Attribution Error
d. Consistency

A

Fundamental Attribution Error

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15
Q

The process of assigning blame or credit for a person’s behavior (including one’s on behavior) to external factors beyond the person’s abilities or lack of abilities.

a. Consistency
b. External Attribution
c. Internal Attribution
d. Distinctiveness

A

External Attribution

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16
Q

The process of making an attribution about a person based on how well (or poorly) he/she does on a variety of different tasks.

a. Distinctiveness
b. Consistency
c. Fundamental Attribution Error
d. None of the above

A

Distinctiveness

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17
Q

The process of making an attribution based on how a person performed the same task on other occasions.

a. Self Serving Bias
b. Distinctiveness
c. Consistency
d. None of the above

A

Consistency

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18
Q

The process of making an attribution based on how other people perform a specific task

a. Consensus
b. Consistency
c. Distinctiveness
d. None of the above

A

Consensus

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19
Q

The process of making inferences and judgment’s about the cause of people’s behavior

a. Self Serving Bias
b. Internal Attribution
c. Attribution
d. Consensus

A

Attribution

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20
Q

The leader’s tendency to be less likely to punish the follower who says he/she is sorry for his/her behavior

a. Apology Effect
b. Distinctiveness
c. Behavior
d. None of the above

A

Apology Effect

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21
Q

The common tendency for the actor in a particular situation to blame external factors for his or her unsuccessful behavior while, concurrently, an observer tends to blame internal factors for
same behavior

a. Self serving bias
b. Negative outcome bias
c. Apology effect
d. Actor/observer Bias

A

Actor/Observer Bias

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22
Q

What people do or say. It is related to but not the same as what one thinks, how one feels, one’s underlying attitude, or overall performance in accomplishing tasks.

a. Consequence
b. On task Behavior
c. Behavior
d. None of these

A

Behavior

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23
Q

That which typically results in unsuccessful task accomplishment.

a. Behavior
b. On Task behavior
c. Off Task Behavior
d. None on these

A

Off Task Behavior

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24
Q

That which typically results in successful task accomplishment

a. Off task behavior
b. On task behavior
c. Behavior
d. None of these

A

On Task Behavior

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25
Q

Anything that follows a behavior (e.g. a person sticks his finger into a light socket and gets shocked.

a. Behavior
b. Motivation through consequence
c. Operant conditioning
d. Consequence

A

Consequence

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26
Q

When reinforcement follows every correct or desired behavior. This results in the quick learning of new behavior, but poor sustained behavior when the reinforcement is removed.

a. Continuous Reinforcement schedule
b. Partial reinforcement schedules
c. Positive Reinforcement
d. None of the above

A

Continuous Reinforcement Schedule

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27
Q

A collection of three theories that, in different ways, explain how consequences that follow behavior control that behavior. The theories are operant conditioning, observation learning (aka social or vicarious learning), and self-regulation.

a. Consequence
b. Extinction
c. Motivation Through Consequence (MTC)
d. None of the above

A

Motivation Through Consequence (MTC)

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28
Q

A theoretical model originating from psychologist B.F. Skinner that has changed over time. In this lesson it means “punishment”, Skinner’s original definition.

a. Positive Reinforcement
b. Negative Reinforcement
c. Partial Reinforcement
d. Reinforcement

A

Negative Reinforcement

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29
Q

A method of learning by watching the behavior of others and the associated consequences. Includes concepts such as vicarious extinction-vicarious learning, vicarious punishment, and vicarious reinforcement.

a. Observational Learning
b. Operant conditioning
c. Behavior
d. None of these

A

Observational Learning

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30
Q

An approach to learning and motivation based on the relationship between person’s behavior and the consequences they subsequently personally experience.

a. Behavior
b. Operant Conditioning
c. Observational Learning
d. None of the above

A

Operant Conditioning

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31
Q

Any behavioral reaction that someone undertakes voluntarily in response to a demand or cue from his/her environment.

a. Operant conditioning
b. Continuous Reinforcement Schedule
c. Observational learning
d. Operant Response

A

Operant Response

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32
Q

When reinforcements are administered irregularly by either time or by the number of correct or desired responses. This sustains behavior over long periods of time, as compared to continuous reinforcement.

a. Fixed Ratio Schedule
b. Negative Reinforcement
c. Partial Reinforcement Schedules
d. Reinforcement

A

Partial Reinforcement Schedules

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33
Q

the effect of increasing the future desired behavior by the presentation of a positive or pleasant consequence following current behavior.

a. Partial Reinforcement Schedules
b. Reinforcement
c. Positive Reinforcement
d. Negative Reinforcement

A

Positive Reinforcement

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34
Q

Any consequence that increases the occurrence of a behavior in the future.

a. Positive Reinforcement
b. Reward Contingency
c. Reinforcement
d. None of the above

A

Reinforcement

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35
Q

The process of controlling one’s own behavior by comparing one’s behavior to one’s personal standards and subsequently apply internal consequences.

a. Motivation
b. Operant Conditioning
c. Self-Regulation
d. Reward Contingency

A

Self-Regulation

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36
Q

Involves learning by comparing oneself to others.

a. On Task Behavior
b. Social Comparison Processes
c. Self Regulation
d. Motivation through Consequence (MTC)

A

Social Comparison Processes

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37
Q

The presentation of reinforcements irregularly around an average time (e.g., after one day, three days, and two days, averaging reinforcement every two days). This is a powerful way to sustain desired behavior for long periods of time.

a. Fixed Interval Schedule
b. Reward Contingency
c. Variable Ratio Schedule
d. Variable Interval Schedule

A

Variable Interval Schedule

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38
Q

The presentation of reinforcements irregularly around an average number of correct or desired responses (e.g., the way a slot machine pays out). This is a powerful way to sustain desired behavior for long periods of time.

a. Variable Ratio Schedule
b. Variable interval Schedule
c. Reward Contingency
d. Fixed Interval Schedule

A

Variable Ratio Schedule

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39
Q

When future behavior decreases in frequency because there is no consequence to a current behavior.

a. Law of effect
b. Extinction
c. Fixed Ratio Schedule
d. Variable Ratio Schedule

A

Extinction

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40
Q

When reinforcers are presented after corrected or desired responses on a fixed time schedule (e.g. daily, weekly, monthly, etc.).

a. Fixed Ratio Schedule
b. Fixed Interval Schedule
c. Law of Effect
d. Variable Internal Schedule

A

Fixed Interval schedule

41
Q

The presentation of reinforcements after a fixed number of correct or desired responses (e.g. after every third arrest).

a. Variable Interval Schedule
b. Fixed Interval Schedule
c. Reinforcement
d. Fixed Ratio Schedule

A

Fix Ratio Schedule

42
Q

A phenomenon that explains why some behaviors are repeated while others stop.

a. Behavior
b. Motivation
c. Law of Effect
d. Operant Conditioning

A

Law of Effect

43
Q

Anything that provides direction, intensity, and persistence to behavior.

a. Law of Effect
b. Self Regulation
c. Motivation
d. Social Comparison Processes

A

Motivation

44
Q

An individual’s belief that he/she can perform a task to an acceptable level.

a. Goal Setting
b. Expectancy
c. Goal
d. Individual behaviors

A

Expectancy

45
Q

Claims that motivation is a function of expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.

a. Performance Objectives
b. Goal Setting
c. Reward aka Reward outcome
d. Expectancy Theory of Motivation

A

Expectancy Theory of Motivation

46
Q

A desired end state.

a. Upward leadership
b. Individual behaviors
c. Goal
d. Performance Objectives aka Performance Outcomes

A

Goal

47
Q

Selecting desired end states as a way to motivate human behavior

a. Performance Objectives aka Performance Outcomes
b. Instrumentality
c. Reward
d. Setting Goal

A

Setting Goal

48
Q

The knowledge, skills, and abilities an individual possesses.

a. Reward aka Reward Outcome
b. Performance Objectives aka Performance Outcomes
c. Valence
d. Individual Behaviors

A

Individual Behaviors

49
Q

The belief that achieving an acceptable level of performance will result of the task at hand.

a. Performance Objective
b. Instrumentality
c. Individual Behaviors
d. Valence

A

Instrumentality

50
Q

An acceptable level of accomplishment of the task at hand.

a. Reward / Reward Outcome
b. Performance Objective aka Performance Outcomes
c. Individual Behaviors
d. Goal Setting

A

Reward / Reward Outcome

51
Q

The value a recipient places on a reward offered in exchange for completing a task.

a. Rewards
b. Performance Objective aka Performance Outcomes
c. Goal Setting
d. Valence

A

Valence

52
Q

Organizational member who demonstrates a high level of critical thinking but low levels of engagement in the organizational mission.

a. Derailment
b. Conformist Follower
c. Follower
d. Alienated Follower

A

Alienated Follower

53
Q

Organizational member who demonstrates a low level of critical thinking and a high level of engagement in the organizational mission.

a. Followership
b. Conformist Follower
c. Follower
d. Exemplary Follower

A

Conformist Follower

54
Q

Condition describing what happens to individuals who eventually fail as leaders, despite performing well for a long time in followership and junior leadership roles.

a. Passive Follower
b. Followership
c. Derailment
d. Upward leadership

A

Derailment

55
Q

Organizational member who demonstrates a high level of critical thinking and high levels of engagement in the organizational mission.

a. Exemplary Follower
b. Follower
c. Followership
d. Passive Follower

A

Exemplary Follower

56
Q

A collaborator with leaders in the work of organizations.

a. Followership
b. Pragmatist Follower
c. Follower
d. Conformist Follower

A

Follower

57
Q

The role of followers in a leadership process: it means the act of committing and working cooperatively with other followers and leaders to achieve shared goals by harmonizing individual roles and goals with the larger vision of the group (organization, community, or society), and may include acting like a leader when required by the situation.

a. Upward Leadership
b. Pragmatist Follower
c. Followership
d. Alternated Follower

A

Followership

58
Q

Concept that describes an organization’s resources and how an individual might focus solely on their rights and needs versus respecting the common good, while acknowledging the mutual responsibilities he/she has with others.

a. Derailment
b. Organizational Commons
c. Alternated Follower
d. Pragmatist Follower

A

Organizational Commons

59
Q

Organizational member who demonstrates a low level of critical thinking and low levels of engagement in the organizational mission.

a. Passive Follower
b. Pragmatist Follower
c. Follower
d. Exemplary Follower

A

Passive Follower

60
Q

Organizational member who demonstrates varying levels of critical thinking and varying levels of engagement in the organizational mission.

a. Pragmatist Follower
b. Passive Follower
c. Follower
d. Exemplary Follower

A

Pragmatist Follower

61
Q

Demonstrating exemplary leadership behaviors irrespective of organizational role.

a. Conformist Follower
b. Alternative Follower
c. Derailment
d. Upward Leadership

A

Upward Leadership

62
Q

Unproductive behavior that hinders the group from achieving organizational objectives.

a. Group
b. Group Norms
c. Group Roles
d. Blocking Roles

A

Blocking Roles

63
Q

Subgroups of individuals within a larger group who share common goals, values, and expectations sometimes at odds with other subgroups and perhaps the larger group’s goals, values and expectations.

a. Group Structures
b. Group Role
c. Group
d. Cliques

A

Cliques

64
Q

The strength of the bonds linking individuals to and in the group. It is sometimes referred to as the glue that keeps a group together.

a. Group Structure
b. Heterogeneous
c. Cohesion
d. Team

A

Cohesion

65
Q

Two or more persons who are interacting with one another in such a manner that each person influences and is influenced by each other while achieving a common purpose, mission, or task.

a. Group Structure
b. Group
c. Group Roles
d. Team

A

Group

66
Q

The social standards that regulate group members’ behaviors. It regulate the group’s activities by identifying what is acceptable and what is not.

a. Cohesion
b. Group Roles
c. Group Structure
d. Group Norms

A

Group Norms

67
Q

A coherent set of behaviors expected of people who occupy specific positions within a group.

a. Group Roles
b. Group Structure
c. Team
d. Group Norms

A

Group Roles

68
Q

The underlying pattern of roles, norms, and relations among members of a group.

a. Team
b. Group Structure
c. Group Norms
d. Social Loafing

A

Group Structure

69
Q

A quality exhibited when members of the group are diversified in terms of their abilities, skills, resources, and/or social makeup that are required to accomplish the group’s task or mission.

a. Homogeneous
b. Heterogeneous
c. Relationship Building
d. Interdependency

A

Heterogeneous

70
Q
  1. A quality exhibited when members of the group are similar in terms of their abilities, skills, resources, and/or social makeup that are required to accomplish the group’s task or mission.

a. Homogeneous
b. Role Ambiguity
c. Role Conflict
d. Role Clarity

A

Homogeneous

71
Q

A characteristic of people being somewhat mutually dependent to accomplish a group task or goal.

a. Role Ambiguity
b. Role Clarity
c. Interdependency
d. Group Norms

A

Interdependency

72
Q

The position of a group member who performs behaviors that improve the nature and quality of interpersonal relations among other group members.

a. Relationship-Building Role
b. Role Clarity
c. Status
d. Task Facilitating Role

A

Relationship-Building Role

73
Q

The perception and uncertainty due to unclear expectations by a group member accurately performs his/her assigned purpose in the group.

a. Role Clarity
b. Role Ambiguity
c. Status
d. Team

A

Role Ambiguity

74
Q

The perception and clear understanding demonstrated when a group member accurately performs his/her assigned purpose in the group.

a. Role conflict
b. Role Clarity
c. Social Loafing
d. Task-Facilitating Role

A

Role Clarity

75
Q

A state of tension, distress, or uncertainty caused by inconsistent or conflicting expectations associated with one’s role in the group

A. Social Loafing
B. Role Ambiguity
C. Role Conflict
D. Group Role

A

Role Conflict

76
Q

The reduction of individual effort exerted when people work in groups as compared to when they work alone.

a. Status
b. Team
c. Cohesion
d. Social Loafing

A

Social Loafing

77
Q

The level of rights and privileges that members have within the group.

a. Team
b. Group Norms
c. Status
d. Group Roles

A

Status

78
Q

Any position in a group occupied by a member who performs behaviors that promote completion of tasks and activities.

a. Group Norms
b. Group Roles
c. Cliques
d. Task-Facilitating Role

A

Task-Facilitating Role

79
Q

Group members that are so tightly coupled that each member’s outcomes are inextricable tied to each other’s outcome.

a. Group Role
b. Role Clarity
c. Team
d. Group Structure

A

Team

80
Q

A group’s judgment about its own capability to perform a specific task.

a. Task Cohesion
b. Social Cohesion
c. Collective or Group Efficacy
d. Groupthink

A

Collective or Group Efficacy

81
Q

Six readily observable group behavior patterns, the presence of which indicate a high level of group cohesion.

a. Group Cohesion
b. GroupThink
c. Social Cohesion
d. Common Indicators of Group Cohesion

A

Common Indicators of Group Cohesion

82
Q

The sum of forces that attracts members to a group, provides resistance to leaving it, and motivates them to be active in it.

a. Group Cohesion
b. Social Cohesion
c. Task Cohesion
d. Groupthink

A

Group Cohesion

83
Q

An instrument that measures task and social cohesion of action.

a. Task Cohesion
b. Group Environment Questionnaire (GEQ)
c. Collective or Group Efficacy
d. Common Indicators of Group Cohesion

A

Group Environment Questionnaire (GEQ)

84
Q

A process where a group strives for unanimity rather than objectively appraising and selecting the best course of action.

a. Social Cohesion
b. Groupthink
c. Task Cohesion
d. Group Cohesion

A

Groupthink

85
Q

The degree to which the members of a group like each other and enjoy personal satisfaction from being members of the group.

a. Task Cohesion
b. Social Cohesion
c. Group Cohesion
d. Groupthink

A

Social Cohesion

86
Q

The degree to which a group works together to achieve a specific and identifiable goal.

a. Task Cohesion
b. Social Cohesion
c. Group Cohesion
d. None of the above

A

Task Cohesion

87
Q

A source of intergroup conflict brought about when a leader issues vague instructions to subordinates groups, allowing separate groups to interpret their meaning and how to accomplish the task.

a. Avoidance
b. Ambiguous Work Assignment
c. Physical Separation
d. Forcing

A

Ambiguous Work Assignment

88
Q

A conflict management strategy where the leader monitors the conflict, but does not get involved in its resolution, allowing the conflict to run its course and/or those in conflict to resolve it.

a. Forcing
b. Liaison Group
c. Avoidance
d. Frequency of Interaction

A

Avoidance

89
Q

A source of intergroup conflict brought about when two or more groups fight over limited resources (e.g. money, people, and facilities).

a. Forcing
b. Frequency of Interaction
c. Physical Separation
d. Competition Over Scare Resources

A

Competition Over Scare Resources

90
Q

A conflict management strategy where a leader mandates a solution to groups that are experiencing conflict with each other.

a. Forcing
b. Physical Separation
c. Problem Solving
d. Tangible Nature of Work

A

Forcing

91
Q

A source of intergroup conflict brought about by little or no interaction between groups

a. Goal Orientation
b. Liaison Group
c. Problem Solving
d. Frequency of Interaction

A

Frequency of Interaction

92
Q

A source of intergroup conflict where the actions or tone in a group in pursuit of its goals generates conflict with another group in the pursuit of its goal because the groups don’t share the same goals.

a. Problem Solving
b. Goal Orientation
c. Liaison Group
d. Avoidance

A

Goal Orientation

93
Q

A proactive conflict management strategy where a leader acts to prevent or reduce the chance of conflict by forming a group with representatives from all groups to identify and resolve potential conflict.

a. Liaison Group
b. Group
c. Groupthink
d. Superordinate Goal

A

Liaison Group

94
Q

A source of intergroup conflict brought about when groups are not located together. Physical separation keeps them from getting to know each other very well.

a. Problem Solving
b. Tangible Nature of Work
c. Superordinate Goal
d. Physical Separation

A

Physical Separation

95
Q

A reactive conflict management strategy where a leader (or third-party mediator) bring members of conflicting groups together to identify, discuss, and resolve intergroup conflict after conflict has developed.

a. Problem Solving
b. Time Orientation
c. Tangible Nature of Work
d. Competition Over Scare Resources

A

Problem Solving

96
Q

A conflict management strategy where a leader creates an overarching goal that requires conflicting groups to achieve an objective critically important to all groups, but that can only be achieved through intergroup cooperation.

a. Tangible Nature of Work
b. Time Orientation
c. Superordinate Goal
d. Competition Over Scare Resources

A

Superordinate Goal

97
Q

A source of intergroup conflict created by the way in which work products are measured. One group may generate an easily measureable product while another generates a product that is more difficult or impossible to measure.

a. Time Orientation
b. Tangible Nature of Work
c. Superordinate Goal
d. Competition Over Scare Resources

A

Tangible Nature of Work

98
Q

A source of intergroup conflict where one group’s perception of how long work should take is different from another group’s perception of how long it should take.

a. Problem Solving
b. Time Orientation
c. Superordinate Goal
d. Physical Separation

A

Time Orientation

FHP Lieutenant Study Material (8 decks)

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