Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clin Path > LE 2 CP > Flashcards

LE 2 CP Flashcards

1
Q

Which falls under the WHO ASSURED criteria for point of care tests?
a. Complicated
b. Expensive
c. Specific
d. Esoteric

A

c. Specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following sets a POCT apart from the usual laboratory test?
a. The POCT specimen is sent to a lab
b. There is direct feedback of POCT result to the patient
c. The POCT report is transmitted to the doctor’s office
d. NOTA

A

b. There is direct feedback of POCT result to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the major advantage of a POCT compared to the usual laboratory test?
a. Patient stays tend to be longer with POCT
b. POCT results are more accurate than laboratory tests?
c. In general, a smaller amount of sample is required
d. NOTA

A

c. In general, a smaller amount of sample is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a major disadvantage of a POCT compared to the usual laboratory test?
a. There are fewer errors with POCT results compared to lab tests
b. Quality control needs to be taken into consideration
c. Lab tests are more convenient to the patient
d. NOTA

A

b. Quality control needs to be taken into consideration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where can POCT be done?
a. At home
b. In the ER
c. Inside an ambulance
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following statements regarding POCT training is true?
a. Anyone with the proper training can operate most POCT machines
b. There is little to no variability in how POCT users operate the machine
c. Laymen are the best source of information for teaching POCT use
d. NOTA

A

a. Anyone with the proper training can operate most POCT machines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following serve as a bioreceptor for POCT test?
a. Multiplexer
b. Nuclei Acids
c. Monochromators
d. None of the above

A

b. Nuclei Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In lateral flow immunoassays, signals are generated by the formation of sandwich complexes
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Home pregnancy tests are a type of lateral flow assay that detects the presence of:
a. Luteinizing hormone
b. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
c. Estrogen
d. The question is invalid, pregnancy tests are not a type of lateral flow assay

A

b. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Multi-use cartridge or bench top point of care testing systems:
a. Are usually used in critical care
b. Can also be seen in some surgical suites
c. Utilize thick film sensors or electrodes in strips to detect several analytes
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

POCtests for the following can be non-invasive:
a. Urea
b. Bilirubin
c. CRP
d. None of the above

A

b. Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

POCTs can act as reservoirs for microorganisms if these machines are not properly maintained.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of laboratory would an automated system help the best?
a. A remote primary laboratory with more than enough staff
b. A laboratory that receives a low monthly/daily volume of samples
c. A lab with high turnaround time
d. NOTA

A

c. A lab with high turnaround time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ideally, where and when should the identifying link between patient and specimen be created?
a. At bedside, post extraction
b. At the ward station, after extracting from all the ward patients for the day
c. At the laboratory, before inserting the sample into the machine
d. After the result generation

A

a. At bedside, post extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following should be included in the primary label of a specimen
a. Name
b. Accession number
c. Patient Age
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is an example of a two dimensional bar coding system?
a. PDF9001
b. QR code
c. Date Helix code
d. NOTA

A

b. QR code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What problems could be encountered if one relays samples via a courier system?
a. Specimen breaks
b. Specimen is not stored properly (not hot or cold enough, exposed to light)
c. Specimen is agitated during the transport process
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can be done to prevent errors in analyzing photolabile analytes
a. Make the containers optically clear
b. Make the container large with an air liquid space
c. Make the containers tinted orange or smoke colored
d. NOTA

A

c. Make the containers tinted orange or smoke colored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Beads and fiber matrices are example of:
    a. Denaturators
    b. Antibody Detachment Sites
    c. Solid Phases where antibodies are adsorbed
    d. Transducers
A

c. Solid Phases where antibodies are adsorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This refers to a type of analysis where batches of specimens are examined in a stream at the same rate.
a. Continuous Flow Systems
b. Discrete Processing Systems
c. Batch Flow Processing Systems
d. NOTA

A

a. Continuous Flow Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does one minimize carry-over, especially with discrete processing systems?
a. Make the rate of sampling faster
b. Establish a washing station for the sampler
c. Use the same pipette tip for all tests
d. NOTA

A

b. Establish a washing station for the sampler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In an open system, reagents are generally:
a. Stable over short periods of time
b. Made by ingredients that come from a number of suppliers
c. Prepared by the manufacturer
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does a laboratory workstation do?
a. Interfaces with the library information system
b. Displays quality control charts
c. Help troubleshoot the analyzer machine
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. In an automated laboratory analysis, the coulter principle is applied mostly to:
    a. Determining maturation
    b. Condensing elements such as DNA
    c. Counting cells
    d. Direct determination of antibody binding capacity
A

c. Counting cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Flow Cytometry is usually used in complete blood counts. Which of the following cellular characteristics is not derived from this method?
a. Size and shape
b. granularity
c. Nuclear lobularity
d. Mitotic rate

A

d. Mitotic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most important goal of Quality Control?
a. To please supply chain problems
b. To please your financial clients
c. To detect analytical errors and correct them
d. NOTA

A

c. To detect analytical errors and correct them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Specimen collection is part of the:
a. Pre-analytic phase
b. Post-analytic phase
c. Analytic phase
d. Semi-analytic phase

A

a. Pre-analytic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

These two consist a majority of the errors received during lab tests
a. Pre and post analytic phases
b. Alytic and pre-analytic phases
c. Analytic and post analytic phases
d. NOTA

A

a. Pre and post analytic phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What characteristics of a lab test could contribute to a higher chance of error?
a. A one-step test
b. A test that is considered the benchmark test
c. A long, complex, multi step test
d. A test that is easy to perform

A

c. A long, complex, multi step test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following is a source of pre-analytic error?
a. Mislabeled specimen
b. Clotted / hemolyzed specimen
c. Eating food 6 hrs before FBS test
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can the healthcare team/lab personnel do to avoid pre-analytical errors?
a. Calibrate machines regularly
b. Perform machine maintenance
c. Create a log of all results transmitted
d. Train phlebotomists adequately

A

d. Train phlebotomists adequately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is considered a post-analytical error?
a. Incorrect labeling
b. Misidentification of patients to be extracted
c. Anomalous trend in the analyzer
d. Transcription error

A

d. Transcription error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If a sample sent to the lab is not acceptable, the BEST course of action would be:
a. Report erroneous results anyway
b. Contact the clinicians to inform them that the sample is not acceptable
c. Wait an hour before contacting the clinicians
d. Don’t say anything and let them figure it out

A

b. Contact the clinicians to inform them that the sample is not acceptable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

. ________ is the phase with the highest proportion of errors:
a. Pre-analytical
b. Post-analytical
c. Semi-analytic
d. Analytic

A

a. Pre-analytical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What pre-analytic variable affects an ABG result?
a. Error in pulse oximeter readout
b. Improper transmission of results
c. Software error
d. Air bubbles in the syringe

A

c. Software error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

You are in charge of a laboratory. During an interdepartmental meeting, the clinicians say that the interval between specimen submission and the giving of results is too long. The problem is eventually traced to a slow printer and a lack of a Lab Information System. What is this interval called, and in this particular case in what analytic phase is it a problem?
a. Preanalytic phase - processing interval
b. Analytic phase - calibration period
c. Postanalytic phase - turnaround time
d. Preanalytic phase - temporal storage

A

c. Postanalytic phase - turnaround time

37
Q

You’re the resident in charge of a twice weekly shift of nurses and medical interns and clerks in a large hospital ward. In order to prevent pre-analytical errors, what’s a good thing to do when meeting an incoming batch of interns and clerks for the first time?
a. Delegate all tasks to the nurses
b. Without doing anything, put them through a baptism of fire
c. Learn what their baseline skills are and teach those who are deficient

A

c. Learn what their baseline skills are and teach those who are deficient

38
Q

Clinical Pathology deals with the diagnosis of disease based on the laboratory analysis of substances such as:
a. Semen
b. Feces
c. Blood
d. All of the given choices are correct

A

d. All of the given choices are correct

39
Q

. A good laboratory result is:
a. Accurate
b. Reliable
c. Timely
d. All of the choices are correct

A

d. All of the choices are correct

40
Q
  1. What consequences may happen when a lab generates an incorrect result?
    a. The patient gets treated unnecessarily
    b. A sick patient gets the correct diagnosis
    c. No additional lab tests may be done
    d. None of the above choices are correct
A

a. The patient gets treated unnecessarily

41
Q

The efficient operation of a clinical laboratory involves the following:
a. The mastery of a single discipline only
b. Connected knowledge in different fields of expertise
c. Isolation between management and employees
d. None of the above choices are correct

A

b. Connected knowledge in different fields of expertise

42
Q
  1. True regarding quality management systems
    A. Not all large laboratories need to have them
    B. It encompasses most of the operations of the lab
    C. ISO 16001 is an example
    D. None of the choices are correct
A

b. It encompasses most of the operations of the lab

43
Q

Why do labs need a quality management system?
a. The question is incorrect, labs do not require a quality management system
b. Labs are accurate by themselves and there is no need for accuracy
c. Labs have complex processes and they need to be assessed to guarantee quality
d. None of the above choices is correct

A

c. Labs have complex processes and they need to be assessed to guarantee quality

44
Q

Which of the following is important in collecting medical records?
a. Where to store the records
b. How long to retain the records
c. How these records are organized
d. AOTA

45
Q

What is a consideration in planning for laboratory waste management?
a. Where the wastewater will be disposed
b. How to segregate infectious from non-infectious waste
c. How to properly dispose of sharps
d. All of the above are considerations of laboratory waste management

A

d. All of the above are considerations of laboratory waste management

46
Q

Ergonomics refer to a system of designing and arranging things that the people and these things interact most efficiently.
a. True
b. False

47
Q

A laboratory’s strength describes the advantage of that laboratory in comparison with other similar laboratories in the same geographical region.
a. True
b. False

48
Q

A consideration in determining how many lab workers will work in your laboratory is:
a. How much you will have to spend for their salaries
b. The size of the laboratory
c. The number of tests your laboratory can handle (test load)
d. All of the above are correct

A

d. All of the above are correct

49
Q

It is very difficult to give a precise definition of the term ‘management’.
a. True
b. False

50
Q

Management involves the coordination and integration of resources to accomplish specific results
a. True
b. False

51
Q

Any manager must have a good knowledge of certain quantitative methods and analysis of financial and statistical data
a. True
b. False

52
Q

A lab’s physical resources refer to its operating and capital budget
a. True
b. False

53
Q

In the equation for Beer-Lambert’s Law, which of the following can also be influenced by the size of the sample container, assuming ideal and appropriate conditions?
a. Absorptivity
b. Path length
c. Molar concentration
d. None of the above

A

b. Path length

54
Q

Colorimetry and spectrophotometry can refer to the following:
a. Employs color to determine the concentrations of various substances
b. Employs color variations to determine the concentration of various substances
c. Measures the luminous intensity of light
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

55
Q

This term specifically refers to a procedure for the quantitative determination of chemical elements using the absorption of optical radiation (light) by free atoms in the gaseous state.
a. Nephelometry
b. Microconcentration colorimetry
c. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
d. Side scatter quantum turbidimetry

A

c. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

56
Q

In the visible light spectrum, the color red is in what nanometer range?
a. 1380-440 nm
b. 500-580 nm
c. 600-620 nm
d. 620-750 nm

A

d. 620-750 nm

57
Q

Deviation from Beer’s Law become apparent at
a. Higher concentration
b. Shifts or changes in chemical or physical equilibrium involving the absorbing species
c. Changes in instrument function
d. AOTA

58
Q

True or False, the light emission from an excited electronic state can refer to both fluorescence and phosphorescence, differing only whether it is a singlet or triplet excited state.
a. True
b. False

59
Q

Which kind of test would be a good fit determining clot formation in coagulation studies?
a. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
b. Turbidimetry
c. Electrophoresis
d. NOTA

A

a. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

60
Q

What is the most constant thing in electrophoresis test?
a. The medium is always gel
b. The size of particle is constant
c. The presence of an electric field (negative or positive charge)
d. None of the above

A

c. The presence of an electric field (negative or positive charge)

61
Q

Used for drug abused testing, this method is based on the fragmentation of and ionization of molecules using a suitable source of energy, where they are arranged in order of mass
a. Mass spectroscopy
b. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
c. Colourimetry
d. Flourimetry

A

a. Mass spectroscopy

62
Q

In a spectrophotometer, the light emitted by the light source is generally:
a. Polychromatic (white light) before passing through another component
b. Monochromatic from the start
c. Neither of the above apply

A

a. Polychromatic (white light) before passing through another component

63
Q

Which instrument requires a primary and secondary monochromator?
A. Spectrophotometer
B. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer
C. Fluorometer
D. Nephelometer

A

Fluorometer

64
Q

In gas chromatography, the elution order of volatiles is usually based upon the:
A. Boiling point
B. Molecular size
C. Carbon content
D. Polarity

A

Boiling point

65
Q

What is the confirmatory method for measuring drugs of abuse?
A. HPLC
B. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT)
C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy (GC-MS)
D. TLC

A

Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy (GC-MS)

66
Q

In absorption spectrophotometry:
A. Absorbance is directly proportional to transmittance
B. Percent transmittance is directly proportional to the concentration
C. Percent transmittance is directly proportional to the light path length
D. Absorbance is directly proportional to the concentration

A

Absorbance is directly proportional to the concentration

67
Q
  1. This method of measures the concentration in terms of light energy scattered in a forward direction by small particles in solution. The intensity of the scattered light is directly proportional to the number of particles in the solution.
    A. Turbidimetry
    B. Nephelometry
    C. Fluorometry
    D. Osmometry
A

Nephelometry

68
Q

6 Test RT-PCR is a confirmatory test for presence of covid-19 in a patient tested to be positive in COVID antigen test. This confirmatory test requires
A. High sensitivity so that no case is missed
B. High specificity to be certain of the
diagnosis
C. High precision so that it will be compatible with the antigen test
D. That it is suggestive of the presence of the
disease

A

B. High specificity to be certain of the
diagnosis

69
Q
  1. Sorting samples for different workstations
    A. Pre-analytic
    B. Analytic
    C. Post-analytic
A

A. Pre-analytic

70
Q

8.Automated delivery system that transport a larger number of specimens than pneumatic but require a station for loading and unloading specimens, posing a problem in facilities with limited space
A. Conveyor systems
B. Pneumatic tube
C. Mobile robots
D. Electrical track vehicles

A

D. Electrical track vehicles

71
Q
  1. The most basic unit of automation
    A. Analyzer machine
    B. Workstation
    C. Laboratory Information System
    D. Workcell
A

B. Workstation

72
Q
  1. Which of the following test is NOT done as point of care?
    A. Urinalysis
    B. Glucose
    C. HPV
    D. CBC
A

A. Urinalysis

73
Q
  1. Point of care in hematology is not capable of:
    A. Hemoglobin
    B. Hematocrit
    C. INR
    D. WBC differential count
A

D. WBC differential count

74
Q

17 This automated delivery system can load blood collection tubes into a carrier and program it to go to the laboratory or medications from pharmacies can be delivered to different wards
A. Conveyor systems
B. Pneumatic tube
C. Mobile robot
D. Electrical track vehicles

A

B. Pneumatic tube

75
Q

19 Point of care testing is not performed in the emergency room
A. True
B. False

76
Q
  1. Point of care testing can be performed at:
    A. Hospital
    B. Office
    C. Home
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

77
Q
  1. Automated specimen inspection can potentially address two of the most significant preanalytic concerns
    A. True
    B. False
78
Q

24 Disadvantages of point of care testing:
A. Reduced turnaround time (TAT)
B. Reduced turnaround time (TAT)
C. Self contained and user friendly instruments.
D. Bedside tests performed by poorly trained personnel.

A

D. Bedside tests performed by poorly trained personnel.

79
Q

25 Which of the following is NOT a sample of automated delivery system?
A. Pneumatic tube
B. Mobile robots
C. Laboratory information system
D. Conveyor systems

A

C. Laboratory information system

80
Q
  1. which of the following is not an advantage of RFID
    a. dynamic data storage
    B. not affected by cold storage
    C. Transfers sample into another container
    D. Can be read without having to open the container
A

C. Transfers sample into another container

81
Q
  1. Automatic sampling can be accomplished by:
    A. Stainless steel probes
    B. Hydrostatic pump
    C. NonLiquid displacement pipette
A

A. Stainless steel probes

82
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of first random analyzer?
    A. sequentially analyzed each sample in a single or multiple parallel channel configuration
    B. It has a single analytic pathway for all testing instead of dedicated channels for each test.
    C. Tests are initiated sequentially based on what is ordered—that is, tests are not batched.
    D. It has a flexible configuration to process each test’s unique parameters
A

B. It has a single analytic pathway for all testing instead of dedicated channels for each test.

83
Q

31.Ability of a laboratory test to detect positivity in the presence of disease.
A. Sensitivity
B. Predictive value
C. Specificity
D. Relative Risk

A

A. Sensitivity

84
Q
  1. Which of the following Point of care test is done at the emergency room?
    A. hiv test
    B. cardiac markers
    c.hepatitis b surface antigen
    d. urinalysis
A

B. cardiac markers

85
Q
  1. Which of the following will drive laboratory automation?
    A. To Increase maintenance
    B. Need to increase calibration
    C. Need to increase downtime
    D. Increasing turn around time
A

D. Increasing turn around time

86
Q
  1. This refers to the scope of laboratory tests that are performed where patient care is delivered
    A. Automated laboratory
    B. Point of care testing
    C. Laboratory information system
A

B. Point of care testing

87
Q
  1. Which of the following can perform Point of care testing?
    A. Physician
    B. Nurse
    C. Patient
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

88
Q
  1. True of automation
    A. Performed manually by laboratory staff
    B. Capable of linking with preanalytic only
    C. It is a process with multiple devices
A

C. It is a process with multiple devices

89
Q
  1. This based on the number of tests run per hour, not the number of samples per hour
    A. Throughput
    B. Laboratory Information System
    C. Batch analyzer
A

A. Throughput

Clin Path (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions