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CP4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Irradiation of blood products is done to prevent:
    a. TRALI
    b. Hemolytic anemia
    c. TA-GVHD
    d. CMV infection
A

c. TA-GVHD

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2
Q
  1. intake of this drug will result in a permanent deferral:
    a. etretinate
    b. amoxicillin
    c. aspirin
    d. dutasteride
A

b. amoxicillin

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3
Q
  1. Which one of the following serum proteins is most useful in determining whether acute-phase-response is due to a bacterial infection?
    a. C3
    b. C4
    c. CRP
    d. Albumin
A

c. CRP

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4
Q
  1. Pooled platelets have a shelf life of:
    a. 35 days
    b. 21 days
    c. 5 days
    d. 4 hours
A

d. 4 hours

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5
Q
  1. Is intake of Tegison allowed for blood donation
    a. Yes allow, immediately
    b. Yes, can donate after intake of neutralizing agent
    c. No, indefinite deferral
    d. No, defer for one year
A

c. No, indefinite deferral

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6
Q
  1. What would be an appropriate time to give whole blood to a patient
    a. An actively bleeding trauma patient with very low BP, hemoglobin of 8 g/dl
    b. Postpartum patient with blood loss of 1.5 L
    c. Comatose patient with aplastic anemia
    d. Dengue patient with platelet count of 5
A

a. An actively bleeding trauma patient with very low BP, hemoglobin of 8 g/dl

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7
Q
  1. Blood products treated with CPD have a shelf life of
    a. 10 years
    b. 21 years
    c. 35 years
    d. 6 years
A

b. 21 years

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8
Q
  1. The arrangement of more than one protein molecule in a multi-subunit complex.
    a. Quaternary structure
    b. Primary structure
    c. Secondary structure
    d. Tertiary structure
A

a. Quaternary structure

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9
Q
  1. Deficiency of this enzyme will result to a predisposition for COPD and pulmonary disease
    a. Complement
    b. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin
    c. Alpha 2 macroglobulin
    d. Fibrinogen
A

b. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin

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10
Q
  1. These enzymes catalyze the same reactions but are found from structurally different polypeptides
    a. Protoenzymes
    b. Proenzymes
    c. Dextroenzymes
    d. Isoenzymes
A

d. Isoenzymes

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11
Q
  1. In what disease state is gamma globulin most increased?
    a. Multiple myeloma
    b. Wilson’s Disease
    c. Dysfibrinogenemia
    d. Nephrotic syndrome
A

b. Wilson’s Disease

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12
Q
  1. The three-dimensional spatial configuration of a single polypeptide chain as determined by disulfide linkages, hydrogen bonds, electrostatic attractions, and Van der Waals forces is referred to as:
    a. Quaternary structure
    b. Tertiary structure
    c. Secondary structure
    d. Primary structure
A

b. Tertiary structure

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13
Q
  1. What is the difference between PF24/FP24 and FFP?
    a. Amount of coagulation factors
    b. Clinical usage
    c. The time interval in which the product is
    frozen
    d. All of the above
A

c. The time interval in which the product is
frozen

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14
Q
  1. Folding or coiling of polypeptide bonds due to attractions or repulsions of amino acids (alpha helix and beta pleated sheet).
    a. Primary structure
    b. Quaternary structure
    c. Secondary structure
    d. Tertiary structure
A

c. Secondary structure

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15
Q
  1. By around 2 days post infarction, Creatine Kinase levels should ideally:
    a. Rise even more day 3 onwards
    b. Reach their peak – 16 hrs
    c. Not change from 4 hours post infarct
    d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

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16
Q
  1. This CK isoenzyme is most elevated in CNS diseases:
    a. CK-7
    b. CK-5
    c. CK-1
    d. CK-3
A

c. CK-1

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17
Q
  1. A forward typing result of 0 on both Anti A and Anti B means that:
    a. Only A antibodies are present in the serum
    b. A antigens are present in the RBCs
    c. There are no A or B antibodies in the serum
    d. There is no A or B antigen on the RBCs
A

d. There is no A or B antigen on the RBCs

A forward typing result of 0 (indicating no agglutination) on both Anti-A and Anti-B serums means that there is no A or B antigen on the RBCs. Therefore, the correct answer is:

d. There is no A or B antigen on the RBCs

This result is indicative of blood type O, where the individual’s red blood cells lack both A and B antigens. Individuals with blood type O have both A and B antibodies in their serum.

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18
Q
  1. Without artificial fibrinogen, a patient with fibrinogen deficiency would be BEST served with a transfusion of:
    a. Cryoprecipitate
    b. Platelets
    c. Whole Blood
    d. Packed RBC (pRBC)
A

a. Cryoprecipitate

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19
Q
  1. By 6 days post infarction, Creatinine Kinase should ideally:
    a. Rise
    b. Not change from 4 hours post infarct
    c. Decline
    d. None of the above
A

c. Decline

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20
Q
  1. This enzyme is primarily elevated in acute pancreatitis
    a. Amylase
    b. None of the above
    c. Prokinase
    d. ACH
A

b. None of the above

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21
Q
  1. Whole blood contains
    a. WBCs
    b. Plasma
    c. All of the above
    d. Coagulation factors
A

c. All of the above

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22
Q

a. Polyclonal gammopathy
b. Alpha-reactive
c. Normal
d. Monoclonal gammopathy

A

a. Polyclonal gammopathy

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23
Q
  1. Major source of acid phosphatase in the body:
    a. Liver
    b. Prostate
    c. Brain
    d. Pancreas
A

b. Prostate

The major source of acid phosphatase in the body is the prostate gland. Acid phosphatase levels are particularly used in clinical settings to assess prostate function and to diagnose and monitor the treatment of prostate cancer.

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24
Q
  1. The ABO antigen is encoded in Chromosome:
    a. 12
    b. 9
    c. 6
    d. 21
A

b. 9

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following choices can be a cause of a polyclonal gammopathy?
    a. HIV infection
    b. All of the above
    c. Connective tissue diseases
    d. Lymphoma
A

b. All of the above

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26
Q
  1. Leukoreduction of blood products is done to prevent:
    a. TA-GVHD
    b. TRALI
    c. Hemolytic anemia
    d. Proliferation of CMV
A

c. Hemolytic anemia

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27
Q
  1. A, B and H can be detected as in secretors in the following substances:
    a. Saliva
    b. AOTA
    c. Tears
    d. Urine
A

b. AOTA

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28
Q
  1. What disease state where a2-macroglobulin is most increased
    a. Wilson’s disease
    b. Cirrosis
    c. Multiple Myeloma
    d. NOTA
A

b. Cirrosis

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29
Q
  1. Why are people who have received bovine insulin not allowed to donate blood?
    a. Because they have diabetes
    b. To prevent possible viral transmission
    c. To prevent possible transmission of a prion disease
    d. Because it would harm the blood donor
A

c. To prevent possible transmission of a prion disease

30
Q
  1. Why are platelets placed in an agitator?
    a. To decrease coagulation factors
    b. To enhance refractoriness
    c. To prevent clumping
    d. To prevent TRALI
A

d. To prevent TRALI

31
Q
  1. Frozen RBCs have a shelf life of
    a. 24 hours
    b. 28 days
    c. 10 years
    d. 35 days
A

c. 10 years

32
Q
  1. Hemagglutination that looks like many small to medium aggregates with a clear background is
    a. +3
    b. +1
    c. 0
    d. +2
33
Q
  1. The mating of parents with which two phenotypes can potentially produce offspring of any of the four blood types (AB, A, B, and O)?
    a. O and AB
    b. A and B
    c. AB and B
    d. Two O parents
A

b. A and B

34
Q
  1. In a patient with nephrotic syndrome, the total
    protein level in the urine would be:

a. Lower than normal

b. Normal

c. Similar to the levels in CS total protein levels

d. Higher than normal

A

d. Higher than normal

35
Q
  1. In Indirect Coombs test, the sample being tested is the patient’s:

a. Serum

b. RBCs

c. Marrow

d. Platelets

36
Q
  1. A technique where groups of proteins in blood serum are separated, allowing them to be measured and analyzed individually by means of electric current based on the movement of charged particles through a solution:
    a. Electrophoresis
    b. Immunofixation
    c. Spectrophotometry
    d. Nephelometry
A

a. Electrophoresis

37
Q
  1. Sequence of amino acids bonded together by means of polypeptide:
    a. Tertiary structure
    b. Quaternary structure
    c. Secondary structure
    d. Primary structure
A

d. Primary structure

38
Q
  1. The most diagnostic significance of alkaline phosphatase enzyme (ALP) is/are the evaluation of the following organ/s:
    a. Acute liver failure
    b. Hepatobiliary and bone disorders
    c. Cardiac tissue damage
    d. Brain tissue damage
A

b. Hepatobiliary and bone disorders

39
Q
  1. A 32/F who gave birth 8 months ago comes to your dinic for blood donation. Her baby is on formula feeding. On history taking, you learn that she was transfused with 1 u pRBC when she gave birth due to blood loss. What is your next course of action?
    a. Defer
    b. Allow to donate
    c. Do an antibody screen
    d. Tell donor to come back tomorrow
40
Q
  1. This cardiac marker is predominantly found as a dimer of 2 monomers that act as catalytic subunits:
    a. Lactate Dehydrogenase (LD)
    b. Aspartate transaminase (AST)
    c. Cardiac Troponin (cTn)
    d. Creatine Kinase (CK)
A

d. Creatine Kinase (CK)

41
Q
  1. This specific protein is considered a major component of alpha1 band
    a. Hemopexin
    b. Haptoglobin
    c. Alpha 1-antitrypsin
    d. Albumin
A

c. Alpha 1-antitrypsin

42
Q
  1. Reverse typing was done on an unknown blood sample which showed A = +3, B = 0, D = positive. What is the blood type of this sample?
    a. B-
    b. B+
    c. A+
    d. A-
43
Q
  1. An example of an indefinite deferral for a blood donation is:
    a. Living in a malaria endemic area for three months
    b. Surgery for a lipoma
    c. Pregnancy
    d. Positive HBsAg
A

d. Positive HBsAg

44
Q
  1. Rouleaux formations in blood are remedied by doing this:
    a. Vigorously shaking the blood bag
    b. washing the blood with saline solution
    c. mixing blood with glucose solution
    d. injection of CPDA
A

b. washing the blood with saline solution

45
Q
  1. In MI, which lactate dehydrogenase (LD) enzyme is expected to have the greatest increase in the peripheral circulation levels?
    a. LD3
    b. LD1
    c. LD4
46
Q
  1. A patient with hh, sese genotype can receive blood:
    a. From only the same phenotype
    b. From only blood type AB
    c. From any blood type
    d. From only blood type O
A

a. From only the same phenotype

47
Q
  1. Deglycerolized RBCs have a shelf life of
    a. 24 hours
    b. 21 days
    c. 6 days
    d. 35 days
A

a. 24 hours

48
Q
  1. Gamma Glutamyltransferase is characterized by the following use or function:
    a. Increased in liver diseases, especially
    caused by alcoholic liver disease
    b. None of the above
    c. Increased in CNS tumor
    d. Increased in kidney damage due to drug use
A

a. Increased in liver diseases, especially
caused by alcoholic liver disease

49
Q
  1. Proteins are composed of individual units of
    a. Carbohydrates
    b. NOTA
    c. Fat
    d. Amino acids
A

d. Amino acids

50
Q
  1. This is the single most abundant protein in normal plasma. Helps maintain colloid oncotic pressure to prevent edema.
    a. Transferrin
    b. Prealbumin
    c. Albumin
    d. Immunoglobulin
A

c. Albumin

51
Q
  1. Which natriuretic peptide is mostly secreted by the ventricles

a. BNP

b. ANP

C. CNP

d. DNP

52
Q
  1. Which is more specific and sensitive for MI than total Creatine Kinase?
    a. CK-BB
    b. CK-MM
    c. NOTA
    d. CK-MB
53
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding CRP?
    a. NOTA
    b. A level of 2 mg/dl confers a high risk for CVD
    c. It is not very specific
    d. Lowering CRP levels decreases Cardiovascular risk
54
Q
  1. For diagnosing acutely ill patients presenting to emergency service with shortness of breath, to distinguish HF from lung diseases such as emphysema.
    a. Cardiac natriuretic peptide
    b. Homocysteine
    c. cTnI
    d. CK
A

a. Cardiac natriuretic peptide

55
Q

17.
What do natriuretic peptides do in response to increased blood volume?
a. Lower blood pressure
b. Increase blood pressure

A

a. Lower blood pressure

56
Q
  1. How long does it take for troponin to first appear in the blood?
    a. 3-4 hours
    b. 10 days
    c. 3-4 days
    d. 18-24 hours
A

a. 3-4 hours

57
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding troponins?
    a. They are structural proteins in the skeletal muscle
    b. They are two main cardiac types
    c. AOTA
    d. Cardiac troponins are mainly bound t
58
Q
  1. True or False: CK from brain crosses the blood-brain barrier
    a. True
    b. False
59
Q
  1. Which of the following is CORRECT about ALP
    a. It is present in bone disease
    b. It is more specific to the liver than AST
    c. The normal range in males is 13-35 U/L
    d. Appears in plasma many days before clinical signs
A

a. It is present in bone disease

60
Q
  1. What problems does myoglobin have as a cardiac marker?
    a. It is not specific to heart muscle
    b. Its molecular weight is low
    c. It is not sensitive to myocardial damage
    d. It appears later than CK-MB
A

b. Its molecular weight is low

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding Natriuretic Peptide:
    a. They were released when ventricles are strained
    b. They are used to protect risk for heart failure
    c. They were initially thought to originate from the brain
    d. All of the above
A

a. They were released when ventricles are strained

62
Q
  1. A patient with an ALT level of 75 U/L most likely has:
    a. No problem as that is a normal level
    b. Acute hepatitis
    c. Non - alcoholic steatohepatitis
    d. Alcoholic hepatitis
A

c. Non - alcoholic steatohepatitis

63
Q
  1. Homocysteine is a marker implicated in what?
    a. All of the above
    b. Vascular injury
    c. Disruption of the elastic lamina
    d. Smooth muscle hypertrophy
A

a. All of the above

64
Q
  1. CK MB returns to baseline at around:
    a. 4 hours
    b. 1-2days
    c. 10 days
    d. 10 hours
A

b. 1-2days

65
Q
  1. Can you diagnose Acute MI without biochemical evidence of heart injury?
    a. I am not sure
    b. No, it’s not possible
    c. Yes, but it’s rare
A

c. Yes, but it’s rare

66
Q
  1. What makes a good cardiac marker?
    a. It remains in myocytes long after injury
    b. Detectable in low concentrations
    c. High levels have no correlation with tissue damage
    d. It is present in many different tissues
A

b. Detectable in low concentrations

67
Q
  1. True regarding HBcAg:
    a. None of the above are true
    b. All of the above
    c. Expressed on the surface of the nucleocapsid
    d. Remains within hepatocytes
A

b. All of the above

68
Q
  1. Heme proteins are majorly found in:
    a. Dendritic cells
    b. Adipocytes
    c. Senescent red cells
    d. Skin
A

c. Senescent red cells

69
Q
  1. What exactly is the utility of hs-CRP?
    a. Predictor of response to therapy
    b. NOTA
    c. Screening and risk prediction
    d. Determination of extent of myocardial damage
A

c. Screening and risk prediction

Clin Path (9 decks)

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