CP3 Flashcards
1
Q
- What is the most important goal of Quality Control?
a. To please supply chain problems
b. To please your financial clients
c. To detect analytical errors and correct them
d. NOTA
A
c. To detect analytical errors and correct them
2
Q
- 20 tests were done on a single control blood sample using a POC analyzer. The analyzer’s test results ranged from 1-3mmol/L of the target control sample. The actual correct test result of this control sample, done on a gold standard method is 35 mmol/L. What can you say regarding the accuracy and precision of this analyzer?
a. The results are accurate but not precise
b. The results are precise but closely biased towards a certain point
c. The results are accurate and precise
d. The results are imprecise
A
d. The results are imprecise
3
Q
- When a set of test results are imprecise with a few semi-accurate results, what does that tell you about the results as a whole?
a. They exhibit a reproducibility error
b. They exhibit a systematic error
c. The results are perfectly fine
d. None of the above
A
b. They exhibit a systematic error
4
Q
- Which of the following can contribute to a systematic error?
a. Change in reagents
b. Modified testing method
c. Machine overheating
d. All of the above
A
c. Machine overheating
5
Q
- The standard deviation:
a. Is the square of the variance
b. Is less commonly used compared to variance
c. Is used to compute the dispersion of values around a mean
d. None of the above
A
c. Is used to compute the dispersion of values around a mean
6
Q
- A value will fall within range of ±3SD around ________% of the time
a. 68.9%
b. 95.5%
c. 99.7%
d. 100%
A
c. 99.7%
7
Q
- In general, laboratories use the range of _________ for their quality control:
a. ±1SD
b. ±2SD
c. ±3SD
d. ±4SD
A
b. ±2SD
8
Q
- During a run of samples, you find that one control test result falls outside the 2SD range. What should be done next?
a. Panic
b. Reject the run
c. Evaluate for the 1 3S rule
d. Do not do anything
A
c. Evaluate for the 1 3S rule
9
Q
- During a single long batch of samples, you find that the next 4 control test values are slightly below +1SD. Then the subsequent 2 test values are above +1SD, then the next value is above +2SD, and finally the last three test values are at +1.25 SD. What does this imply?
a. A sign to quit your job and become a painter
b. The runs are perfectly fine
c. The batch violates 41S rule
d. The batch violates the 10x rule
A
d. The batch violates the 10x rule
9
Q
- In a run of samples, you find that two consecutive control test values fall outside the 2SD range. What should be done next?
a. Panic even more
b. Reject both runs
c. Reject first run but accept the second
d. Do not do anything
A
b. Reject both runs
10
Q
- Which tests are usually quantitative in nature?
a. Blood Rh type
b. HbA1c
c. CRP
d. Serum bilirubin
A
d. Serum bilirubin
11
Q
- Which tests are usually semi quantitative in nature?
a. ABO Blood type
b. COVID 19 Antigen test
c. Home pregnancy test
d. Urine protein
A
d. Urine protein
12
Q
- Should we report patient results if there is a QC value that is “out of control”?
a. Yes
b. No
c. I am not sure, so I will be honest
A
b. No
13
Q
- What is the median given a data set of values 1,2,3,3,3,4,5,8,7,9,11,13,16,19,22,23, and 37?
a. 10.04
b. 8
c. 3
d. 19
A
b. 8
Median:
-Arrange it in ascending order: 1, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 11, 13, 16, 19, 22, 23, 37.
Median = MIDDLE so 8
14
Q
- What is the mode given a data set of vales
1, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 8, 7, 9, 11, 13, 16, 22, 23, 37?
a. 10.94
b. 8
C. 3
d.19
A
C. 3
Mode: appears most frequently.`
15
Q
- What is the mean given a data set of values 1,2,3,3,3,4,5,8,7,9,11,13,16,19,22,23, and 37?
a. 10.94
b. 8
c. 3
d. 19
A
a. 10.94
Mean: SUM OF ALL VALUES
16
Q
- What is the midrange given a data set of values
1,2,3,3,3,4,5,8,7,9, 11, 13, 16, 19,22,23, and 37?
a. 10.94
b. 8
c. 3
d. 19
A
d. 19
Midrange: Sum of Smallest and LARGEST divided by 2
17
Q
- A blood glucose analyzer outputs four results: 152, 163, 154, 159. What is the sample variance of these results?
а. 24.667
b. 18.5
c. 74
d. 21.14
A
а. 24.667
18
Q
- We used the paired t test when:
a. We have two groups of samples that are statistically independent from each other
b. We have one group of random samples
c. We have two groups of samples where one value in one group corresponds to a value in another group
d. None of the above
A
c. We have two groups of samples where one value in one group corresponds to a value in another group
19
Q
45.
During a statistical calculation of a student’s t test for two groups, you find that the value of your result is less than the t standard t value for a 95% confidence. What hypothesis can you infer from these results?
a. Accept the null hypothesis (there’s no statistical difference between the two groups)
b. Accept the alternative hypothesis (there is a statistical difference between the two groups)
c. Neither hypothesis is acceptable
d. T values do not confer any significant meaning
A
a. Accept the null hypothesis (there’s no statistical difference between the two groups)
20
Q
- You are testing 100 patients in which 57 are PCR verified COVID-19 positive patients and 43 are PCR verified COVID-19 negative patients. You are using a new COVID testing method from Johnson & Johnson called VA-JJ (Viral Analysis Johnson & Johnson). You find that out of these 57 confirmed patients, 53 tested positive using the VA-JJ method and 4 were negative, and of the 43 confirmed negative patients, 37 were negative using the VA-JJ method and 6 were positive. What is the SENSITIVITY of this method?
a. 87.76%
b. 92.98%
c. 93.44%
d. 86.05%
A
b. 92.98%
Sensitivity:
TP/TP+FN
Specificity:
TN/TN+FP
21
Q
- You are testing 100 patients in which 57 are PCR verified COVID-19 positive patients and 43 are PCR verified COVID-19 negative patients. You are using a new COVID testing method from Johnson & Johnson called VA-JJ (Viral Analysis Johnson & Johnson). You find that out of these 57 confirmed patients, 53 tested positive using the VA-JJ method and 4 were negative, and of the 43 confirmed negative patients, 37 were negative using the VA-JJ method and 6 were positive. What is the SPECIFICITY of these methods?
a. 87.76%
b. 93.44%
c. 76.31%
d. 86.05%
A
d. 86.05%
Sensitivity:
TP/TP+FN
Specificity:
TN/TN+FP
22
Q
- This distribution refers mainly to events that have two possible outcomes
a. Gaussian
b. Poisson
c. F distribution
d. Binomial
A
d. Binomial
23
Q
- This distribution predicts the frequency of r events occurring randomly in time when the expected frequency is referred to as lambda
a. Gaussian
b. Poisson
c. F distribution
d. Binomial
A
b. Poisson
24
Q
- This distribution predicts the expected differences between the variances of two samples
a. Gaussian
b. Poisson
c. F distribution
d. Binomial
A
c. F distribution
25
Q
- It commonly refers to the division of informatics that studies how information is stored in biological systems, from the molecular to the macromolecular level, with a large part of the focus being on DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis.
a. None of the above
b. Laboratory Information System
c. Both
d. Bioinformatics
A
d. Bioinformatics
26
Q
- The following are the laboratory information system functions at the preanalytical area except:
a. Results inquiry
b. Specimen tracking/tracking system
c. Bar-coded collection labels and aliquot labels
d. Test ordering
A
a. Results inquiry
27
Q
- Panic values can be flagged by the LIS once a valid result is determined to fall into a critical range. In what step of the laboratory information workflow do panic values belong to?
a. Performing of test
b. Test orders
c. Sample collection and labeling
d. Releasing of results
A
d. Releasing of results
28
Q
- Test orders are either done manually or electronically. Ideally, which of the following important data is necessary or can be included in the request data?
a. Date of collection
b. Patient’s name and age
c. All of the above
d. Time of collection
A
c. All of the above
29
Q
- These are expenses that can easily be traced directly to an end product.
a. Direct Cost
b. Variable Cost
c. Indirect Cost
d. Fixed Cost
A
a. Direct Cost
30
Q
- They are not directly related to a billable test but are necessary for its production and are often referred to as overhead.
a. Indirect Cost
b. Variable Cost
c. Direct Cost
d. Fixed Cost
A
a. Indirect Cost
31
Q
- This term refers to the value of resources needed to produce something
a. Analysis
b. Budget
c. Audit
d. Cost
A
d. Cost
32
Q
- What entails performing what is called cost containment?
a. Purchasing less stationery for the lab
b. Rationing usage of water, electricity,etc.
c. All of the above
d. Delaying the purchase of expensive equipment
A
c. All of the above
33
Q
- This term refers to the allocation of a limited amount of resources or funds available to the clinic or lab:
a. Auditing
b. Budgeting
c. Costing
d. Analyzing
A
b. Budgeting
34
Q
- This consists of the total charges at a facility’s full-established rates for provision of inpatient and outpatient care before deductions are applied.
a. Net patient revenue
b. Gross patient revenue
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above
A
b. Gross patient revenue
35
Q
- This refers to verification of financial decisions made in a period of time, done internally
a. Auditing
b. Costing
c. Budgeting
d. Analyzing
A
a. Auditing
36
Q
- Intracellular volume makes up the most of the body fluid?
a. True
b. False
A
a. True
37
Q
- Sodium is the most abundant anion in the ECF
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
Cation:
PiSo = Potassium/Sodium
MiCo =Magnesium/Calcium
38
Q
- A sodium value of 145 meq/L is abnormally high
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
39
Q
- Water deprivation can cause hypernatremia
a. True
b. False
A
a. True
40
Q
- Potassium is the major extracellular cation in the body
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
Cation:
PiSo = Potassium/Sodium
MiCo =Magnesium/Calcium
41
Q
- Excessive vomiting does not lead to a drop in potassium levels
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
42
Q
- During administration of potassium chloride, a person with renal insufficiency is far more likely to develop hyperkalemia than is a person with normal function.
a. True
b. False
A
a. True
43
Q
- Creatinine can be measured by one of the oldest known reactions in clinical chemistry
a. True
b. False
A
a. True
44
Q
- Creatinine is the best overall indicator for the level of kidney function
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
Creatinine is the most widely used marker of GFR
45
Q
- Creatinine clearance of 20 is considered slightly impaired
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
46
Q
- The most important regulator of ADH in persons with normal to elevated blood pressure is:
a. Cortisol levels
b. Plasma osmolality
c. Blood glucose levels
d. Potassium levels
A
b. Plasma osmolality
47
Q
- A major lab finding in urine in glomerular disease is
a. Presence of RBCs
b. Presence of protein
c. Presence of nitrites
d. Presence of glucose
A
b. Presence of protein
48
Q
- You have just admitted a patient with type I diabetes in DKA (ketoacidosis). Her plasma creatinine is 4.7 mg/dL, and her BUN is 25 mg/dL. You order a check of her creatinine, and the lab tech does a test and gets a creatinine result of 2.1 mg/dL. Why did the technician do another test?
a. The original test was likely performed using the Jaffe reaction, and ketones in DKA can cross react with it, leading to an erroneous result.
b. The original test was performed when the patient’s plasma osmolality was high, affecting the test result
c. The original test was performed while the patient was in distress. High cortisol levels interfere with creatinine results, artificially increasing the results.
d. The original test was performed at night, when varying creatinine levels produced a falsely elevated result.
A
a. The original test was likely performed using the Jaffe reaction, and ketones in DKA can cross react with it, leading to an erroneous result.
49
Q
- The GFR is estimated by the clearance of creatinine. Creatinine is filtered by the glomeruli. What percentage of creatinine is then reabsorbed by the proximal tubules?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 0%
A
d. 0%
50
Q
- The most common cause of hyponatremia is:
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Intoxication with digitalis
c. SIADH
d. Dehydration
A
c. SIADH
51
Q
- A dehydrated patient with hypernatremia will likely present with the following lab results:
a. High urine osmolality, Normal serum K, High serum Na
b. High urine Na, High urine osmolality, Normal serum K
c. High urine Na, Low serum Na, Low serum K
d. Low serum Na, Low urine Na, High serum K
A
b. High urine Na, High urine osmolality, Normal serum K
52
Q
- A patient with high pH, high bicarbonate and high pCO2 likely has:
a. Metabolic Acidosis with Respiratory Compensation
b. Respiratory Acidosis with Renal Compensation
c. Metabolic Alkalosis with Respiratory Compensation
d. Respiratory Alkalosis with Renal Compensation
A
c. Metabolic Alkalosis with Respiratory Compensation
53
Q
- Metabolic Alkalosis due to Milk alkali syndrome is an example of:
a. A cause of GI origin
b. A cause of Renal origin
c. A cause stemming from exogenous intake of bicarbonates
d. None of the above
A
b. A cause of Renal origin
54
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a likely cause behind a patient with a pH of greater than 7.46 and pCO2 of less than 40mmHg
a. Hemothorax
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. High altitude
d. Excess vomiting
A
b. Pulmonary embolism
55
Q
- Primary process behind respiratory alkalosis:
a. Excess buffering of bicarbonates
b. Hypoventilation
c. Hyperventilation
d. Not enough buffering of bicarbonates
A
c. Hyperventilation
56
Q
- Which of the following is an early or earlier biomarker of Acute Kidney Injury?
a. KIM-1
b. IL-18
c. R-FADP
d. NGAL
A
d. NGAL
57
Q
- In the absence of any other abnormalities in the pCO2 and pH, an HCO3 level of 25 is considered:
a. High
b. Low
c. Normal
A
c. Normal
The normal level of serum bicarbonate is 22-29 mEq/L.
58
Q
- A BUN of 13 mg/dL and creatinine of 0.4 mg/dL suggests:
a. A prerenal cause behind the malfunctioning kidney
b. A renal cause behind the malfunctioning kidney
A
a. A prerenal cause behind the malfunctioning kidney
59
Q
- Which of the following is NOT included in the criteria for the MDRD formula?
a. Creatinine Levels
b. Age
c. Race
d. HbA1c
A
d. HbA1c
60
Q
- Which of these endogenous substances is used to measure GFR
a. Cystatin C
b. B Trace Protein
c. Tryptophan glycoconjugate
d. AOTA
A
d. AOTA
Endogenous substances that are widely used to determine
GFR include:
■ Urea
■ Creatinine
■ Cystatin C
■ Beta trace protein (BTP)
■ Beta 2 microglobulin
■ Tryptophan glycoconjugate
61
Q
- Which of the following is true regarding agents of bioterrorism?
a. Expensive to produce
b. Can only target enemy forces
c. Can cause widespread effect
d. Hard to disseminate
A
c. Can cause widespread effect
62
Q
- What’s one way a bioterrorist can disseminate his or her weapon?
a. At a concert full of people
b. Tain the water supply
c. place infected people on an airplane
d. AOTA
A
d. AOTA
63
Q
- What MINIMUM biosafety level would your laboratory need to be in order to handle Tuberculosis
a. Biosafety Level 1
b. Biosafety Level 2
c. Biosafety Level 3
d. Biosafety Level 4
A
c. Biosafety Level 3
64
Q
- Which of the following applies to BSL 1 laboratory
a. An autoclave is mandatory
b. Defined by high containment
c. Deals with deadly organisms that are spread via aerosol
d. Deals with “defined organisms unlikely to cause disease
A
d. Deals with “defined organisms unlikely to cause disease
65
Q
- Category C biological organisms
a. Have the lowest morbidity and mortality
b. Refers to high priority emerging pathogens with the potential to cause disease
c. Are not a particular security risk
d. Have no potential for mass dissemination
A
b. Refers to high priority emerging pathogens with the potential to cause disease
66
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category A, B or C - a gram positive rod shape bacteria of the bacillus species that can exist in spore form and is infective to humans
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
a. Category A
67
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category A, B or C - causes enlarged tender lymph nodes called buboes
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
a. Category A
68
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category A, B, or C - diagnosed by the rose bengal plate test
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
b. Category B
69
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category A, B or C - the same bacteria that produces botox
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
a. Category A
70
Q
- Specify whether the compound described is category A, B or C - the toxin derived from rosary peas
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
b. Category B
71
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category A, B or C - an infectious disease from burkholderia sp. That causes lymphangitis in horses and mules
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
a. Category A
72
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category A, B or C- the deadly disease caused by an Orthopoxvirus in the Poxviridae family
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
a. Category A
73
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category
A, Bor C- The causative agent of Qfever
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
b. Category B
74
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category A, B or C - case “rice water diarrhea”
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
b. Category B
75
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category A, B or C- the Organism that causes Malta fever
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
b. Category B
76
Q
- Specify whether the organism described is category A, B or C – the causative agent of COVID-19.
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
A
c. Category C
77
Q
- Lewisite
a. Is a type of vesicant
b. Is treated with sodium thiosulfate IV
c. Is in the same class of agents as chloropicrin
d. Is treated with amyl nitrite inhalant
A
a. Is a type of vesicant
78
Q
- Nerve agents
a. Include gases like sarin
b. Is treated with atropine
c. Are easily vaporized
d. All of the above
A
d. All of the above
79
Q
- Which of the following is true regarding acute radiation syndrome?
a. Progresses through three stages
b. Occurs at a minimum dose of 0.001 Gy
c. The greater the dose, the sooner the onset
d. None of the above are true
A
c. The greater the dose, the sooner the onset
80
Q
- When decontaminating a worker from radiation exposure, what should be done?
a. Use hot water
b. Do seven cycles of external whole body decontamination
c. Cover areas of residual radiation contamination with waterproof dressings
d. None of the above should be done
A
c. Cover areas of residual radiation contamination with waterproof dressings
81
Q
- A male patient is brought to your clinic after having been exposed to a large dose of radiation. Lab tests reveal a platelet count of 5, a WBC count of 1.5 and an RBC count of 2. What would you expect from the patient?
a. His reticulocyte count would also be low because the marrow is not producing new cells
b. This was probably caused by radiation exposures of around 2 to 5 Gy
c. Secondary/opportunistic infection is a serious complication
d. All of the above are true
A
d. All of the above are true
82
Q
- A patient was brought to your hospital with a chief complaint of fever. Examination also reveals that the patient smells of wet hay, experiences muscle and joint pains, nausea, decreased appetite, and abdominal pain. Liver and spleen are both enlarged and AST/ALT are elevated. What is the next best treatment option for this patient?
a. Streptomycin 1g for 14 days and oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 45 days
b. Do nothing and offer supportive treatment only
c. Gentamicin 500 mg for 21 days
d. Penicillin IV for 60 days
A
a. Streptomycin 1g for 14 days and oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 45 days
83
Q
- Which of the following is true regarding Tularemia
a. Streptomycin is the drug of choice
b. Relatively easy to diagnose given its unique symptomatology
c. High fatality rate even when treated
d. All of the above are true
A
a. Streptomycin is the drug of choice
84
Q
- If you are at risk of direct exposure to a biologic or chemical hazard, the recommended gear is:
a. OSHA PPE Level A
b. OSHA PPE Level B
c. OSHA PPE Level C
d. OSHA PPE Level D
A
a. OSHA PPE Level A
● “Usually you use level A PPE”
85
Q
- When working in your capacity as clinical specialist, what’s one thing you have to look out for when surveilling for potential bioterrorism threats?
a. A large number of people with similar symptoms in the same geographic area.
b. Increased number of OTC drug purchases
c. Patients in unusual clinical presentations
d. AOTA
A
d. AOTA
