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PHYSIOL > LE3 > Flashcards

LE3 Flashcards

1
Q

Channels through which extracellular Ca2+ enters the cell during the plateau of the action potential

a) Na+/ Ca2+ Exchangers (nacax)
b) Receptor-operated Ca2+ channels
c) L-type Ca2+ channels
d) Ca2+ Channel Blockers

A

c) L-type Ca2+ channels

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2
Q
  • Branch from the aorta supplying the myocardium with blood
  • Exit from behind aortic valve cusps in very part of aorta and lead to a branching network blood vessels

a) Elastic Arteries
b) Airway Resistance
c) Varicose Veins
d) Coronary Arteries

A

d) Coronary Arteries

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3
Q

Receptors where Ca2+ binds, triggering the release of a larger quantity of Ca2+

a) Sarcoplasmic Reticula
b) Calmodulin
c) Ryanodine Receptors
d) Terminal Cisternae

A

c) Ryanodine Receptors

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4
Q
  • Where most cardiac veins drain, emptying into the right atrium
  • Empties into the right atrium

a) Coronary Sinus
b) Venous Pressure
c) Medullary
d) Coronary Arteries

A

a) Coronary Sinus

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5
Q

Cells found in the SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and Purkinjie fibers, causing uncoordinated atrial and ventricular contractions

a) Pacemaker Cells
b) Node Cells
c) Atrial Fibrillation
d) Oligodendrocytes

A

b) Node Cells

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6
Q

[SA Node/AV Node]

  • Normal rate: 60-100 impulse/min
  • Depolarization travels through internodal pathway
A

SA node

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7
Q

[SA Node/AV Node]

  • Signal has 0.1s delay to allow atria to contract and completely fill ventricles before they contract
  • Depolarization travels through AV bundle of His
A

AV Node

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8
Q

Go to the apex of the ventricular septum, then turn upwards

a) Bundle Branches
b) Purkinjie Fibers
c) Cardiac Output
d) Ventricular Fibrillation

A

b) Purkinjie Fibers

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9
Q
  • Extracellular Ca2+ enters the cell through the L-type Ca2+ Channels during the plateau of AP
  • Ca2+ binds to ryanodine receptors and triggers release of larger quantity of Ca2+

a) Cardiac Action Potential
b) Ca2+ channel blockers
c) Varicose veins
d) Flow-Pressure Relationship

A

a) Cardiac Action Potential

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10
Q

Uncoordinated atrial and ventricular contractions caused by a defect in the conduction system

a) Pleurisy
b) Hypertension
c) Arrhythmias
d) Heart Murmurs

A

c) Arrhythmias

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11
Q

Rapid and irregular contraction where the SA node no longer controls the heart rate

a) Hyperventillation
b) Hypertension
c) Fibrillation
d) Ventilation

A

c) Fibrillation

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12
Q

Controls electrical impulses causing contraction, potentially leading to clotting and inefficient ventricle filling

a) Pleural Fluid
b) Hypertension
c) Ventricular Fibrillation
d) Atrial Fibrillation

A

d) Atrial Fibrillation

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13
Q

More life-threatening than atrial fibrillation, causing ventricles to pump without filling

a) Atrial Flutter
b) Ventricular Fibrillation
c) Atrial Fibrillation
d) Hypertension

A

b) Ventricular Fibrillation

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14
Q

What happens after rhythm is not re-established in ventricular fibrillation?

A

Circulation stops; Brain death

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15
Q

Application of electrical stimulus to shock the heart back into normal SA rhythm

a) Transmural
b) Ventricular Fibrillation
c) Defibrillation
d) Hypertension

A

c) Defibrillation

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16
Q

Graphic record of the heart’s electrical activity, shows the composite of electrical events

a) Electroencephalogram
b) Trachea
c) Electrocardiogram
d) Fibrillation

A

c) Electrocardiogram

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17
Q
  • Result of depolarization from SA to AV node
  • Atria contracts 0.1s after this wave starts

a) P wave
b) Medullary
c) Type II alveolar
d) T wave

A

a) P wave

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18
Q

Result of ventricular depolarization and precedes ventricular contraction

a) T wave
b) Diastole
c) Systole
d) QRS complex

A

d) QRS complex

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19
Q

Result of ventricular repolarization

a) Diastole
b) Systole
c) T wave
d) QRS complex

A

c) T wave

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20
Q

What is the order of the sequence of excitation?

A
  1. Atrial excitation
  2. Ventricular excitation
  3. Ventricular relaxation
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21
Q

Contraction phase of cardiac muscle

a) Stroke Volume
b) Systole
c) T Wave
d) Diastole

A

b) Systole

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22
Q

Relaxation phase of cardiac cycle

a) Arteries
b) Systole
c) Diastole
d) Stroke Volume

A

Diastole

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23
Q

Abnormal heart sounds

a) Heart murmurs
b) Fibrillation
c) Hypertension
d) Arrhythmias

A

a) Heart murmurs

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24
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

Blood flow should be silent

A

TRUE

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25
Q

Amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle within a minute

a) Stroke Volume
b) Cardiac Output
c) Afterload
d) Venous Pressure

A

b) Cardiac Output

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26
Q

What is the cardiac output equation?

a) ∆P/R
b) EDV – ESV
c) HR x SV

A

c) HR x SV

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27
Q

What is the normal cardiac output?

a) 5250/lmin
b) 3.45l/min
c) 4.55l/min
d) 5.25L/min

A

d) 5.25 L/min

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28
Q

↓SV and CO are maintained by ________________.

a) Type II alveolar
b) ↑Heart Rate (HR)
c) Arrhythmias
d) ↑ TPR

A

b) ↑Heart Rate (HR)

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29
Q

Factors increasing heart rate, like sympathetic nervous system (SNS) stimulation

a) Hypocalcemia
b) Positive Chronotropic Factors
c) Tachycardia
Id) Negative Chronotropic Factors

A

b) Positive Chronotropic Factors

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30
Q

Factors decreasing heart rate, like parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) stimulation

a) Ryanodine Receptors
b) Increases
c) Atrial Fibrillation
d) Negative Chronotropic Factors

A

d) Negative Chronotropic Factors

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31
Q

What are also controlled by the nervous system?

A
  1. SNS increases HR
  2. PSNS decreases HR
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32
Q

Amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle within a minute, calculated as end diastolic volume (EDV) minus end systolic volume (ESV)

a) Ejection Fraction
b) Cardiac Output
c) Afterload
d) Stroke Volume

A

d) Stroke Volume

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33
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

With every beat, the heart pumps about 60% of the blood in its chambers

A

TRUE

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34
Q

What is the stroke volume equation?

a) ∆P/R
b) EDV – ESV
c) HR x SV

A

b) EDV – ESV

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35
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

Stroke Volume is NOT important to preload, afterload, and contractility of the heart

A

FALSE

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36
Q

Degree to which cardiac muscle cells are stretched before contraction, affecting force generation

a) Stroke Volume
b) Afterload
c) Cardiac Output
d) Preload

A

d) Preload

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37
Q

Overextension leads to _________________________.

a) Afterload
b) QRS complex
c) Inefficient pumping
d) Preload

A

c) Insufficient pumping

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38
Q

Most important factor in causing stretch

a) Positive Chronotropic Factors
b) Neural Generation of Rhythmical Breathing
c) Amount of blood in ventricles
d) Amount of blood in arteries

A

c) Amount of blood in ventricles

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39
Q

Amount of blood in ventricles is controlled by ______________________.

a) Venous return
b) Cardiac Output
c) Stroke Volume
d) Lung compliance

A

a) Venous return

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40
Q

↑SV indicates ____________________________.

A

↑EDV or ↑force of ventricular contraction

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41
Q

What are the Extrinisic controls of SV?

A
  1. Sympathetic drive to ventricular muscle fibers
  2. Hormonal control
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42
Q

Ratio of stroke volume to end diastolic volume, indicating the heart’s efficiency in pumping blood

a) Stroke Volume
b) QRS Complex
c) Cardiac Output
d) Ejection Fraction

A

d) Ejection Fraction

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43
Q

What is the ejection fraction equation?

a) ∆P/R
b) HR X SV
c) SV/EDV
d) Afterload

A

c) SV / EDV

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44
Q

Pressure the ventricles must overcome to force open aortic and pulmonary valves

a) Preload
b) Cardiac Output
c) Afterload
d) Stroke Volume

A

c) Afterload

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45
Q
  • Noninvasive technique that uses ultrasonic waves
  • Can detect abnormal functioning walls
  • Can also be used to measure EF

a) Ejection Fraction
b) Vascular shock
c) Echocardiography
d) Hypovolemic shock

A

c) Echocardiography

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46
Q
  • Requires temporary threading of a thin, flexible catheter through artery or vein into the heart
  • Radiopaque contrast material is injected through the catheter during high speed X-ray videography
  • Useful for evaluating cardiac function and identifying narrowed coronary arteries

a) Cardiac angiography
b) Atrial Fibrillation
c) Echocardiography
d) Transpulmonary Pressure

A

a) Cardiac angiography

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47
Q
  • “Pipes” that carry the blood
  • With smooth muscle cells, endothelial cells, and adventitial fibroblasts

a) Capillaries
b) SA node
c) Vascular System
d) Osmotic pressure

A

c) Vascular System

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48
Q

What is the structure of the vascular system?

A

Arteries and Veins

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49
Q

Carry blood away from the heart

a) Veins
b) Capillaries
c) Hypoxia
d) Arteries

A

d) Arteries

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50
Q

What is the equation of compliance?

a) ∆Flow/∆Pressure
b) SV/EDV
c) ∆Volume/∆Pressure
d) P1V1 = P2V2

A

c) ∆Volume/∆Pressure

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51
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

The higher the compliance, the more easily structure can be stretched

A

TRUE

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52
Q

Venules and capacitance vessels act as blood reservoirs, carrying blood back to the heart

a) Veins
b) Arteries
c) Venules
d) Pleural Fluid

A

a) Veins

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53
Q
  • Conduit vessels near the heart that expand and contract as blood is ejected
  • Large lumen vessels that contain more elastin than muscular arteries
  • Expand and contract as blood is ejected by the heart
  • Atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis affect ability to function properly

a) Autoregulation
b) Muscular pump
c) Ca2+ channel blockers
d) Elastic Arteries

A

d) Elastic Arteries

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54
Q
  • Arteries delivering blood to specific organs with a thick tunica media
  • Can play large role in regulation of BP

a) Cardiogenic shock
b) Purkinje Fibers
c) Type ll alveolar
d) Muscular Arteries

A

d) Muscular Arteries

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55
Q

Tool used to measure blood pressure levels

a) Inefficient Pumping
b) ∆P/R
c) Veins
d) Sphygnomamometer

A

d) Sphygnomamometer

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56
Q

What is the average BP?

a) 120/80 mmHg
b) 100/110 mmHg
c) 140/90 mmHg
d) 110/120 mmHg

A

a) 120/80 mmHg

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57
Q

What is considered high blood pressure?

a) 140/90 mmHg
b) 130/80 mmHg
c) 160/60 mmHg
d) 130/40 mmHg

A

a) 140/90 mmHg

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58
Q
  • Difference between systolic and diastolic pressures
  • Felt as a pulsation or throb in the arteries

a) Venous Pressure
b) Cardiac Output
c) Transpulmonary Pressure
d) Pulse Pressure

A

d) Pulse Pressure

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59
Q

What are the factors in determining magnitude?

a) Neural Controls, Hormonal Controls, Local Controls
b) Orthostatic, Chronic Hemorrhage, Acute
c) Stroke volume, Speed of ejection of SV, Arterial compliance

A

c) Stroke volume, Speed of ejection of SV, Arterial compliance

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60
Q
  • Smallest arteries
  • Function is controlled by neural, hormonal, and local chemicals
  • Control minute-to-minute blood flow into capillary beds

a) Echocardiography
b) Stroke Volume
c) Arterioles
d) Capillaries

A

c) Arterioles

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61
Q
  • Increase resistance by vasoconstriction and keep pressure the same, flow to a tissue decreases
  • Increase flow to a tissue, either increase pressure or vasodilate to decrease resistance

a) L-type Ca+2 channels
b) Cardiac Action Potential
c) Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS)
d) Flow-Pressure Relationship

A

d) Flow-Pressure Relationship

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62
Q

What is the equation of Flow-Pressure Relationship?

a) HR x SV
b) ∆V/∆P
c) ∆P/R
d) SV/EDV

A

c) ∆P/R

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63
Q
  • Causes vasodilation
  • Critical to proper vessel tone

a) Hemorrhage
b) Hypertension
c) Arteries and Veins
d) Nitric oxide

A

d) Nitric oxide

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64
Q
  • Automatic adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to that tissue’s requirement at any instant
  • Regulated by local factors and independent of systemic factors

a) Varicose veins
b) Coronary Arteries
c) Autoregulation
d) Airway Resistance

A

c) Autoregulation

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65
Q

What are the three Arterial Controls in Specific Organs?

A
  1. Neural Controls
  2. Hormonal Controls
  3. Local Controls
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66
Q

Smallest blood vessels facilitating nutrient and gas exchange between blood and tissues

a) Atrium
b) Capillaries
c) Arteries
d) Veins

A

b) Capillaries

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67
Q

What are the types of capillaries?

A
  • Continuous capillary
  • Fenestrated capillary
  • Sinusoidal capillary
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68
Q
  • Found in skin, muscle
  • Have tight junctions

a) Prolonged hypertension
b) Histotoxic hypoxia
c) Transpulmonary Pressure
d) Continuous capillary

A

d) Continuous capillary

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69
Q
  • With incomplete basement membrane
  • Liver, bone marrow, and lymphoid tissues

a) Alveoli
b) Ventricular Fibrillation
c) Positive Chronotropic Factors
d) Sinusoidal capillary

A

d) Sinusoidal capillary

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70
Q
  • More permeable
  • Intestines, hormone-producing tissues, and kidneys

a) Fenestrated capillary
b) Inefficient pumping
c) Velocity of Capillary Blood Flow
d) Intrapleural Pressure

A

a) Fenestrated capillary

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71
Q

Speed at which blood flows through capillaries, slowing down to facilitate exchange

a) Orthostatic Hypotension
b) Atrial Fibrillation
c) Velocity of Capillary Blood Flow
d) Neural Generation of Rhythmical Breathing

A

c) Velocity of Capillary Blood
Flow

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72
Q
  • Force exerted by fluid pressing against wall
  • Tends to force fluid out

a) Hypoxemic hypoxia
b) Stroke Volume
c) Fenestrated capillary
d) Hydrostatic pressure

A

d) Hydrostatic pressure

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73
Q
  • Oncotic pressure
  • Created by large, nondiffusable molecules

a) Pulse Pressure
b) Circulation stops; Brain death
c) Fluid Enters capillaries
d) Osmotic pressure

A

d) Osmotic pressure

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74
Q

What is the equation for Net Filtration Pressure?

a) ∆Volume/∆Pressure
b) SV/EDV
c) (HPc - HPif ) - (OPc - OPif)
d) HR x SV

A

c) (HPc - HPif ) - (OPc - OPif)

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75
Q

If the hydrostatic pressure exceeds the osmotic pressure, __________________.

a) node cells
b) venous pressure
c) type II alveolar
d) fluid leaves capillaries

A

d) fluid leaves capillaries

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76
Q

If Osmotic Pressure is greater than Hydrostatic Pressure ___________________.

a) venous return
b) pulse pressure
c) fluid enters capillaries
d) negative chronotropic factors

A

fluid enters capillaries

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77
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

Venules vary in structure as they progress away from capillaries

A

TRUE

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78
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

Veins are thicker than arteries

A

FALSE

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79
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

Veins are highly distensible

80
Q
  • Veins that have become dilated and tortuous because of incompetent (leaky valves)
  • About 15% of adults suffer from this condition, mainly in lower limbs

a) Cardiogenic shock
b) Autoregulation
c) Varicose veins
d) Respiratory pump

A

c) Varicose veins

81
Q

Pressure in the veins, aided by the muscular pump and respiratory pump to return blood the heart

a) Transpulmonary Pressure
b) Pulse Pressure
c) Venous Pressure
d) Cardiac Output

A

c) Venous Pressure

82
Q

Pressure difference favoring or opposing fluid movement out of capillaries, determined by hydrostatic and osmotic pressures

a) Glomerular Filtration Rate
b) Pulse Pressure
c) Net Filtration Pressure
d) Capsular Hydrostatic Pressure

A

c) Net Filtration Pressure

83
Q
  • Pressure changes in central cavity due to pressure changes due to breathing
  • Helps proper blood back to the heart

a) Muscular pump
b) Coronary Sinus
c) Electrocardiogram
d) Respiratory pump

A

d) Respiratory pump

84
Q
  • When muscle contract, they squeeze the veins
  • Results in blood moving forward and prevented from backflow by the veins

a) Cardiac Output
b) Muscular pump
c) Medullary
d) Vascular shock

A

b) Muscular pump

85
Q

What are the types of Hypotension?

A
  • Orthostatic
  • Chronic
  • Hemorrhage
  • Acute
86
Q

Temporary drop in blood pressure when moving from a prone to standing position

a) Orthostatic Hypotension
b) Atrial Fibrillation
c) Parietal Pleura
d) Ventricular Fibrillation

A

a) Orthostatic Hypotension

87
Q

Indicates poor nutrition, low blood viscosity, or Addison’s disease, leading to consistently low blood pressure

a) Pleural Fluid
b) Chronic Hypotension
c) Prolonged Hypertension
d) Cardiogenic Shock

A

b) Chronic Hypotension

88
Q

Major cause of hypotension, resulting in a sudden drop in blood pressure

a) Hematoma
b) Hypertension
c) Hemorrhage
d) Hemophilia

A

c) Hemorrhage

89
Q

One of the most important signs of circulatory shock

a) Circulatory shock
b) Hypovolemic, cardiogenic, or vascular
c) Acute hypotension
d) Hypovolemic shock

A

c) Acute Hypotension

90
Q

Types of Circulatory Shock

A
  • Hypovolemic
  • Cardiogenic
  • Vascular
91
Q
  • Most common form of shock
  • Results from large blood loss
  • Usually follows hemorrhage, severe vomiting, severe diarrhea, and extensive burns

a) Hypovolemic shock
b) Hypoxemic hypoxia
c) Echocardiography
d) Vascular shock

A

a) Hypovolemic shock

92
Q

If BV (blood volume) drops, HR (heart rate) [increases/decreases] to try to compensate.

93
Q
  • Pump failure
  • Heart cannot sustain adequate circulation
  • Usually the result of myocardial damage following a severe MI of multiple MIs

a) Cardiogenic shock
b) Diuretics
c) Hypoxemic hypoxia
d) Hypovolemic shock

A

a) Cardiogenic shock

94
Q
  • Huge drop in total peripheral resistance
  • Leads to drop in mean arterial presure
  • BV is normal, but poor circulation due to abnormal expansion of vascular bed caused by extreme vasodilation
  • Loss of vasomotor tone associated with anaphylaxis, loss of nervous system regulation, septicemia

a) Vascular shock
b) Cardiac angiography
c) Inspiration
d) Muscular pump

A

a) Vascular shock

95
Q

Chronically elevated blood pressure

a) Fibrillation
b) Hypoxia
c) Hypertension
d) Capillaries

A

c) Hypertension

96
Q

Major cause of heart failure, renal failure, stroke, and vascular disease

a) Lung compliance
b) Rupture of an aortic aneurism
c) Prolonged hypertension
d) Orthostatic hypotension

A

c) Prolonged hypertension

97
Q

We cannot cure __________________ but we can manage it

a) Hypertension
b) Capillaries
c) Fibrillation
d) Arrhythmias

A

a) Hypertension

98
Q

Factors Causing Hypertension

A
  • Diet
  • Obesity
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Diabetes Mellitus
  • Genetics
  • Stress
  • Smoking
99
Q

What are the drugs used to treat hypertension?

A
  • Diuretics
  • Beta-advoneryic receptor blockers
  • Ca2+ channel blockers
  • Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
  • Drugs that antagonize one or move components of the sympathetic nervous system
100
Q

Increase urinary excretion of sodium and water. They decrease cardiac output with little to no change in total peripheral resistance

a) Vasodilators
b) Diuretics
c) Enuresis
d) Aldosterone

A

b) Diuretics

101
Q

These drugs exert their antihypertensive effects mainly by reducing cardiac output.

a) Diuretics
b) Ca2+ channel blockers
c) Beta-advoneryic receptor blockers
d) Node cells

A

c) Beta-advoneryic receptor
blockers

102
Q

These drugs reduce the entry of Ca2+ into vascular smooth muscle cells, causing them to contract less strongly and lowering total peripheral resistance

a) Capillaries
b) T-type channels
c) Ca2+ channel blockers
d) Ca2+ activated K+ currents

A

c) Ca2+ channel blockers

103
Q

Reduce the concentration of angiotensin II in plasma, which causes arteriolar vasodilation, lowering total peripheral resistance.

a) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
b) Type II alveolar cells
c) Respiratory zone & conducting zone
d) Type I alveolar cells

A

a) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

104
Q

Main function: to supply the body and tissues with O2 and dispose of CO2 generated by cellular metabolism

a) Endocrine System
b) Respiratory System
c) Circulatory System
d) Vascular System

A

b) Respiratory System

105
Q

What are the four respiratory processes?

A
  1. Pulmonary ventilation
  2. External respiration
  3. Transport of respiratory gases in the blood
  4. Internal respiration
106
Q

The airways are composed of:

A

Nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, alveoli

107
Q

Respiratory system is divided into:

A
  • Conducting zone
  • Respiratory zone
108
Q

Windpipe of the respiratory system; composed of 4 layers

a) Capillaries
b) Trachea
c) Larynx
d) Pleura

A

b) Trachea

109
Q

What are the four layers of the trachea?

A
  1. Mucosa
  2. Submucosa
  3. Cartilaginous layer
  4. Adventitia
110
Q
  • Site of gas exchange
  • Tiny, hollow sacs that open into the lumens of the airways

a) Ventilation
b) Blood Flow
c) Alveoli
d) Lungs

A

c) Alveoli

111
Q

Simple layer or flat epithelial cells in the alveoli

a) Node cells
b) Type I alveolar cells
c) Lung compliance
d) Net filtration pressure

A

b) Type I alveolar cells

112
Q

Surfactant; Detergent-like substances in the alveoli

A

Type ll alveolar cells

113
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

Total surface area of alveoli is very large

114
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

Alveoli permits the rapid exchange of gases by diffusion

115
Q

Allow air flow between alveoli

a) Alveolar pores
b) Pleural fluid
c) Parietal pleura
d) Visceral pleura

A

a) Alveolar pores

116
Q

Thin double-walled serosa for lung lubrication

a) Pleurae
b) Visceral Pleura
c) Trachea
d) Pleurisy

A

a) Pleurae

117
Q

What are the two types of pleurae?

a) Parietal and Visceral
b) Fibrous and Serous
c) Arteries and Veins
d) Pleura and Parietal

A

a) Parietal and Visceral

118
Q

Covers thoracic wall and superior diaphragm

a) Visceral pleura
b) Parietal pleura
c) Pleurisy
d) Pleural fluid

A

b) Parietal pleura

119
Q

Covers lung’s external surface

a) Visceral pleura
b) Parietal pleura
c) Pleurisy
d) Pleural fluid

A

a) Visceral pleura

120
Q

Provides lung lubrication to prevent friction

a) Surfactant
b) Parietal pleura
c) Visceral pleura
d) Pleural fluid

A

d) Pleural fluid

121
Q

Infection or inflammation causing roughening of pleura

a) Pleurisy
b) Asthma
c) Parietal Pleura
d) Visceral Pleura

A

a) Pleurisy

122
Q

Volume change leading to pressure change for gas flow

a) Defibrillation
b) Lung Compliance
c) Blood Flow
d) Ventilation

A

d) Ventilation

123
Q

Reduces surface tension within alveoli

a) Transpulmonary Pressure
b) Pleural Fluid
c) Alveolar Pores
d) Surfactant

A

d) Surfactant

124
Q

At constant temperature, gas pressure varies inversely with volume

a) Henry’s law
b) Boyle’s law
c) Dalton’s law

A

b) Boyle’s law

125
Q

What is the equation of Boyle’s law?

a) Pv = Nrt
b) ∆P/R
c) P1V1 = P2V2
d) P = 2t/r

A

c) P1V1 = P2V2

126
Q
  • Palv
  • Rises and falls with breathing
  • Always equalized with atmospheric pressure

a) Electrocardiogram
b) Intrapleural Pressure
c) Transpulmonary Pressure
d) Intrapulmonary Pressure

A

d) Intrapulmonary Pressure

127
Q
  • Pip
  • Fluctuates with breathing
  • Always 4 mmHg less than Palv

a) Sinusoidal capillary
b) Intrapleural Pressure
c) Intrapulmonary Pressure
d) Fenestrated capillary

A

b) Intrapleural Pressure

128
Q

If Intrapleural pressure equals pulmonary pressure ___________________.

a) pressure changes
b) always lower than alveolar pressure
c) lungs collapse

A

c) lungs collapse

129
Q
  • Governs the static properties of the lungs
  • Palv – Pip
  • Represented by the pressure inside (Pi) of the structure minus the pressure outside structure (Po)

a) Flow-Pressure Relationship
b) Ca2+ channel blockers
c) Transpulmonary Pressure
d) Lung compliance

A

c) Transpulmonary Pressure

130
Q

Inflation of lungs require increase in _________________ pressure

a) Ejection Fraction
b) Hyperventilation
c) Transmural
d) Internal

A

c) Transmural

131
Q

Pressure difference inside lung structures

a) Transpulmonary Pressure
b) Pulse Pressure
c) Surfactant
d) Atmospheric Pressure

A

a) Transpulmonary Pressure

132
Q

[Inspiration/Expiration]

  1. Diaphragm and inspiratory intercostals contract
  2. Thorax expands
  3. Pi becomes more subatmospheric
  4. Higher transpulmonary pressure
  5. Lungs expand
  6. Palv becomes subatmospheric
  7. Air flows into the alveoli
A

Inspiration

133
Q

[Inspiration/Expiration]

  1. Diaphragm and inspiratory intercostals stop
    contracting
  2. Chest wall recoils inward
  3. Pip moves back toward preinspiration value
  4. Transpulmonary pressure moves back toward preinspiration value
  5. Lungs recoil toward preinspiration size
  6. Air in alveoli becomes compressed
  7. Palv becomes greater than Pip
  8. Aif flows out of lungs
A

Expiration

134
Q

Ease of lung expansion at given transpulmonary pressure change

a) Lung Compliance
b) Surfactant
c) Ventilation
d) Prolonged Hypertension

A

a) Lung Compliance

135
Q

The greater the ______________________, the easier it is to expand the lungs at any given change in transpulmonary pressure

a) Lung compliance
b) Ventilation
c) Venous pressure
d) Surfactant

A

a) Lung compliance

136
Q

Two major determinants of Lung compliance

A
  1. Stretchability of lung tissues
  2. Surface tension at air-water interfaces within alveoli
137
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

Surfactant lowers surface tension

138
Q
  • Normally very small, but changes would follow changes in airway radii
  • Changes in response to physical, neural, and chemical factors
  • Greatest resistance found in medium-sized bronchi

a) Echocardiography
b) Airway Resistance
c) Anemic hypoxia
d) Cardiac angiography

A

b) Airway Resistance

139
Q
  • Lack of surfactant in babies, especially those born premature
  • Too little surfactant allows alveoli to collapse and then they have to re-inflate every time
  • Normally, surfactants are not made until the last 2 months in utero

a) Airway Resistance
b) Neural Generation of Rhythmical Breathing
c) Flow-Pressure Relationship
d) Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS)

A

d) Infant Respiratory Distress
Syndrome (IRDS)

140
Q

Chronic airway inflammation causing increased resistance

a) Hypertension
b) Pleurisy
c) Trachea
d) Asthma

141
Q

Emphysema/chronic bronchitis leading to ventilation difficulties

a) Respiratory system
b) Asthma
c) Orthostatic hypotension
d) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

A

d) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

142
Q

Increased breathing rate due to various factors

a) Hypertension
b) Hyperventillation
c) Defibrillation
d) Transmural

A

b) Hyperventilation

143
Q

In decreased __________________, PO2 also decreases in the pulmonary blood

a) Lung Compliance
b) Ventillation
c) Blood Flow
d) Cardiac Output

A

b) Ventilation

144
Q

In decreased _____________________, PCO2 also decreases in the alveoli

a) Ventilation
b) Pulse Pressure
c) Venous Pressure
d) Blood Flow

A

d) Blood Flow

145
Q

Overdose of morphine, barbiturates or alcohol— suppresses neurons in ventral respiratory group and stops respiration

a) Velocity of Capillary Blood Flow
b) Ejection Fraction
c) Neural Generation of Rhythmical Breathing
d) Respiratory System

A

c) Neural Generation of Rhythmical Breathing

146
Q

During ___________________, Decreased Inspired PO2 Decreased Alveolar PO2 occurs

a) Ejection Fraction
b) Hypertension
c) Fibrillation
d) Hyperventilation

A

d) Hyperventilation

147
Q

In Peripheral chemoreceptors: Increased Firing, Reflex is via _________________ respiratory neurons

a) Follicular
b) Medullary
c) Papillary
d) Cortical

A

b) Medullary

148
Q

Motor complex controlling breathing rhythm

A

Neural Generation of Rhythmical Breathing

149
Q

Various types like anemic, ischemic, histotoxic, and hypoxemic

a) Hypoxia
b) Asthma
c) Arrhythmias
d) Pleurisy

A

a) Hypoxia

150
Q

What are the Factors Affecting Sleep Apnea?

A
  1. Compromised upper airway anatomy and increased compliance
  2. Obesity
  3. Decreased upper airway dilator muscle activity
  4. Decreased Arterial PO2 and Increased Arterial PCO2
  5. Frequent arousal and sleep disruption
151
Q

What are the other ventilatory response?

a) Mucosa, Submucosa, Cartilaginous layer, Adventitia
b) Orthostatic, Chronic Hemorrhage, Acute
c) Protective reflexes, Voluntary control of breathing, Reflexes from J receptors

A

c) Protective reflexes, Voluntary control of breathing, Reflexes from J receptors

152
Q

Coughing, sneezing

a) Pulmonary reflexes
b) Chemoreceptor reflexes
c) Respiration reflexes
d) Protective reflexes

A

d) Protective reflexes

153
Q

Holding your breath, laughing

a) Central chemoreceptors
b) Pulmonary compliance
c) Dorsal respiratory group
d) Voluntary control of breathing

A

d) Voluntary control of breathing

154
Q

Causes hypoxemic hypoxia, leading to respiratory distress

a) Anemic Hypoxia
b) Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
c) Asthma
d) Pleural Fluid

A

b) Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

155
Q

Poor O2 delivery due to too few RBCs or abnormal Hb

a) Chronic hypotention
b) Alveolar pores
c) Anemic hypoxia
d) Capillaries

A

c) Anemic hypoxia

156
Q

Impaired blood circulation

a) Chronic hypotension
b) Ventricular fibrillation
c) Ischemic hypoxia
d) Capillaries

A

c) Ischemic hypoxia

157
Q

Body’s cells can’t use O2

a) Cardiac output
b) Histotoxic hypoxia
c) Visceral pleura
d) Chronic hypotension

A

b) Histotoxic hypoxia

158
Q

Reduced arterial O2 due to lack of oxygenated air, pulmonary problems

a) Hypoxemic hypoxia
b) Histotoxic hypoxia
c) Capillaries
d) Ventricular fibrillation

A

a) Hypoxemic hypoxia

159
Q

Leading cause of death from fire

a) Anemic Hypoxia
b) Histotoxic Hypoxia
c) Hypoxia
d) Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

A

d) Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

160
Q

Type of hypoxemic hypoxia

a) Anemic Hypoxia
b) Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
c) Net Filtration Pressure
d) Histotoxic Hypoxia

A

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

161
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

↑ Contractility ↑ EF

162
Q

Neither laminar nor turbulent, which calls for more specific formulas for resistance.

a) Expiration
b) Turbulent
c) Metabolic Functions
d) Transitional

A

d) Transitional

163
Q

Contribute to most of the resonance during auscultation.

a) Parabolic flow
b) Laminar flow
c) Turbulent flow
d) Plug flow

A

c) Turbulent flow

164
Q

[TRUE/FALSE]

Lung does not completely empty during expiration.

165
Q

Very little sound during auscultation (“silent zones”)

a) Parabolic flow
b) Turbulent flow
c) Laminar flow
d) Plug flow

A

c) Laminar flow

166
Q

Contain glands and individual epithelial cells that secrete mucus, and macrophages, which can phagocytize inhaled pathogens.

a) Mucociliary Escalator
b) Alveolar Macrophages
c) Lung Ventilation
d) Respiratory Membrane

A

a) Mucociliary Escalator

167
Q

This is a common lethal genetic disease among Caucasians, and is characterized by the mucus layer being thick and dehydrated, obstructing the airways.

a) Cystic Fibrosis
b) Chronic Bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Asthma

A

a) Cystic Fibrosis

168
Q

Infection or inflammation of the pleura often results from pneumonia.

a) Pneumonia
b) Asthma
c) Pleuritis
d) Expiration

A

c) Pleuritis

169
Q

Volumes of inhaled air that do not undergo gas exchange with the blood.

a) Seromas
b) Windows Of Contamination
c) Dead Spaces
d) Physiologic Dead Space

A

c) Dead Spaces

170
Q

Characterized by excessive mucus production in the bronchi and chronic inflammatory changes in the small airways.

a) Cystic fibrosis
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Parietal pleura
d) Emphysema

A

b) Chronic bronchitis

171
Q

Volume of inhaled air that is not exchanged since it enters alveoli with little or no blood supply.

a) Anatomic Dead Space
b) Physiologic Dead Space
c) Alveolar Dead Space
d) Dead Spaces

A

c) Alveolar Dead Space

172
Q

Occur mostly in peripheral airways.

a) Resistance
b) Laminar
c) Turbulent
d) Tidal Volume

A

b) Laminar

173
Q

Total volume of inhaled air that is not exchanged.

a) Alveolar Dead Space
b) Physiologic Dead Space
c) Anatomic Dead Space
d) Functional Residual Capacity

A

b) Physiologic Dead Space

174
Q

Extends from the top of the trachea to the end of the terminal bronchioles.

a) Tidal volume
b) Alveoli
c) Conducting zone
d) Respiratory zone

A

c) Conducting zone

175
Q

Extremely flat cell to allow easy gas diffusion while maintaining integrity of the alveolocapillary barrier; covers mass surface of wall.

a) Clara Cell
b) Brush Cell Answer
c) Type I Pneumocyte
d) Dust Cell

A

c) Type I Pneumocyte

176
Q

Extends from the respiratory bronchioles down to the alveoli.

a) Alveoli
b) Visceral pleura
c) Conducting zone
d) Respiratory zone

A

d) Respiratory zone

177
Q

Holding of breath will make the blood more ____________________, while rapid breathing will make it more ______________________.

A

Acidic (CO2 increases)
Alkaline (O2 increases)

178
Q

The utilization of oxygen in the metabolism of organic molecules.

a) Internal or pulmonary ventilation
b) Expiration
c) Internal or cellular respiration
d) Lung ventilation

A

c) Internal or cellular respiration

179
Q

Occur mostly in central airways.

a) Turbulent
b) Laminar
c) Laminar Flow
d) Disturbed

A

a) Turbulent

180
Q

Acts to bring the new air from the atmosphere to the respiratory zone of the lungs.

a) Vital Capacity Of The Lungs
b) Inspiration
c) Emphysema
d) Lung Ventilation

A

d) Lung Ventilation

181
Q

Destruction and collapse of the smaller airways.

a) Alveoli
b) Emphysema
c) Chronic Bronchitis
d) Asthma

A

b) Emphysema

182
Q

When the temperature of a gas is held constant, the pressure it exerts is inversely proportional to its volume.

a) Boyle’s Law
b) Dalton’s Law
c) Henry’s Law

A

a) Boyle’s Law

183
Q

Volume of inhaled air that is not exchanged, since it remains in the conduction zone (~ 150 ml out of the Tidal Volume of 500 ml).

a) Physiologic Dead Space
b) Alveolar Dead Space
c) Anatomic Dead Space
d) Dead Spaces

A

c) Anatomic Dead Space

184
Q

Standard (minimum) test for evaluating lung function evaluation.

a) Spirometry
b) Expiration
c) Inspiration
d) Tidal Volume

A

a) Spirometry

185
Q

Disease characterized by intermittent episodes in which airway smooth muscle contracts strongly, markedly increasing airway resistance.

a) Cystic Fibrosis
b) Chronic Bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Asthma

186
Q

Secretory cuboidal cell which secretes phospholipid surfactant.

a) Type II Pneumocyte
b) Visceral Pleura
c) Dust Cell
d) Brush Cell Answer

A

a) Type II Pneumocyte

187
Q

Describes energy loss due to friction and turbulence (acceleration due to spinning) of gas when there is flow.

a) Tolerance
b) Resistance
c) Asthma
d) Resilience

A

b) Resistance

188
Q

Equation of airflow:

a) HR x SV
b) ∆V/∆P
c) ∆P/R
d) ∆V/R

189
Q

Lung Capaity:
- Total lung volume (~6L)

a) total lung capacity (TLC)
b) vital capacity (VC)
c) inspiratory capacity (IC)
d) functional residual capacity (FRC)

A

Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

190
Q

Lung Capacity:
- ERV + RV
- Volume in the lungs after a TV is expired

a) total lung capacity (TLC)
b) vital capacity (VC)
c) inspiratory capacity (IC)
d) functional residual capacity (FRC)

A

Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)

191
Q

Lung Capacity:
- TV + IRV + ERV
- The volume that can be forcibly expired after a maximal inspiration

a) total lung capacity (TLC)
b) vital capacity (VC)
c) inspiratory capacity (IC)
d) functional residual capacity (FRC)

A

Vital Capacity (VC)

192
Q

Lung Capacity:
TV + IRV

a) total lung capacity (TLC)
b) vital capacity (VC)
c) inspiratory capacity (IC)
d) functional residual capacity (FRC)

A

Inspiratory Capacity (IC)

193
Q

Volume that remains in the lungs after a maximal expiration (after ERV)

a) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
b) tidal volume (TV)
c) residual volume (RV)
d) inspiratory capacity (IC)

A

Residual Volume (RV)

194
Q

Volume that can be expired after the expiration of tidal volume

a) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
b) residual volume (RV)
c) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
d) tidal volume (TV)

A

Expiratory Reserve volume (ERV)

195
Q

Volume that can be inspired over and above the tidal volume (Used in exercise)

a) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
b) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
c) residual volume (RV)
d) tidal volume (TV)

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

196
Q

Volume inspired and expired in a normal breath

a) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
b) tidal volume (TV)
c) expiratory reserve volume (erv)
d) residual volume (RV)

A

Tidal Volume (TV)

PHYSIOL (6 decks)

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