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Clin Path > CP SEM 2 - Final Ex Part 2 > Flashcards

CP SEM 2 - Final Ex Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The Nasal Provocation test
    A. Should not be done as a first line test for all allergic patients
    B. Is an invasive test
    C. Is an example of an In Vivo test
    D. All of the given choices are true
A

D. All of the given choices are true

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2
Q
  1. A type of endocarditis associated with SLE
    A. Oliver-Sacks Endocarditis
    B. LE Cell Endocarditis
    C. Libmann-Sacks Endocarditis
    D. Vegetative Bacterial Endocarditis
A

C. Libmann-Sacks Endocarditis

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3
Q
  1. What MINIMUM biosafety level would your laboratory need to be in order to handle Tuberculosis?
    A. Biosafety Level 1
    B. Biosafety Level 2
    C. Biosafety Level 3
    D. Biosafety Level 4
A

C. Biosafety Level 3

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4
Q
  1. Specify whether the compound described is category A, B or C – The toxin derived from rosary peas
    A. Category A
    B. Category B
    C. Category C
A

B. Category B

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5
Q
  1. This cardiac troponin is also expressed by diseased skeletal muscles hence new generation of antibodies are used for its detection:
    A. cTnC
    B. cTnI
    C. cTnT
    D. None of the above
A

C. cTnT

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6
Q
  1. Identify the enzyme deficiency responsible for type 1 glycogen storage disease (von Gierke’s disease).
    A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
    B. Glycogen phosphorylase
    C. Glycogen synthetase
    D. Glucosidase
A

A. Glucose-6-phosphatase

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7
Q
  1. Increased amounts of this CK isoenzyme are seen in regenerating skeletal muscles (similar to the pattern seen in fetal muscles):
    A. CK-BB
    B. CK-MB
    C. CK-MM
    D. All of the above
A

B. CK-MB

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8
Q
  1. What is the core backbone of blood groups?
    A. Paragloboside
    B. GalNac
    C. D-galactose
    D. Fucose
A

A. Paragloboside

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9
Q
  1. What’s one way a bioterrorist can disseminate his or her weapon?
    A. In a conference
    B. In a city’s water table
    C. In a crowded train
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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10
Q
  1. A sodium value of 130 meq/L is abnormally low.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

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11
Q
  1. Which one of the following serum proteins is most useful in determining whether acute-phase-response is due to a bacterial infection?
    A. C3
    B. C3C4
    C. Albumin
    D. CRP
A

D. CRP

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12
Q
  1. This IgG type CANNOT easily cross the placenta:
    A. IgG1
    B. IgG2
    C. IgG3
    D. IgG4
A

B. IgG2

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13
Q
  1. CK from brain crosses the blood-brain barrier
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

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14
Q
  1. Marker for congestive heart failure
    A. Trop-I
    B. Ischemia modified albumin
    C. High sensitive CRP
    D. BNP
A

D. BNP

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a classical pattern of ANA?
    A. Rim
    B. Homogenous
    C. Speckled
    D. Nucleotide
A

D. Nucleotide

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16
Q
  1. In the type of endocarditis associated with SLE, which of the following is true?
    A. one of the most common heart-related manifestations of SLE
    B. vegetations are on one side of the leaflet
    C. Treated with heparin
    D. it is a type of bacterial endocarditis
A

A. one of the most common heart-related manifestations of SLE

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17
Q
  1. The most important regulator of ADH in persons with normal to elevated blood pressure is:
    A. Cortisol levels
    B. Plasma Osmolality
    C. Blood glucose levels
    D. Potassium levels
A

B. Plasma Osmolality

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18
Q
  1. After eating a meal, a man develops hives all over the body, and has difficulty breathing. The mechanism behind this particular reaction is mediated by:
    A. IgA
    B. IgG
    C. IgM
    D. IgE
A

D. IgE

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19
Q
  1. All of the following are true regarding washed RBCs, except:
    A. RBCs are washed with 1–2 L of normal saline
    B. Volume is 180 mL
    C. Shelf life is extended
    D. Leukocytes are removed
A

C. Shelf life is extended

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20
Q
  1. A 50-year-old male has a history of peptic ulcer disease. His Hgb is 6.8 g/dL, Hct 19.8%, platelet count 98,000/uL, and WBC count 10,100/uL. The prothrombin time is 12.1 sec and partial thromboplastin time is 13.8 sec. Which of the following blood products is most appropriate for this situation:
    A. Cryoprecipitate
    B. Whole blood
    C. Packed red blood cells
    D. Fresh frozen plasma
A

C. Packed red blood cells

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21
Q
  1. Macroscopic examination for semen analysis should be performed after liquefaction, which usually occurs in:
    A. Less than 20 minutes at room temperature
    B. Less than 60 minutes at room temperature
    C. Less than 120 minutes at room temperature
    D. None of the above
A

A. Less than 20 minutes at room temperature

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22
Q
  1. During administration of KCl (Potassium Chloride), a person with renal insufficiency is far more likely to develop hyperkalemia than is a person with normal renal function.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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23
Q
  1. McArdle disease is secondary to this enzyme defect.
    A. Muscle phosphorylase
    B. Phosphoglycerate kinase
    C. Pyruvate kinase muscle isozyme
    D. Phosphofructokinase
A

A. Muscle phosphorylase

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24
Q
  1. A 30-year-old male admitted at the hospital due to active bleeding. His hemoglobin drops to 7.6 g/dL, Hct 23.9%, and platelet count 75,000/microliter. His prothrombin time is 30 seconds and partial thromboplastin time 63 seconds. The best blood product in this situation is:
    A. Cryoprecipitate
    B. Whole blood
    C. Packed red blood cells
    D. Fresh frozen plasma
A

D. Fresh frozen plasma

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding RF/Rheumatoid Arthritis?
    A. Most relevant in Rheumatoid Arthritis
    B. RF is an antibody against the Fc Portion of IgM
    C. The primary targets are kidney and RBCs
    D. Synovia appear normal
A

A. Most relevant in Rheumatoid Arthritis

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26
Q
  1. In MI, which lactate dehydrogenase (LD) enzyme is expected to have the greatest increase in the peripheral circulation levels?
    A. LD1
    B. LD2
    C. LD3
    D. LD4
A

A. LD1

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27
Q
  1. Transports ferric iron from intracellular stored (ferritin) iron to bone marrow.
    A. Hemopexin
    B. Myoglobin
    C. Hemoglobin
    D. Transferrin
A

D. Transferrin

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28
Q
  1. In the context of Rheumatoid Arthritis, high Rheumatoid Factor is associated with:
    A. Mild RA
    B. Limited disease
    C. Extraarticular manifestations
    D. No deformation
A

C. Extraarticular manifestations

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29
Q
  1. Intracellular volume makes up most of the volume of body fluid.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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30
Q
  1. Good indicator of Myocardial damage in CK-MB greater than or equal to:
    A. 2%
    B. 5%
    C. 6%
    D. 8%
A

C. 6%

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31
Q
  1. Which statement regarding glycosylated Hgb is true?
    A. It has as a sugar attached to the C-terminal end of the protein.
    B. Is a highly reversible aminoglycan.
    C. Reflects the extent of glucose regulation in the 8- to 12-week interval prior to sampling.
    D. Will be abnormal within 4 days following an episode of hyperglycemia.
A

C. Reflects the extent of glucose regulation in the 8- to 12-week interval prior to sampling.

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32
Q
  1. True regarding Phosphorus:
    A. Is normally unavailable in the diet.
    B. Is mostly absorbed in the stomach by osmosis.
    C. Is excreted mainly in the proximal collecting tubules.
    D. None of the given statements are true.
A

C. Is excreted mainly in the proximal collecting tubules.

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33
Q
  1. Sodium is the most abundant anion in the ECF.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

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34
Q
  1. A man with a lung mass consults you for tiredness, nausea, and vomiting. A blood test shows extremely high levels of calcium. This may be due to:
    A. Lung cancer producing PTH-like proteins.
    B. Solidified mucous deposits of bone.
    C. Increased storage of calcium in bone.
    D. Granulomas formed by a type IV immunologic response.
A

A. Lung cancer producing PTH-like proteins.

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35
Q
  1. Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with one of the following:
    A. Mutation in UGAT1a1 gene.
    B. Defect in the deficit in the sinusoidal membrane of hepatocyte.
    C. Associated with viral infection.
    D. Associated increased plasma conjugated bilirubin.
A

D. Associated increased plasma conjugated bilirubin.

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36
Q
  1. A small portion of normal individuals can have positive RF.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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37
Q
  1. Antibodies are made up of:
    A. 2 light chains and 2 heavy chains.
    B. 3 heavy chains and 1 light chain.
    C. 4 light chains.
    D. 2 light chains, a hinge region, one medium chain, and one heavy chain.
A

A. 2 light chains and 2 heavy chains.

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38
Q
  1. True of Troponins except:
    A. A regulatory complex of four proteins that resides at regular intervals in the thin filament of striated muscle.
    B. The Ca++ trigger for muscle contraction is transmitted via the Tn complex, which causes a conformational change in another thin-filament component, tropomyosin, allowing interaction between actin and myosin to proceed.
    C. cTnT and cTnI are nearly absent from normal serum.
    D. Small measured elevations in cTn may also be analytic artifacts.
A

A. A regulatory complex of four proteins that resides at regular intervals in the thin filament of striated muscle.

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39
Q
  1. What is a special condition for the storage of platelets?
    A. Room temperature of 20°C–24°C.
    B. No other components may be stored with platelets.
    C. Platelets must be stored upright in separate containers.
    D. Platelets require constant agitation at 20°C–24°C.
A

D. Platelets require constant agitation at 20°C–24°C.

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40
Q
  1. The single most abundant protein in normal plasma. Maintain colloidal oncotic pressure to prevent edema.
    A. C3
    B. C4
    C. Albumin
    D. CRP
A

C. Albumin

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41
Q
  1. Myocardial infarction is now essentially defined as:
    A. Acute coronary syndrome that causes the release of troponin.
    B. ACS with frank necrosis of any amount of myocardium.
    C. Atherosclerosis affecting the coronary arteries.
    D. Thrombotic occlusion of coronary blood flow.
A

A. Acute coronary syndrome that causes the release of troponin.

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42
Q
  1. Normal range in serum of troponin is:
    A. 0.1 ng/ml
    B. 0.2 ng/ml
    C. 0.3 ng/ml
    D. 0.4 ng/ml
A

A. 0.1 ng/ml

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43
Q
  1. The most sensitive test for the detection of congenital hypothyroidism is:
    A. TRH determination
    B. TSH determination
    C. Free T4 determination
    D. T4/T3 ratio
A

B. TSH determination

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44
Q
  1. A primary adrenal insufficiency is characterized by:
    A. low cortisol, increased ACTH
    B. low cortisol and ACTH
    C. high cortisol and ACTH
    D. high cortisol, low ACTH
A

B. low cortisol and ACTH

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following cardiac markers is detected within 3 to 8 hours of the onset of chest pain, peak within 12 to 24 hours, and usually return to baseline levels within 24 to 48 hours?
    A. CK
    B. Troponin
    C. Homocysteine
    D. B-NP
A

A. CK

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46
Q
  1. True regarding Congenital Lipid Adrenal Hyperplasia:
    A. Most Severe form of CAH
    B. Due to a deficiency in Lipid Succinyl Cholinesterase
    C. Mild impairment of all steroid synthesis
    D. None of the given statements are true
A

A. Most Severe form of CAH

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47
Q
  1. One of the following is/are the parameters used in PGA index to assess cirrhosis:
    A. Gamma glutamyl transferase activity
    B. Bilirubin level
    C. INR ratio
    D. Alkaline phosphatase level
A

C. INR ratio

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48
Q
  1. This system is the most common method of glucose analysis:
    A. Glucose Dehydrogenase System
    B. Glucose Oxidase System
    C. Hexokinase System
    D. None of the above
A

B. Glucose Oxidase System

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49
Q
  1. This cardiac marker is predominantly found as a dimer of catalytic subunits:
    A. Aspartate transaminase (AST)
    B. Cardiac troponin (cTn)
    C. Creatine kinase (CK)
    D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)
A

C. Creatine kinase (CK)

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50
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to a BSL-1 laboratory?
    A. An autoclave is mandatory
    B. Defined by high containment
    C. Deals with deadly organisms that are spread via aerosol
    D. Deals with ‘defined’ organisms unlikely to cause disease
A

D. Deals with ‘defined’ organisms unlikely to cause disease

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51
Q
  1. The most important marker for liver malignancy:
    A. Alkaline phosphatase
    B. Alpha-fetoprotein
    C. Y-Glutamyl transferase
    D. 5’nucleotidase
A

B. Alpha-fetoprotein

52
Q
  1. PT (prothrombin time) measures the efficacy of the extrinsic clotting system by activating one of the following factors:
    A. Factor III
    B. Factor VII
    C. Factor IX
    D. Factor X
A

B. Factor VII

53
Q
  1. The following statements are true about neural tube defects except:
    A. Failure of the neural tube to close by the 27th day after conception.
    B. Sporadic in 90% of cases and represent isolated defects with a multi-factorial origin, involving both genetic and nongenetic factors.
    C. Folic acid supplementation before conception reduces the recurrence of fetal NTDs.
    D. In NTDs, AFP is decreased.
A

D. In NTDs, AFP is decreased.

54
Q
  1. A female with severe excessive facial hair growth (hirsutism) should be tested for which of the following hormones?
    A. Estrogen and progesterone
    B. Chorionic gonadotropin
    C. Growth hormone
    D. Testosterone
A

D. Testosterone

55
Q
  1. Which set of results is most likely in an adult male with primary testicular failure?
    A. Increased LH, FSH, and decreased testosterone
    B. Decreased LH, FSH, and testosterone
    C. Decreased testosterone, androstenedione, and FSH
    D. Increased androstenedione, decreased testosterone, and normal FSH
A

A. Increased LH, FSH, and decreased testosterone

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is a cause of increased ANA?
    A. Pregnancy
    B. Old age
    C. IBD
    D. Post-transplant
    E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

57
Q
  1. This hormone induces Sertoli cells to synthesize and secrete androgen-binding protein into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule, and this maintains the high testosterone concentration required for normal spermatogenesis.
    A. FSH
    B. LH
    C. Inhibin
    D. None of the above
A

A. FSH

58
Q
  1. The most common cause of hyponatremia is:
    A. Diabetes insipidus
    B. Intoxication with digitalis
    C. SIADH
    D. Dehydration
A

C. SIADH

59
Q
  1. Specify whether the organism described is category A, B, or C – A gram-positive rod-shaped bacteria of the Bacillus species that can exist in spore form and is infective to humans.
    A. Category A
    B. Category B
    C. Category C
A

A. Category A

60
Q
  1. Sperm that move rapidly in a straight line with little yaw and lateral movement is graded as:
    A. Grade 4
    B. Grade 3
    C. Grade 2
    D. Grade 1
A

A. Grade 4

61
Q
  1. Fresh Frozen Plasma can be transfused without regard for:
    A. ABO type
    B. Rh type
    C. Antibody in product
    D. None of the above
A

B. Rh type

62
Q
  1. This is considered as the more potent androgen.
    A. Testosterone
    B. Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
    C. Androstenedione
    D. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
A

B. Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

63
Q
  1. Which of the following blood components is stored at -18°C and has a shelf life of 1 year?
    A. FFP
    B. Granulocytes
    C. pRBC
    D. Cryoprecipitate
A

A. FFP

64
Q
  1. Which of the following enzymes is expected to be abnormally high in case of acute hepatitis secondary to excessive alcohol intake?
    A. ALT
    B. ALP
    C. AST
    D. GGT
A

C. AST

65
Q
  1. This cardiac marker contains zinc and is part of the glycolytic pathway:
    A. Aspartate transaminase (AST)
    B. Cardiac troponin (cTn)
    C. Creatine kinase (CK)
    D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)
A

D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

66
Q
  1. The presence of elevated titers of IgM anti-HAV is considered diagnostic of:
    A. Recovery
    B. Acute infection
    C. Convalescent period
    D. All of the above
A

B. Acute infection

67
Q
  1. Category C biological organisms:
    A. Have the lowest morbidity and mortality
    B. Refers to high priority emerging pathogens with the potential to cause disease
    C. Are not a particular security risk
    D. Have no potential for mass dissemination
A

B. Refers to high priority emerging pathogens with the potential to cause disease

68
Q
  1. Described as a “flipped pattern” of LD in patients with MI:
    A. LD1 > LD2
    B. LD2 > LD1
    C. LD2 > LD3
    D. LD3 > LD2
A

A. LD1 > LD2

69
Q
  1. β-migrating globulin that binds to heme, released by degradation of hemoglobin:
    A. Hemopexin
    B. Myoglobin
    C. Hemoglobin
    D. Transferrin
    E. Haptoglobin
A

A. Hemopexin

70
Q
  1. Water deprivation can cause hypernatremia.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

71
Q
  1. Stercobilin is a pigment responsible for the normal color of stool, which is a product of one of the following:
    A. Urobilin
    B. Urobilinogen
    C. Urobilin & Urobilinogen
A

B. Urobilinogen

72
Q
  1. Specify whether the compound described is category A, B, or C – The causative agent behind COVID-19:
    A. Category A
    B. Category B
    C. Category C
A

C. Category C

73
Q
  1. The most common circulating form of Prolactin is the:
    A. Form bound to albumin
    B. Non-glycosylating monomer
    C. Monomer with three iodine molecules
    D. Unbound alpha sheet
A

B. Non-glycosylating monomer

74
Q
  1. True of C-Reactive protein except:
    A. Isolated in plasma of patients with pneumococcal pneumonia and binds to the C-polysaccharide of the pneumococcus
    B. The original chronic phase reactant
    C. Increased in most bacterial infections
    D. MI is among the acute illnesses associated with elevation of plasma CRP
A

B. The original chronic phase reactant

75
Q
  1. The following is/are condition that can be useful for procalcitonin test:
    A. Monitoring as a guide in antibiotic therapy
    B. Biomarker of sepsis
    C. Both
    D. Neither
A

C. Both

76
Q
  1. The most important laboratory risk factor for CHD:
    A. B-type natriuretic peptide
    B. C-reactive protein
    C. Homocysteine
    D. Lipids
A

D. Lipids

77
Q
  1. You do a skin prick test on a patient with a suspected allergy to hayseed. After a few minutes, a wheal and flare reaction appear on the skin. Which of the following is true?
    A. Measuring the wheal and flare decreases reproducibility
    B. If the reaction measures 2mm, this is considered positive
    C. Recording the exact reaction size is not necessary
    D. This test must be conducted with only a positive control
A

A. Measuring the wheal and flare decreases reproducibility

78
Q
  1. Attaching to a poly-immunoglobulin receptor, secretory IgA finds its way into the lumens of glands via:
    A. Phagocytosis
    B. Transcytosis
    C. Degranulation
    D. Osmosis
A

B. Transcytosis

79
Q
  1. The following are functions of insulin except:
    A. Promotes glycolysis
    B. Promotes lipolysis
    C. Stimulates the synthesis of amino acids from pyruvate
    D. Increases glucose entry into the cell
A

B. Promotes lipolysis

80
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of LD?
    A. It is a pentamer of two active subunits
    B. Has six isoenzymes
    C. Highly specific and sensitive to cardiac injuries
    D. LD is a zinc-containing enzyme that is part of the glycolytic pathway and is found in virtually all cells in the body
A

D. LD is a zinc-containing enzyme that is part of the glycolytic pathway and is found in virtually all cells in the body

81
Q
  1. You have just admitted a patient with type I diabetes in DKA (Ketoacidosis.) Her plasma creatinine is 4.7 mg/dl, and her BUN is 25 mg/dl. You order a check of her creatinine, and the lab tech does a test and gets a creatinine result of 2.1 mg/dl. Why did the technician do another test?
    A. The original test was performed when the patient’s plasma osmolality was high, affecting the test result.
    B. The original test was performed while the patient was in distress. High cortisol levels interfere with creatinine results, artificially increasing the results.
    C. The original test was performed at night when varying creatinine levels produced a falsely elevated result.
    D. The original test was likely performed using the Jaffe reaction, and ketones in DKA can cross-react with it, leading to an erroneous result.
A

D. The original test was likely performed using the Jaffe reaction, and ketones in DKA can cross-react with it, leading to an erroneous result.

82
Q
  1. This cardiac marker rises 4-6 hours post cardiac injury, peaks at 24 hours, and returns to baseline level at 5-10 days:
    A. CK
    B. Troponin
    C. Homocysteine
    D. B-NP
A

B. Troponin

83
Q
  1. When measuring for serum potassium, one can use this type of vial for blood extraction:
    A. Red top
    B. Blue Top
    C. Violet Top
    D. Blood Culture vial
A

A. Red top

84
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding agents of bioterrorism?
    A. Expensive to produce
    B. Can only target the enemy forces
    C. Can cause widespread effects
    D. Hard to disseminate
A

C. Can cause widespread effects

85
Q
  1. The gold standard for measuring Growth Hormone Deficiency is:
    A. Insulin Tolerance Test
    B. Dexamethasone Suppression Test
    C. Elisa
    D. Mass Spectrometry/HPLC
A

A. Insulin Tolerance Test

86
Q
  1. In a patient with a high suspicion for Lupus, an ANA value of 40 will be best served by the following action:
    A. Ignore
    B. Look for disease-specific antibodies
    C. Start Treatment Immediately
    D. Look for an alternative explanation
A

B. Look for disease-specific antibodies

87
Q
  1. Which of the following donor criteria is not acceptable?
    A. Donor below 18 years old may donate
    B. Weight must be at least 50 kg
    C. Blood pressure of 90-160 mmHg systolic and 60-100 mmHG diastolic
    D. Hemoglobin of 120 g/L
A

D. Hemoglobin of 120 g/L

88
Q
  1. In an intradermal test for allergens:
    A. Allergen preparations can be stored at room temperature
    B. The preparation has the same concentration as that used for skin tests.
    C. Usually, a skin prick test is done first
    D. None of the given choices are true
A

D. None of the given choices are true

89
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT used to measure phosphorus?
    A. Reacting phosphorus to create a phosphomolybdate complex
    B. Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry
    C. Reacting phosphorus to create a picrate solution
    D. Indirect Potentiometry
A

C. Reacting phosphorus to create a picrate solution

90
Q
  1. A 76-year-old male psychiatrist was driving towards his clinic when he suddenly experienced chest pain radiating to his left arm. Traffic took him 2 and a half hours, and in spite of his condition, was able to make it to the emergency room. What is the percentage of cardiac cells at risk in the ischemic area by this time?
    A. 40%
    B. 60%
    C. 80%
    D. 100%
A

C. 80%

91
Q
  1. This enzyme tends to be higher in obstructive disorders and in space-occupying lesions in the liver:
    A. γ-Glutamyl transferase
    B. Alkaline phosphatase
    C. ALT
    D. AST
A

A. γ-Glutamyl transferase

92
Q
  1. Select the most appropriate adult reference range for fasting blood glucose:
    A. 40–105 mg/dL (2.22–5.82 mmol/L)
    B. 60–140 mg/dL (3.33–7.77 mmol/L)
    C. 65–99 mg/dL (3.61–5.50 mmol/L)
    D. 75–150 mg/dL (4.16–8.32 mmol/L)
A

C. 65–99 mg/dL (3.61–5.50 mmol/L)

93
Q
  1. Alpha2 migrating; binds to free hemoglobin-hemosiderin pigment and is rapidly depleted in case of hemolysis:
    A. Hemopexin
    B. Myoglobin
    C. Hemoglobin
    D. Haptoglobin
A

D. Haptoglobin

94
Q
  1. The biologically active fraction of Thyroxine in circulating blood is:
    A. Reverse T4 (rT4)
    B. Total Thyroxine (Total T4)
    C. Triiodothyronine (T3)
    D. Free Thyroxine (Free T4)
A

D. Free Thyroxine (Free T4)

95
Q
  1. Lactic acidosis is diagnosed by the presence of the following except:
    A. high blood lactate levels (>45 mg/dL or >5.0 mmol/L)
    B. an elevated anion gap
    C. a low blood pH (<7.35)
    D. none of the above
A

D. none of the above

96
Q
  1. CRH binding protein is highest in the:
    A. First Trimester
    B. Second Trimester
    C. Third Trimester
A

C. Third Trimester

97
Q
  1. This hormone induces Leydig cells to synthesize testosterone:
    A. FSH
    B. LH
    C. Inhibin
A

B. LH

98
Q
  1. True of Diabetic Ketoacidosis except:
    A. It is a serious and potentially fatal hyperglycemic condition requiring urgent treatment
    B. The ratio of β-hydroxybutyric acid to acetoacetic acid is greatly decreased
    C. It is frequently associated with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, electrolyte disturbances, and severe dehydration.
    D. Type 2 diabetes patients who are poorly controlled particularly in the presence of extreme stress or severe acute illness can also develop DKA
A

B. The ratio of β-hydroxybutyric acid to acetoacetic acid is greatly decreased

99
Q
  1. The occurrence of HDV infection in the presence of HBV infection is called
    a. Superinfection
    b. Coinfection
    c. Both
    d. None of the above
A

a. Superinfection

100
Q
  1. A patient is highly suspected to have an allergy, but his skin prick test is negative. What could be a possible cause of this?
    A. There is nothing wrong, do a serum IgE immediately
    B. The allergen concentration may be too low
    C. There are impurities that cause an allergenic reaction
    D. The patient may be taking drugs that increase the immune response
A

D. The patient may be taking drugs that increase the immune response

101
Q
  1. Regarding the Overnight Metyrapone Test:
    A. An ABNORMAL RESPONSE is defined by 11-deoxycortisol more than 17 µg/dL accompanied by cortisol higher than 50 µg/dL.
    B. Measures the ability of the pituitary gland to produce ACTH
    C. Metyrapone 15 mg/kg is administered orally during the afternoon
    D. A rise in 11-deoxycortisol to greater than 7 µg/dL (200 nmol/L) is an ABNORMAL RESPONSE
A

B. Measures the ability of the pituitary gland to produce ACTH

102
Q
  1. Most prevalent cation in the human body
    A. Calcium
    B. Magnesium
    C. Chloride
    D. Sodium
A

D. Sodium

D. Sodium is the most prevalent cation in the human body. It is the primary cation in extracellular fluid, playing critical roles in fluid balance, nerve transmission, and muscle function.

103
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a form of serum calcium?
    A. Free or ionized calcium
    B. Complexed calcium
    C. Plasma protein-bound calcium
    D. Elmental calcium
A

D. Elmental calcium

104
Q

28.Which of the following statement is true of calcium?
A. absorbed in the duodenum and upper jejunum
B. calcium absorption increased in children, pregnancy, and during lactation.
C. It decreases with advancing age
D. All statements are correct

A

D. All statements are correct

105
Q

29.Which of the following ion is an important constituent of nuclei acid?
A. Calcium
B. Phosphorus
C. Magnesium
D. Chloride

A

B. Phosphorus

106
Q

30.This is the second most prevalent intracellular cation
A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Chloride
D. Sodium

A

B. Magnesium

107
Q

31.Which of the following is least associated with Magnesium?
A. Essential for the function of more than 300 cellular enzymes
B. Required for cellular energy metabolism and has an important role in membrane stabilization,
C. Required in nerve conduction, ion transport, and calcium channel activity
D. It forms high-energy compounds (ATP) and cofactors

A

D. It forms high-energy compounds (ATP) and cofactors

108
Q

32.Which of the following hormones regulate Mineral metabolism?
A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
B. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (1,25[OH]2D3)
C. Calcitonin
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

109
Q

33.Which of the following statement is least associated with Parathyroid
hormone?
A.Synthesized and secreted by the chief cells of the parathyroid gland.
B.Inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption by directly binding to osteoclasts
C.Ionized magnesium has also been shown to influence the secretion of PTH.
D.The primary physiologic function of PTH is to maintain the concentration of ionized calcium in the ECF

A

B.Inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption by directly binding to osteoclasts

110
Q

34.This is the most important regulator of calcitonin secretion
A. Ionized calcium concentration
B. Plasma protein bound calcium
C. Complexed calcium
D. None of the above

A

A. Ionized calcium concentration

111
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is associated with Vitamin D metabolism?
    A.The steroid hormone 1,25(OH)2D3 is the major biologically active metabolite of the vitamin D sterol family.
    B. May be ingested in the diet or synthesized in the skin from 7- dehydrocholesterol (provitamin D3) through exposure to sunlight
    C. Activation of Vitamin D takes place in the liver and kidney.
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

112
Q
  1. Which of the following is a physiologic role of calcitonin?
    A. Inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption by directly binding to osteoclasts.
    B. Causes increased clearance of calcium and phosphate in the kidney.
    C. Inhibits the action of PTH and vitamin D
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

113
Q

37.What role does vitamin D measurement play in the management of osteoporosis?
A. Vitamin D deficiency must be demonstrated to establish the diagnosis
B. Vitamin D is consistently elevated in osteoporosis
C. A normal vitamin D level rules out osteoporosis
D. Vitamin D deficiency is a risk factor for developing osteoporosis

A

D. Vitamin D deficiency is a risk factor for developing osteoporosis

114
Q

38.Which of the following is a Parathyroid Hormone mediated cause of Hypercalcemia?
A. Malignancy associated
B. Primary hyperparathyroidism
C. Vitamin D mediated
D. Vitamin D intoxication

A

B. Primary hyperparathyroidism

115
Q
  1. Which of the following is least likely to cause hypocalcemia?
    A. Chronic renal failure
    B. Hypomagnesemia
    C. MEN 1
    D. Vitamin D deficiency
A

C. MEN 1

116
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is associated with hypophosphatemia?
    A. Most common cause is a shift of phosphorus from extracellular fluid into cells
    B. Caused by decreased renal excretion in acute and chronic renal failure
    C. Increased intake with excessive oral, rectal, or intravenous administration
    D. Increased extracellular load due to a transcellular shift in acidosis
A

A. Most common cause is a shift of phosphorus from extracellular fluid into cells

117
Q
  1. Patients with Hypermagnesemia will usually present with:
    A. Hypotension
    B. Bradycardia
    C. Respiratory depression
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

118
Q
  1. Loss of magnesium in the GI tract is due to:
    A. Acute and chronic diarrhea
    B. Malabsorption
    C.Steatorrhea after extensive bowel resection
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

119
Q
  1. Which of the following will cause elevated Phosphate levels
    A. Hypoparathyroidism and pseudohypoparathyroidism
    B. Alcohol abuse
    C. Primary hyperparathyroidism
    D. Acute respiratory alkalosis
A

A. Hypoparathyroidism and pseudohypoparathyroidism

120
Q

4.Most common metabolic disease of bone
A.Osteopetrosis
B.Osteomalacia
C.Osteoporosis
D.Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

C.Osteoporosis

121
Q
  1. Which of the following condition is a Primary Osteoporosis?
    a. Idiopathic
    b. Calcium deficiency
    c. Thyrotoxicosis
    d. Immobilization
A

a. Idiopathic

122
Q

46.Failure to mineralize newly formed organic matrix (osteoid) in the mature skeleton
a. Osteitis deformans
b. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
c. Osteomalacia
d. Renal osteodystrophy

A

c. Osteomalacia

123
Q
  1. This is characterized by the uncoupling of osteoclast and osteoblast function
    A. Pagets disease of bone
    B. Osteitis deformans
    C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
    D. Both Pagets and Osteitis deformans
A

D. Both Pagets and Osteitis deformans

124
Q

48.Which of the following diseases will produce osteomalacia or rickets?
A. Vitamin D deficiency states
B. Phosphate depletion
C. Systemic acidosis
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

125
Q

49.Which of the following statement is correct of Renal Osteodystrophy?
A. Affects both bone quality and quantity through metabolic and hormonal disturbances
B. Refers to the spectrum of bone abnormalities that occur in patients with ARF
C. Radiographs may show focal osteosclerosis
D. Renal transplantation may progress disease condition

A

A. Affects both bone quality and quantity through metabolic and hormonal disturbances

126
Q
  1. Tunneling resorption refers to
    A. Manner in which osteoclast gain access to mineralized bone
    B. Osteoclast dig cutting cones through mineralized surfaces into the mineralized cores of trabeculae
    C. Both statement refers to tunneling resorption
    D. Both statement is not associated with tunneling resorption
A

C. Both statement refers to tunneling resorption**

Rationale: Tunneling resorption involves the action where osteoclasts dig or cut through mineralized bone surfaces to form tunnels or cutting cones. This process allows for the remodeling and turnover of bone by creating paths through the mineralized bone matrix. Both options A and B describe different aspects of this process, indicating that tunneling resorption is indeed characterized by osteoclasts gaining access to and actively resorbing mineralized bone, specifically in the cores of trabeculae. Thus, both statements accurately describe components of tunneling resorption.

Clin Path (9 decks)

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