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Clin Path > Clin Path - LE 1 > Flashcards

Clin Path - LE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

CBC should be available in a hospital lab:
a. 24 hours a day on weekends only
b. Available solely during peak hours
c. Available all the time, every time
d. Only during office hours

A

c. Available all the time, every time

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2
Q

The creatinine test is a measure of
a. Creatinine
b. BUN
c. Glomerular speed
d. Low variations in renal ultrafiltration

A

a. Creatinine

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3
Q

Centrifuged blood that predominantly consists of plasma (~70%) will most probably have
a. Low RDW
b. High RBC
c. Low platelet
d. Low hematocrit

A

d. Low hematocrit

Normal Hct in adult males : 40-54%
Normal Hct in adult females: 34-51%

Hematocrit is the percentage of the volume of blood that is made up of red blood cells. If the blood sample is mostly plasma, then the hematocrit value would be low.

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4
Q

An RDW value of 20% signifies a ____ variation in the RBC sizes of a patient
a. Negligible
b. Equal
c. High
d. Low

A

c. High

Normal range: 10-15% “Usually nag raise ng alarm if RDW is higher than 15%”

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5
Q

Refer to the following CBC of a 50-yr-old male for reference: Does the patient have anemia
a. Yes
b. No

A

a. Yes

Anemia - decrease in hemoglobin concentration (HGB - 9) -LE 3.01 p.1

Mild Anemia:

Men: Hb 10 g/dL to 13.7 g/dL
Women: Hb 10 g/dL to 12 g/dL
Moderate Anemia:

Hb 8 g/dL to 9.9 g/dL (for both men and women)
Severe Anemia:

Hb less than 8 g/dL (for both men and women)

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6
Q

Refer to the following CBC of a 50-year-old male for reference. - Question: If the patient has anemia, what kind is it?
a. macrocytic, hypochromic
b. Microcytic, hypochromic
c. Microcytic, normochromic
d. Normocytic, normochromic

A

b. Microcytic, hypochromic

MCV 73.2
MCH 21.9

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7
Q
  1. What else can you infer from the data?
    a. The patient has an increased number of RBCs.
    b. There is anisocytosis
    c. The patient has as infection
    d. The patient’s platelet are normal
A

c. The patient has as infection

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8
Q
  1. If this patient’s differential showed eosinophils at 15%, what would you think is likely?
    a. a parasitic infection
    b. a viral infection
    c. this is a normal value
    d. a bacterial infection
A

a. a parasitic infection

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9
Q

In a background of leucocytosis, if a patient’s differential showed neutrophils at 82%, what would you think?
a. this patient has long term TB
b. liver cancer
c. this is a normal value
d. an acute infection

A

d. an acute infection

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10
Q

Deficiency of vitamin B12 is associated with:
a. a low RBC count
b. high MCHC
c. high WBC count
d. a high MCV

A

a. a low RBC count

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following decreases lymphocyte numbers?
    a. Pertussis
    b. Mumps
    c. AIDS
    d. Influenza
A

c. AIDS

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to Anemia of Chronic Disease?
    a. Increased TIBC (total binding capacity)
    b. Increased Serum Iron
    c. Normal or increased serum ferritin
    d. Increased RDW
A

c. Normal or increased serum ferritin

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13
Q
  1. In anemia of chronic disease, the MVC is usually
    a. Normal
    b. High
    c. Equal to 2x RBC
    d. Low
A

a. Normal

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14
Q
  1. Prothrombin Time (PT) test measures the effectiveness of the:
    a. Heparin Treatment
    b. Intrinsic Pathway
    c. Extrinsic Pathway
    d. Tertiary Coagulation
A

c. Extrinsic Pathway

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15
Q
  1. Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) test measures the effectiveness of the:
    a. Coumadin Treatment
    b. Tertiary Coagulation
    c. Extrinsic Pathway
    d. Intrinsic Pathway
A

d. Intrinsic Pathway

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16
Q
  1. Hemolyzed serum specimens will
    a. Raise potassium serum levels
    b. Have no effect on potassium, but will increase sodium
    c. Decrease both potassium and sodium
    d. Lower potassium levels
A

a. Raise potassium serum levels

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17
Q
  1. Major intracellular anion is
    a. Chloride
    b. Potassium
    c. Phosphate
    d. Sodium
A

c. Phosphate

PhiClo

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18
Q
  1. In kidney/renal disease, the BUN:Crea ratio is
    a. Low
    b. Normal
    c. Near 1.1
    d. High
A

d. High

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19
Q
  1. A patient with plasma glucose of 400 mg/dL, increased potassium, and metabolic acidosis is likely to have:
    a. DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis)
    b. HHS
    c. DIC
    d. APAS
A

a. DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis)

DKA is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs when the body produces high levels of blood acids called ketones due to a lack of insulin. The condition can lead to metabolic acidosis, elevated blood glucose levels, and electrolyte imbalances, including increased potassium.

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20
Q

21.
A patient with an ABG result with high pH and high bicarbonate is likely to have:
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis

A

b. Metabolic alkalosis

a. Respiratory acidosis: This would be associated with a low pH and high CO2.
b. Metabolic alkalosis: This would be associated with a high pH and high bicarbonate.
c. Metabolic acidosis: This would be associated with a low pH and low bicarbonate.
d. Respiratory alkalosis: This would be associated with a high pH and low CO2.

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21
Q
  1. As response to metabolic alkalosis, the patient is likely to:
    a. Hyperventilate, increasing pCO2
    b. Hypoventilate, increasing pCO2
    c. Hypoventilate, decreasing pCO2
    d. Hyperventilate, decreasing pCO2
A

b. Hypoventilate, increasing pCO2

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22
Q
  1. This pancreatic marker is more specific
    a. Amylase
    b. Lipase
    c. PKIF
    d. NCAM
A

b. Lipase

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23
Q
  1. A person with primary hyperthyroidism likely has:
    a. A problem in the hypothalamus, with increased TRH and TSH
    b. A problem in the thyroid, with increased T4 and decreased TSH
    c. A problem in the thyroid, with increased TSH
    d. A problem in the pituitary, with decreased T4 and TSH
A

b. A problem in the thyroid, with increased T4 and decreased TSH

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24
Q
  1. A person with primary hyperthyroidism likely has
    a. Problem with hypothalamus with increased TRH and TSH
    b. Problem in the thyroid with increased T4 and TSH
    c. Problem in the thyroid with increased TSH
    d. Problem in pituitary with decreased T4 and TSH
A

b. Problem in the thyroid with increased T4 and TSH

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25
Q
  1. Chronic respiratory abnormalities have more drastic changes in pH compared to acute abnormalities
    a. true
    b. false
A

a. true

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26
Q
  1. A patient presents with a BUN of 40 and creatinine of 1.4. What does this imply?
    a. Urea clearance in kidney is increased
    b. Patient has pre-renal azotemia
    C. This is a normal BUN crea ratio
    d. Renal perfusion is not affected
A

a. Urea clearance in kidney is increased

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27
Q
  1. What condition would affect readings of serum calcium, necessitating adjustment / correction?
    a. Cerebral stroke
    b. Liver damage
    c. Traumatic injury (car accident)
    d. Intake of Vitamin B complex
A

b. Liver damage

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28
Q

29.
Which is not a cause of hypocalcemia?
a. PTH - RP secreting cancer in the lung
b. Surgical removal of the parathyroid
c. Renal failure
d. Vitamin D deficit

A

a. PTH - RP secreting cancer in the lung

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29
Q
  1. Ability of a laboratory test to detect negativity in the absence of disease.
    a. Sensitivity
    b. Predictive Value
    c. Specificity
    d. Relative Risk
A

c. Specificity

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30
Q
  1. A patient treated with vitamin K antagonist Coumadin will most likely have:
    a. Prolonged aPTT and PT
    b. Prolonged aPTT and Normal PT
    c. Normal aPTT and Prolonged PT
    d. Normal aPTT and Normal PT
A

c. Normal aPTT and Prolonged PT

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31
Q
  1. A 75 year-old female, bed-ridden patient with sacral ulcer was brought to the Emergency Department due to septicemia.
    Her CBC reveals WBC level of 52 x 109/L (4.5 - 11 x 109/uL). Which of the following is compatible with the peripheral blood smear of the patient?
    a. Severe leukocytosis with neutrophils
    b. Severe leukocytosis with left shift showing toxic granulations in the and presence of some bands, metamyelocytes and neutrophil series including numerous myeloblasts myelocytes
    c. Severe leukocytosis with numerous small lymphoblasts
    d. Severe leukocytosis with numerous monoblasts
A

b. Severe leukocytosis with left shift showing toxic granulations in the and presence of some bands, metamyelocytes and neutrophil series including numerous myeloblasts myelocytes

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32
Q

4.Total Iron-Binding Capacity (TIBC) in Iron deficiency is
a. Same as TIBC in cases of Anemia of Chronic Disease
b. Increased TIBC compared to Anemia of Chronic Disease
c. Decreased TIBC compared to Anemia of Chronic Disease
d. Decreased TIBC compared to Anemia of Chronic Disease

A

b. Increased TIBC compared to Anemia of Chronic Disease

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33
Q
  1. A four year-old male patient presents to the Emergency Department with a history of 5 days fever and acute onset of red colored urine. Peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes and reticulocytes. This finding is consistent with:
    A. Anemia of Chronic Disease
    B. Iron Deficiency Anemia
    C. Hemolytic Anemia
    D. Aplastic Anemia
A

C. Hemolytic Anemia

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34
Q

6 Test RT-PCR is a confirmatory test for presence of covid-19 in a patient tested to be positive in COVID antigen test. This confirmatory test requires
A. High sensitivity so that no case is missed
B. High specificity to be certain of the
diagnosis
C. High precision so that it will be compatible with the antigen test
D. That it is suggestive of the presence of the disease

A

C. High precision so that it will be compatible with the antigen test

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35
Q
  1. 10.Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results is suggestive of respiratory acidosis in Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
    A. Arterial pH <7.40, low HCO3-, low PCO2
    B. Arterial pH <7.40, high HCO3-, high PCO2
    C. Arterial pH >7.40, high HCO3-, high PCO2
    D. Arterial pH >7.40, low HCO3-, low PCO2
A

B. Arterial pH <7.40, high HCO3-, high PCO2

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36
Q

12.Which of the following laboratory results is NOT compatible with DIC?
A. Elevated aPTT and PT
B. Elevated D-Dimer
C. Elevated Platelet Count
D. Elevated WBC count

A

C. Elevated Platelet Count

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37
Q

14.Which of the laboratory tests will you request for your patient if you want to differentiate pancreatitis from other acute abdominal disorders?
A. AST, ALP
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Amylase, Lipase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase

A

C. Amylase, Lipase

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38
Q

15.Which of the following test results is most specific for myocardial infarction?
A. Elavated AST
B. Elevated cTroponin I
C, Elevated myoglobin
D. Elevated LDH

A

B. Elevated cTroponin I

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39
Q

18 A certain laboratory test is known to be pathologic if
A. It is within a reference range
B. It falls within +/- 2 SD of values established by the laboratory
C. It is outside of reference range
D. It falls within +/- 1 of values established by the laboratory

A

B. It falls within +/- 2 SD of values established by the laboratory

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40
Q

22.Which of the following is NOT TRUE of Ferritin?
A. It is the stored form of iron
B. It is decreased in Iron deficiency Anemia
C. It is decreased in Anemia of Chronic Disease
D. It is increased in acute inflammatory
process

A

C. It is decreased in Anemia of Chronic Disease

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41
Q

23.Anisocytic red blood cells will reflect in automated Complete Blood Count (CBC) as
A. Increased Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)
B. Decreased Mean Corpuscular Volume
(MCV)
C. Increased Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)
D. Decreased Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)

A

C. Increased Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)

Anisocytosis refers to the presence of red blood cells of unequal size in the blood. When there’s a variation in the size of the red blood cells, it will be reflected in the Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW) value in a Complete Blood Count (CBC).

An increased RDW indicates a greater variation in red blood cell size.

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42
Q
  1. A 40 year-old female patient has been experiencing heavy menses for two years because of sub mucous myoma. Physical examination shows pale palpebral conjunctivae and nail beds. Her CBC shows Hemoglobin level of 9.8 g/dL (12-15 g/dL). Her Peripheral blood Smear (PBS) will most likely show
    A. Macrocytic, hypochromic RBCs with reticulocytosis
    B. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs with
    reticulocytosis
    C. Normocytic, normochromic RBCs
    D. Macrocytic, hypochromic RBCs with hyper segmentation of Neutrophils
A

B. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs with reticulocytosis.

The patient’s presentation suggests chronic blood loss due to heavy menses, which is a common cause of iron-deficiency anemia. Iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by the production of smaller (microcytic) and paler (hypochromic) red blood cells due to insufficient iron for hemoglobin synthesis.

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43
Q
  1. A 65 year-old male patient has a 5 days history of cough, productive with yellowish phlegm, accompanied by high-grade fever. Laboratory examination were requested. Gram stain of phlegm reveals presence of Gram positive cocci arranged in chains and in pairs. What is the most likely WBC abnormality seen in the Complete Blood Count?
    A. Leukopenia
    B. Neutrophilic Leukocytosis
    C. Lymphocytic Leukocytosis
    D. Monocytic Leukocytosis
A

A. Leukopenia

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44
Q

31.Ability of a laboratory test to detect positivity in the presence of disease.
Sensitivity
Predictive value
Specificity
Relative Risk

A

Sensitivity

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45
Q

33.These International Normalized Ratios (INR) values are considered to require lowering of the Coumadin dose or temporary cessation of treatment with Coumadin.
A. INR value of 1
B. INR values of 2-3
C. INR values of 3-4
D. INR values >4

A

D. INR values >4

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46
Q

34.A 75 year-old female patient has been diagnosed as a case of Congestive Heart Failure. Which of the following tests is/are used to monitor the effects of treatment to this patient?
A. CK MB
B.Lactate dehydrogenase
C. BNP and NT pro BNP
D. Cardiac Troponin I

A

C. BNP and NT pro BNP

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47
Q
  1. A 55 year-old female sought consult at the Out- patient Department due to 2 months history of productive cough associated with body malaise. Physical examination of the thorax reveals abnormal breath sounds on the bilateral apical areas of the lungs. Sputum exam shows presence of Acid fast bacilli. With no other concomitant infection, what is the most likely WBC abnormality found in the complete blood count of the patient?
    A. Neutrophilic leukocytosis
    B. Lymphocytic leukocytosis
    C. Eosinophilic leukocytosis
    D. Leukemoid reaction
A

B. Lymphocytic leukocytosis - This is seen in chronic infections like tuberculosis.

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48
Q
  1. Specimen collection is part of the:
    a. Pre-analytic phase
    b. Post-analytic phase
    c. Analytic phase
    d. Semi-analytic phase
A

a. Pre-analytic phase

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49
Q
  1. These two consist a majority of the errors received during lab tests
    a. Pre and post analytic phases
    b. Alytic and pre-analytic phases
    c. Analytic and post analytic phases
    d. NOTA
A

a. Pre and post analytic phases

50
Q
  1. What characteristics of a lab test could contribute to a higher chance of error?
    a. A one-step test
    b. A test that is considered the benchmark test
    c. A long, complex, multi step test
    d. A test that is easy to perform
A

c. A long, complex, multi step test

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is a source of pre-analytic error?
    a. Mislabeled specimen
    b. Clotted / hemolyzed specimen
    c. Eating food 6 hrs before FBS test
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

52
Q

A woman underwent a radical mastectomy of her left breast last year. She needs her blood extracted. Assuming her veins are generally patent, where should you first try to extract blood?
a. Left arm
b. Right arm
c. Head
d. From the femoral artery

A

b. Right arm

53
Q
  1. Your classmate extracted blood from a patient in the ER. You noticed that he did something wrong. What particular thing did your classmate do that could affect some test results?
    a. Extracted for blood culture test first
    b. Adequately cleaned the site of extraction
    c. Took him 90 seconds before removing the tourniquet
    d. Extracted from the basilic vein
A

c. Took him 90 seconds before removing the tourniquet

54
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an additive for blood collection vials?
    a. EDTA
    b. Sodium Citrate
    c. Ethylene Glycol Sodium
    d. Heparin
A

c. Ethylene Glycol Sodium

55
Q
  1. Which of the following samples should be protected from light?
    a. CBC vials
    b. Clotting/coagulation samples
    c. Samples to test Sodium
    d. Samples to test Bilirubin
A

d. Samples to test Bilirubin

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is true according to the NCCLS order of draw?
    a. Blood culture after serum separation tube
    b. CBC before coagulation studies
    c. Heparin tube before CBC
    d. Glycolytic inhibitor tube first
A

c. Heparin tube before CBC

57
Q
  1. In an EDTA tube with a 3ml marker, one should
    a. Fill the tube up to 4ml to be sure
    b. Fill the tube up to 2 ml to facilitate the test faster
    c. Fill the tube exactly to 3 ml
    d. Fill the tube to 3 ml, but don’t shake
A

c. Fill the tube exactly to 3 ml

58
Q
  1. A _____ color tube does not need to be gently mixed
    a. Violet
    b. Green
    c. Red
    d. Blue
59
Q
  1. What can the healthcare team/lab personnel do to avoid pre-analytical errors?
    a. Calibrate machines regularly
    b. Perform machine maintenance
    c. Create a log of all results transmitted
    d. Train phlebotomists adequately
A

d. Train phlebotomists adequately

60
Q
  1. Which test requires transport in icy water?
    a. CBC
    b. Drug tests
    c. Arterial Blood Gas
    d. FBS
A

c. Arterial Blood Gas

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a post-analytical error?
    a. Incorrect labeling
    b. Misidentification of patients to be extracted
    c. Anomalous trend in the analyzer
    d. Transcription error
A

d. Transcription error

62
Q
  1. Which of the following would you report as a critical value?
    a. A symptomatic person with a potassium of 1.9
    b. A trauma patient, stable, with RBC of 3.9
    c. A dengue patient undergoing platelet transfusion with platelet of 80
    d. Eosinophils consisting 10% of the differential count
A

a. A symptomatic person with a potassium of 1.9

63
Q
  1. If a sample sent to the lab is not acceptable, the BEST course of action would be:
    a. Report erroneous results anyway
    b. Contact the clinicians to inform them that the sample is not acceptable
    c. Wait an hour before contacting the clinicians
    d. Don’t say anything and let them figure it out
A

b. Contact the clinicians to inform them that the sample is not acceptable

64
Q
  1. ________ is the phase with the highest proportion of errors:
    a. Pre-analytical
    b. Post-analytical
    c. Semi-analytic
    d. Analytic
A

a. Pre-analytical

65
Q
  1. What pre-analytic variable affects an ABG result?
    a. Error in pulse oximeter readout
    b. Improper transmission of results
    c. Software error
    d. Air bubbles in the syringe
A

c. Software error

66
Q
  1. You are in charge of a laboratory. During an interdepartmental meeting, the clinicians say that the interval between specimen submission and the giving of results is too long. The problem is eventually traced to a slow printer and a lack of a Lab Information System. What is this interval called, and in this particular case in what analytic phase is it a problem?
    a. Preanalytic phase - processing interval
    b. Analytic phase - calibration period
    c. Postanalytic phase - turnaround time
    d. Preanalytic phase - temporal storage
A

c. Postanalytic phase - turnaround time

67
Q
  1. You’re the resident in charge of a twice weekly shift of nurses and medical interns and clerks in a large hospital ward. In order to prevent pre-analytical errors, what’s a good thing to do when meeting an incoming batch of interns and clerks for the first time?
    a. Delegate all tasks to the nurses
    b. Without doing anything, put them through a baptism of fire
    c. Learn what their baseline skills are and teach those who are deficient
    d. Panic and quit because you really wanted to be a lounge singer anyway
A

c. Learn what their baseline skills are and teach those who are deficient

68
Q
  1. Clinical Pathology deals with the diagnosis of disease based on the laboratory analysis of substances such as:
    a. Semen
    b. Feces
    c. Blood
    d. All of the given choices are correct
A

d. All of the given choices are correct

69
Q
  1. A good laboratory result is:
    a. Accurate
    b. Reliable
    c. Timely
    d. All of the choices are correct
A

d. All of the choices are correct

70
Q
  1. What consequences may happen when a lab generates an incorrect result?
    a. The patient gets treated unnecessarily
    b. A sick patient gets the correct diagnosis
    c. No additional lab tests may be done
    d. None of the above choices are correct
A

a. The patient gets treated unnecessarily

71
Q
  1. The efficient operation of a clinical laboratory involves the following:
    a. The mastery of a single discipline only
    b. Connected knowledge in different fields of expertise
    c. Isolation between management and employees
    d. None of the above choices are correct
A

b. Connected knowledge in different fields of expertise

72
Q
  1. True regarding quality management systems
    a. Not all large laboratories need to have them
    b. It encompasses most of the operations of the lab
    c. ISO 16001 is an example
    d. None of the choices are correct
A

b. It encompasses most of the operations of the lab

73
Q
  1. Why do labs need a quality management system?
    a. The question is incorrect, labs do not require a quality management system
    b. Labs are accurate by themselves and there is no need for accuracy
    c. Labs have complex processes and they need to be assessed to guarantee quality
    d. None of the above choices is correct
A

c. Labs have complex processes and they need to be assessed to guarantee quality

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is important in collecting medical records?
    a. Where to store the records
    b. How long to retain the records
    c. How these records are organized
    d. AOTA
75
Q
  1. What is a consideration in planning for laboratory waste management?
    a. Where the wastewater will be disposed
    b. How to segregate infectious from non-infectious
    waste
    c. How to properly dispose of sharps
    d. All of the above are considerations of
    laboratory waste management
A

d. All of the above are considerations of
laboratory waste management

76
Q
  1. Ergonomics refer to a system of designing and arranging things that the people and these things interact most efficiently.
    a. True
    b. false
77
Q

30.
A laboratory’s strength describes the advantage of that laboratory in comparison with other similar laboratories in the same geographical region.
a. True
b. False

78
Q
  1. A consideration in determining how many lab workers will work in your laboratory is:
    a. How much you will have to spend for their salaries
    b. The size of the laboratory
    c. The number of tests your laboratory can handle (test load)
    d. All of the above are correct
A

d. All of the above are correct

79
Q
  1. It is very difficult to give a precise definition of the term ‘management’.
    a. True
    b. False
80
Q
  1. Management involves the coordination and integration of resources to accomplish specific results
    a. True
    b. False
81
Q
  1. Any manager must have a good knowledge of certain quantitative methods and analysis of financial and statistical data
    a. True
    b. False
82
Q
  1. In the equation for Beer-Lambert’s Law, which of the following can also be influenced by the size of the sample container, assuming ideal and appropriate conditions?
    a. Absorptivity
    b. Path length
    c. Molar concentration
    d. None of the above
A

b. Path length

83
Q
  1. Colorimetry and spectrophotometry can refer to the following:
    a. Employs color to determine the concentrations of various substances
    b. Employs color variations to determine the concentration of various substances
    C. Measures the luminous intensity of light
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

84
Q
  1. This term specifically refers to a procedure for the quantitative determination of chemical elements using the absorption of optical radiation (light) by free atoms in the gaseous state.
    a. Nephelometry
    b. Microconcentration colorimetry
    c. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
    d. Side scatter quantum turbidimetry
A

c. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

85
Q
  1. A consideration in determining how many lab workers will work in your laboratory is:
    A. how much you will have to spend for their salaries
    B. the size of the laboratory
    C. Number of test your laboratory can handle (test load)
    D. All of the above are correct.
A

D. All of the above are correct.

86
Q

2.The person ultimately in charge of achieving the laboratory’s goals is the:
A. Laboratory manager
B. Laboratory administrator
C. Medical Technician
D. Technician

A

B. Laboratory administrator

87
Q

3.What is the confirmatory method for measuring drugs of abuse?
A. HPLC
B. Enzyme- multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT)
C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy (GC-MS)
D. TLC

A

C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy (GC-MS)

88
Q

4.What is a consideration in planning for laboratory waste management?
A. Where the waste water will be disposed
B. how to segregate infectious from non infectious waste
C. How to properly dispose of sharps
D. all of the above are considerations of laboratory waste management

A

D. all of the above are considerations of laboratory waste management

89
Q

5.Preservation of a urine specimen is essential to maintain its integrity. Which of the following statements regarding urine storage and preservation is TRUE?
A. Casts and red and white blood cells disappear rapidly in hypotonic and alkaline urine.
B. Boric acid is added as preservative for catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), or 5- hydroxyindoleac etic acid (5- HIAA) assays
C. Precipitation of calcium and phosphates occurs unless the urine is alkalinized adequately before analysis.
D. Sodium fluoride does not affect the result of reagent (enzyme- embedded) glucose strip tests Sodium fluoride inhibit bacteria, yeast growth, and cell glycolysis

A

A. Casts and red and white blood cells disappear rapidly in hypotonic and alkaline urine.

90
Q
  1. Threats refer to conditions in lab that lead to improvement in business operations
    A. True
    B. False
91
Q
  1. During storage, the concentration of a blood constituent in the specimen may change as a result of various processes. Which is a FALSE statement regarding this concept?
    A. After separation from blood cells, analytes have the same stability in plasma and serum when stored under the same conditions.
    B. Glucose concentration in unseparated serum and plasma decreases rapidly in the first 24 hours and this decrease is more pronounced in plasma.
    C. Fluoride has significant effect on reducing glycolysis within the first hour of storage
    D. Chloride and total carbon dioxide (CO2) show a steady decrease over 56 hours, with the degree of change more pronounced in plasma.
    E. K+ is stable for up to 24 hours in storage
A

C. Fluoride has significant effect on reducing glycolysis within the first hour of storage

92
Q
  1. True regarding quality management systems:
    A.Not all large laboratories need to have them
    B.It encompasses most of the operations of a lab
    C. ISO 16001 is an example
    D. none of the above choices are correct
A

B.It encompasses most of the operations of a lab

93
Q
  1. In occurence management, this refers to investigating the main cause of a particular issue:
    A. Root cause analysis
    B. Preventive Actions
    C. Documentation
    D. Immediate actions
A

A. Root cause analysis

94
Q
  1. A laboratory’s Strength describes the advantages of that laboratory in comparison with other similar laboratories in the same geographical region.
    TRUE
    FALSE
95
Q

13 The efficient operation of a clinical laboratory involves the following:
A. The mastery of a single discipline only
B. Connected knowledge of different fields of expertise
C. Isolation between management and employees
D. None of the above choices are correct

A

B. Connected knowledge of different fields of expertise

96
Q

14.Exposure to proteins from this animal may cause an astonishingly high false-positive result in immunoassays such as TSH
A. Goat
B. Horse
C. Mouse
D. Rabbit
E. Sheep

97
Q

15 Fasting for 72 hours increases plasma levels of the following analytes in men, EXCEPT:
A. Cholesterol
B. Free Fatty Acids
C. Glycerol
D. Triglycerides

A

A. Cholesterol

98
Q

16.Lumbar punctures (LPs) are performed to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for laboratory evaluation. Which is an erroneous statement?
A. A marked increase in pressure following this procedure suggests cerebellar herniation or spinal cord compression
B. Before CSF is collected, the pressure should be between 90 and 180 mm Hg
C. Patients with partial or complete spinal block may have low pressure and even fall to zero
D. Skin infection and cellulitis in the lumbar region are contraindication
E. Tube #2 goes to microbiology for culture and Gram stain

A

A. A marked increase in pressure following this procedure suggests cerebellar herniation or spinal cord compression

99
Q

17.It is very difficult to give a precise definition of the term ‘management’.
TRUE
FALSE

100
Q
  1. Why do labs need a quality management system?
    A. The question is incorrect. Labs do not require a quality management system
    B. Labs are accurate by themselves and there is no need for accuracy
    C. labs have complex processes, they need to be assessed to guarantee quality
    D. none of the above choices are correct
A

C. labs have complex processes, they need to be assessed to guarantee quality

101
Q

19 Implementing a quality management system means that an lab will become completely error-
TRUE
FALSE

102
Q

20 A lab’s physical resources refer to its operating and capital budget
TRUE
FALSE

103
Q
  1. Implementing a quality management system means that laboratory errors will be more easily detected.
    TRUE
    FALSE
104
Q
  1. Which of the following is important in collecting medical records:
    A. Where to store the record
    B. How long to retain the records
    C. How these records are organized
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

105
Q
  1. Failure in management is usually due to a lack of?
    A.capital
    B. Resources
    C. People
    D. Communication
A

D. Communication

106
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding finger or heel skin puncture is WRONG?
    A. The best method for blood gas collection in the newborn remains the indwelling umbilical artery catheter.
    B. In older children, the finger is the preferred site Accessible veins in sick infants must be reserved exclusively for parenteral therapy.
    C. Skin puncture is unacceptable in adults with severe burns, and thrombotic tendencies
    D. Skin puncture is often preferred in geriatric patients because the skin is thinner and less elastic; thus a hematoma is more likely to occur from a venipuncture.
A

C. Skin puncture is unacceptable in adults with severe burns, and thrombotic tendencies

107
Q
  1. Select the FALSE statement regarding arterial puncture.
    A.A nonanesthetize d arterial puncture provides an accurate measurement of acid-base status in spite of possible patient hyperventilation
    B. Femoral artery can bleed more than the radial or brachial
    C. Modified Allen test is used to determine whether
    the ulnar artery can provide collateral circulation
    D. Radial artery puncture has less complications
    E. Venous blood is a useful alternative and somewhat reflects the acid-base status of the body as a whole
A

A.A nonanesthetize d arterial puncture provides an accurate measurement of acid-base status in spite of possible patient hyperventilation

108
Q
  1. The most common preanalytic error in blood gas measurement most probably comes from error resulting from this factor:
    A.Amount of anticoagulant
    B.Artery selected
    C.Patient hyperventilation
    D.Regulation of blood flow (arterial spasm)
    E. Test for collateral circulation
A

C.Patient hyperventilation

109
Q
  1. Clinical Pathology deals with the diagnosis of disease based on the laboratory analysis of substances such as:
    A. Semen
    B. Feces
    C. Blood
    D. All of the given choices are correct
A

D. All of the given choices are correct

110
Q
  1. In a decent sized clinical laboratory (such as that in a hospital) :
    A. There are people with varying levels of competency, backgrounds and expertise
    B. One person handles the majority of the benchwork
    C. 6 shifts in a day are mandatory
    D. None of the above choices are correct
A

D. None of the above choices are correct

111
Q
  1. Tobacco smokers have increased levels of the following, EXCEPT:
    A. Eosinophils
    B. IgE
    C. Monocytes
    D. Neutrophils
    E. Urinary secretion of 5- HIAA
A

A. Eosinophils

112
Q
  1. Human resources involves the following aspects:
    A. Operating costs for equipment
    B. Rental of land or laboratory space
    C. Hiring of support staff
    D. Reagent acquisition
A

C. Hiring of support staff

113
Q
  1. A good laboratory information system must be:
    A. Organized
    B. Confidential
    C. Accessible
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

114
Q
  1. Management involves the coordination and integration of resources to accomplish specific results
    A. True
    B. False
115
Q
  1. In gas chromatography, the elution order of volatiles is usually based upon the:
    A. Boiling point
    B. Molecular size
    C. Carbon content
    D. Polarity
A

A. Boiling point

116
Q
  1. Any manager must have a good knowledge of certain quantitative methods and analysis of financial and statistical data.
    A. True
    B. False
117
Q

37.Ergonomics refers to a system of designing and arranging things that the people and these things interact most efficiently.
A. True
B. False

118
Q
  1. A laboratory is available to patients 24 hours a day. This counts as one of this laboratory’s:
    A. Strengths
    B. Weaknesses
    C. Opportunities
    D. Threats
A

A. Strengths

119
Q
  1. A good laboratory result is:
    A. accurate
    B. reliable
    C. timely
    D. all of the given choices are correct
A

D. all of the given choices are correct

120
Q
  1. This can be measured on several 24-hour urine collections to assess the completeness of the specimen and keep this as part of the patient’s record.
    A. Creatinine
    B. Serum Na
    C. Urine Na
    D. Serum osmolality
    E. Urine osmolality
A

A. Creatinine

Clin Path (9 decks)

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