LC BLK I & II

Question 1

a. Use the word ____ only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation.

Answer 1

“immediately”

Question 2

Use the word____ only when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an
imminent situation.

Answer 2

“expedite”

Question 3

Vehicles may operate in the RSA up to the runway edge as long as the ___ IAW FAA JO 7110.65, Air Traffic Control, but not in the ___.

Answer 3

aircraft and vehicle are given an advisory
over or underrun areas

Question 4

Personnel, vehicles, and equipment must be removed from the __ and __ prior to an arriving aircraft crossing the threshold of the underrun and prior to an aircraft starting a __ phase.

Answer 4

over underruns
departure

Question 5

If a pilot insists upon utilizing a runway with personnel and/or vehicle(s) in the RSA, Kingsley Tower will ___

Answer 5

provide an advisory to the aircraft and the personnel and/or vehicle(s).

Question 6

In the event the full runway remains open, ___ retains the option to instruct all personnel and equipment to exit the RSA, or to permit limited operations if the controller determines that air and ground operations will not be adversely impacted (not applicable to air carrier aircraft)

Answer 6

Kingsley Tower

Question 7

___is responsible for issuing a NOTAM following the coordination, and before construction work begins.

Answer 7

Klamath Falls Airport Manager

Question 8

If the controller responds to the initial radio call without using the aircraft callsign, radio communications___ been established and the pilot may not enter the Class D airspace.

Answer 8

have not

Question 9

If the controller responds to an initial radio call ___ then radio communications have been established and the aircraft may enter the Class D airspace.

Answer 9

using the aircraft callsign,

Question 10

LC must ___ of the runway not released or it is assumed GC has full runway access to include crossings.

Answer 10

restrict crossings

Question 11

The primary purpose of the ATC system is to ___ involving aircraft operating in the system.
b. In addition to its primary purpose, the ATC system also:

2.

Answer 11

prevent a collision

Provides a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic.

Supports National Security and Homeland Defense missions.

Question 12

Air Traffic Control services are not provided for model aircraft operating in the NAS or to any UAS operating in the NAS at or below ___ AGL.

Answer 12

400ft

Question 13

Give first priority to ___ as required in this order.

Answer 13

separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts

Question 14

Provide air traffic control service to aircraft on a ___ basis as circumstances, except:
a. An ___ has the right of way over all other air traffic.

Answer 14

“first come, first served”

aircraft in distress

Question 15

The ATCT ___determines which runway/s are designated RUNWAY IN USE/ACTIVE RUNWAY/DUTY RUNWAY.

Answer 15

supervisor/controller−in−charge (CIC)

Question 16

Assign the runway/s most nearly aligned with the wind when __ knots or more, or the ___ runway when less than 5 knots unless:
Use of another runway is operationally advantageous.

Answer 16

5

“calm wind”

Question 17

___ personnel determine the runway in use

Answer 17

Kingsley Tower

Question 18

___is the primary calm wind runway. All runway information will be broadcast on the ATIS. ___ is the primary instrument runway for the ILS.

Answer 18

Runway 14

Runway 32

Question 19

The intent of LUAW is to ___

Answer 19

position aircraft for an imminent departure.

Question 20

When an aircraft is authorized to line up and wait, inform it of the closest traffic within __−flying miles requesting a full−stop, touch−and−go, stop− and− go, option, or unrestricted low approach to the same runway.

Answer 20

6

Question 21

____ authorize an aircraft to line up and wait when the ___, unless the aircraft’s position can be verified by ASDE or the runway is used for departures only.

Answer 21

Do not

departure point is not visible from the tower

Question 22

___ aircraft at a time is permitted to line up and wait on the same runway.

Answer 22

Only one

Question 23

Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at anytime when ___.

Do not authorize aircraft to simultaneously line up and wait on the same runway, between sunrise and sunset, unless ___

Answer 23

the intersection is not visible from the tower

the local assist/local monitor position is staffed.

Question 24

When two or more aircraft call the tower ready for departure, one or more at the full length of a runway and one or more at an intersection, state the ___ of the runway when clearing that aircraft for takeoff.

Phraseology-

Answer 24

location of the aircraft at the full length

(ACID) RUNWAY (number), FULL LENGTH, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.

(ACID) RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator) CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.

Question 25

Whenever a runway length has been temporarily or permanently shortened, state the word ____ as part of the takeoff clearance. This information must be issued in conjunction with the takeoff clearance.

PHRASEOLOGY− RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF
PHRASEOLOGY− RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator) INTERSECTION DEPARTURE SHORTENED, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.

Answer 25

“shortened” immediately following the runway number

PHRASEOLOGY−

RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF

PHRASEOLOGY−

RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator) INTERSECTION DEPARTURE SHORTENED, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.

Question 26

When issuing a clearance to land, first state the ___ . If the landing runway is changed, controllers must preface the landing clearance with ___. Controllers must then restate the runway number followed by the landing clearance.

PHRASEOLOGY−

Answer 26

runway number followed by the landing clearance

“Change to runway” followed by the runway number

PHRASEOLOGY− RUNWAY (number) CLEARED TO LAND.

Or

CHANGE TO RUNWAY (number, RUNWAY (number) CLEARED TO LAND.

Question 27

Facilities without a safety logic system or facilities with the safety logic system inoperative or in the limited configuration must not clear an aircraft for a full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−and−go, option, or unrestricted low approach when___ The landing clearance may be issued once the aircraft in position has started __

Answer 27

a departing aircraft has been instructed to line up and wait or is holding in position on the same runway.

takeoff roll.

Question 28

Inform the closest aircraft that is requesting a full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−and−go, option, or unrestricted low approaches when ___

Phraseology-

Answer 28

there is traffic authorized to line up and wait on the same runway.

“Delta One, Runway One−Eight, continue, traffic holding in position.”

Question 29

Whenever a runway length has been temporarily or permanently shortened, state the word ___ as part of the landing clearance. This information must be issued in conjunction with the landing clearance.

PHRASEOLOGY−

Answer 29

“shortened” immediately following the runway number

RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CLEARED TO LAND.

Question 30

If landing clearance is temporarily withheld, insert the word “shortened” immediately after the runway number to advise the pilot to continue.

PHRASEOLOGY−

Answer 30

RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CONTINUE.

Question 31

Anticipating separation must not be applied when conducting __operations, except as authorized in paragraph 3−10−5c2.

Answer 31

LUAW

Question 32

When an arriving aircraft reports at a position where he/she should be seen but has not been visually observed, advise the aircraft as a part of the landing clearance that it is __ and restate the landing runway.

PHRASEOLOGY−

Answer 32

not in sight

NOT IN SIGHT, RUNWAY (number) CLEARED TO LAND.

Question 33

Runway exiting or taxi instructions should not normally be issued to an aircraft prior to, or immediately after,___

Answer 33

touchdown.

Question 34

Provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent only upon __ and other factors including limitations of radar, volume of traffic, frequency congestion, and workload.​

Answer 34

higher priority duties

Question 35

Helicopter

Unless agreed to by the pilot, do not issue downwind takeoffs if the tailwind __ ​

Answer 35

exceeds 5 knots.

Question 36

− A technique to direct aircraft out of the approach stream. In the context of simultaneous (independent) parallel operations, a breakout is used to direct threatened aircraft away from a deviating aircraft. ​

Answer 36

BREAKOUT

Question 37

Tower controller acknowledges and issues a verbal landing, touch-and go, stop and go, low approach or for the option clearance when the aircraft is no closer than __ miles, from touchdown or end of runway.

Answer 37

3

Question 38

If the controller responds to the initial radio call __, radio communications have not been established and the pilot may not enter the Class D airspace.​

Answer 38

without using the aircraft callsign

Question 39

The ___ may waive runway inspections for 173 FW aircraft only.

Answer 39

173 FW SOF

Question 40

If a military aircraft is disabled on the runway, ___ shall advise Kingsley Tower of the estimated length of time required to remove the aircraft and reopen the runway​

Answer 40

the SOF or designated military representative, Klamath Falls Airport Manager, or designated representative,

Question 41

LANDING CLEARANCE WITHOUT VISUAL OBSERVATION ​

Aircraft observance on the CTRD ​__

Answer 41

satisfies the visually observed requirement.

Question 42

ALTITUDE RESTRICTED LOW APPROACH A low approach with an altitude restriction of not less than __feet above the airport may be authorized except over ___ Do not clear aircraft for restricted altitude low approaches over personnel unless airport authorities have advised these personnel that the approaches will be conducted.

Answer 42

500

an aircraft in takeoff position or a departure aircraft.

Question 43

ALTITUDE RESTRICTED LOW APPROACH
The __ feet restriction is a minimum. Higher altitudes should be used when warranted. For example, 1,000 feet is more appropriate for super or heavy aircraft operating over unprotected personnel or small aircraft on or near the runway. ​

Answer 43

500

Question 44

ALTITUDE RESTRICTED LOW APPROACH
This authorization includes altitude restricted low approaches over __ Restricted low approaches are not authorized over __

Answer 44

preceding landing or taxiing aircraft.

aircraft in takeoff position or departing aircraft. ​

Question 45

Do not issue ___ that are dependent upon the movement of an arrival aircraft on or approaching the runway or a departure aircraft established on a takeoff roll

Answer 45

conditional instructions

Question 46

Do not issue __instructions when authorizing movement on a runway/taxiway for the purpose of airfield checks or other airport operations.

Answer 46

unconditional

Question 47

issue the official ceiling and visibility, when available, to a departing aircraft before takeoff as follows: ​

1. To a __ aircraft when weather is below VFR conditions. ​
2. To an __aircraft when weather is below VFR conditions or highest takeoff minima, whichever is greater. ​

Answer 47

VFR

IFR

Question 48

When the aircraft is about __ mile beyond the runway end, instruct civil aircraft, and military transport, and cargo types to contact departure control, provided further communication with you is not required. ​

​

Answer 48

1/2

Question 49

Before Takeoff:

Inform all departing IFR military turboprop/turbojet aircraft (except transport and cargo types) to __

Answer 49

change to departure control frequency.

Question 50

USAF. When an aircraft is cleared for takeoff, inform it of the closest traffic within _ miles on final approach to the same runway. If the approaching aircraft is on a different frequency, inform it of the departing aircraft.

Answer 50

6

Question 51

If a pilot advises Kingsley Ground that the Kingsley Departure procedure is not available and requests that it be provided, controllers will ensure the__

Answer 51

required climb gradient and lost communications procedure is included.

Question 52

There are other textual departure procedures published for runways 14, 32 and 26. There is no departure procedure for runway _. Any of these textual departure procedures may be issued by ATC as part of the ATC clearance if pilot compliance is necessary to ensure separation.

Answer 52

8

Question 53

If a published IFR departure procedure is not included in an ATC clearance, compliance with such a procedure is the__

Answer 53

pilot’s prerogative.

Question 54

All other aircraft departing, making multiple approaches, or requesting closed traffic will be instructed to maintain at or below __ until departure end of the runway when necessary to protect the overhead pattern. ​

Answer 54

5,400

Question 55

VFR aircraft __ automatically authorized to execute the missed approach procedure.

Answer 55

are not

Question 56

Pilots who request __ are considered a flight.​

Answer 56

“sequential closed traffic”

Question 57

Transient aircraft in the category of__ will utilize the west VFR pattern at an altitude, no lower than 5,400’ MSL. ​

Answer 57

Large or Heavy

Question 58

AIRCRAFT CLASSES− For the purposes of Wake Turbulence Separation Minima, ATC classifies aircraft as ___ as follows: ​

___ The Airbus A-380-800 (A388) and the Antonov An-225 (A225) are classified as super. ​

− Aircraft capable of takeoff weights of 300,000 pounds or more whether or not they are operating at this weight during a particular phase of flight. ​

− Aircraft of more than 41,000 pounds, maximum certificated takeoff weight, up to but not including 300,000 pounds. ​

− Aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less maximum certificated takeoff weight. ​

Answer 58

Super, Heavy, Large, and Small

Super.

Heavy

Large

Small

Question 59

___ to any aircraft if in your opinion, wake turbulence may have an adverse effect on it. When traffic is known to be a Super aircraft, include the word Super in the description. When traffic is known to be a Heavy aircraft, include the word Heavy in the description.

Answer 59

Issue cautionary information

Question 60

SAME RUNWAY SEPARATION Separate a departing aircraft from a preceding departing or arriving aircraft using the same runway by ensuring that it does not begin takeoff roll until: ​

When only Category I aircraft are involved− __ feet. ​

When a Category I aircraft is preceded by a Category II aircraft− __ feet. ​

When either the succeeding or both are Category II aircraft− __ feet.​

When either is a Category III aircraft− ___ feet. ​

5. When the succeeding aircraft is a helicopter,___ may be applied in lieu of using distance ​

Answer 60

3,000
3,000
4,500
6,000
visual separation

Question 61

___small single−engine propeller driven aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less, and all helicopters. ​

___small twin−engine propeller driven aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less. ​

___all other aircraft.​

Answer 61

CATEGORY I
CATEGORY II
CATEGORY III

Question 62

The use of tower-applied visual separation is not authorized when ____. ​

Answer 62

wake turbulence separation is required

Question 63

VFR aircraft must be separated from all VFR/IFR aircraft which weigh 19,000 pounds or less by a minimum of:

Answer 63

500 feet vertical separation, or​

Visual separation,

Question 64

Separate VFR aircraft from IFR aircraft by any one of the following: ​

Answer 64

Visual separation
500 feet vertical separation

Question 65

Pilots are responsible for ___ when maintaining visual separation or operating under VFR. When operating under IFR or ATC instructions, ___ must ensure standard wake turbulence separation exists.

Answer 65

wake turbulence separation
controllers

Question 66

WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATION FOR INTERSECTION DEPARTURES ​

Apply the following wake turbulence criteria for intersection departures: ​

Separate a small aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less taking off from an intersection on the same runway (same or opposite direction takeoff) behind a departing small aircraft weighing more than 12,500 lbs. by ensuring that the aircraft does not start takeoff roll until at least __ minutes after the preceding aircraft has taken off. ​

Answer 66

3

Question 67

Separate a small aircraft taking off from an intersection on the same runway (same or opposite direction takeoff) behind a departing large aircraft (except B757) by ensuring that the aircraft does not start takeoff roll until at least __ minutes after the preceding aircraft has taken off. ​

Answer 67

3

Question 68

Separate aircraft taking off behind a departing or landing aircraft on an intersecting runway if flight paths​

will cross​

Heavy, large, or small behind super − _ minutes.​

Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − _ minutes.​

Answer 68

3
2

Question 69

Pilot requests to deviate from the required time intervals must ___ if the preceding aircraft​ requires wake turbulence separation

Answer 69

not be approved

Question 70

Give first priority to___ as required in this order.

Answer 70

separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts

Question 71

Separate an aircraft behind another aircraft that has departed or made a low/missed approach when utilizing​

opposite direction takeoffs or landings on the same or parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet by the​

following minima:​

Heavy, large, or small behind super − __ minutes.​

2. Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − __ minutes​

Answer 71

4
3

Question 72

Separate a small aircraft behind a large aircraft (except B757) that has departed or made a low/missed​

approach when utilizing opposite direction takeoffs on the same runway by__ minutes unless a pilot has initiated​

a request to deviate from the time interval. In the latter case, issue a ___​

clearing the aircraft for takeoff. Controllers must not initiate or suggest a waiver of the time interval.​

Answer 72

3

wake turbulence cautionary advisory before

Question 73

Inform aircraft when it is necessary to hold in order to provide the required time interval.​

PHRASEOLOGY−​

Answer 73

HOLD FOR WAKE TURBULENCE.​

Question 74

Transient aircraft in the category of Large or Heavy will utilize the west VFR pattern at an altitude, no lower than___ MSL.​

Answer 74

5,400’

Question 75

The standard Combat Initial overhead pattern is ___ MSL, with the standard turn (break) to the west. An east break may be requested by the pilot or directed by the tower. ​

The Combat Initial reporting point is located between 3 to 10 NMs from the approach end of the runway. Pilots will break at the departure end of the runway making a 180° turn to downwind and begin descent reaching ___ MSL at rollout. ​

Answer 75

10,000’
5,900’

Question 76

173 FW and ADAIR pilots may conduct TAC 90 arrivals. Pilots will enter the pattern at the “Gap” between ___ MSL. No other entry point is authorized. Pilots will enter the downwind between___ MSL

Answer 76

5,900’ MSL and 10,000’

5,900’ MSL and 6,500’

Question 77

RSRS standards are not authorized: ​

During any situation involving an ___ ​

During any situation involving an aircraft ___or ___ ​

During any situation involving an aircraft ___ behind a ___​

During any situation involving an aircraft ___ behind a ___. ​

​When the runway condition reading (RCR) is less than 14 or braking action reports of fair or less are received. ​

Anytime an aircrew member or air traffic controller determines safety of flight may be jeopardized. In these cases, appropriate separation standards as per the FAA JO 7110.65 will be applied. ​

Answer 77

emergency aircraft.

“Cleared Stop and Go.”

“Cleared Low Approach” “Touch-and-Go.”

“Cleared Touch-and-Go” full stop

Question 78

The RSRS is ___ feet minimum separation for: ​

Similar fighter-type aircraft (except F-35A aircraft) for: ​

​Full stop (FS) behind FS, low approach (LA) or touch-and-go (TG). ​

LA behind LA, or FS. ​

TG behind TG, or LA.

Answer 78

3,000

Question 79

Formation landings in trail (not holding hands). ​

​

3.43.8.2. 6,000 feet minimum separation for: ​

​

3.43.8.2.1. Formation landings (holding hands). ​

​

3.43.8.2.2. Dissimilar fighter-type aircraft and F-35A fighter-type aircraft is 6,000 feet minimum in all cases. ​

​

3.43.9. Nighttime Standards. During night operations, RSRS is 6,000 feet minimum

Question 80

issue traffic​ advisories to all aircraft (__ or __) on your frequency when, in your judgment, their proximity may diminish​

to less than the applicable separation minima

Answer 80

VFR IFR

Question 81

Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait when___

Answer 81

the departure point is not visible from the tower

Question 82

Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at anytime when the intersection ___

Answer 82

is not visible from the tower.​

Question 83

When aircraft are authorized to line up and wait on runways that intersect, ___ must be exchanged​ between that aircraft and the aircraft that is authorized to line up and wait, depart, or arrive to the intersecting runway(s).​

Answer 83

traffic

Question 84

Traffic Patterns:
Closed/Overhead
Conventional
Light Aircraft/Helicopter

Answer 84

5,900
5,400
4,900

Question 85

A standard formation is one in which a proximity of no more than __ mile laterally or longitudinally and​ within __ feet vertically from the flight leader is maintained by each wingman.​

Answer 85

1
100

Question 86

Kingsley Field Class D airspace extends from the surface up to and including 6,600’ MSL (2,500’ Above Ground Level [AGL]) within a 5.4 NM radius

Question 87

Unless alternate instructions have been issued, IFR aircraft are automatically authorized to ___ depicted for the instrument approach being flown.​

Answer 87

execute the published missed approach

Question 88

Issue cautionary information to any aircraft if in your opinion, wake turbulence may have an adverse effect​ on it. When traffic is known to be a Super aircraft, include the word Super in the description. When traffic is​ known to be a Heavy aircraft, include the word Heavy in the description.​

Question 89

Except for super or heavy aircraft, __ feet vertical separation may be applied between VFR aircraft​

and between a VFR and an IFR aircraft.​

Answer 89

500

Question 90

VFR aircraft must be separated from VFR/IFR aircraft/ helicopter/rotorcraft that weigh more than 19,000​ pounds and turbojets by no less than:​

Answer 90

1 ½ miles separation​

2. 500 feet vertical separation, or​
3. Visual separation,

Question 91

1. Between a SVFR helicopter and an arriving or departing IFR aircraft: ​

Answer 91

(a) 1/2 mile. If the IFR aircraft is less than 1 mile from the landing airport. ​

(b) 1 mile. If the IFR aircraft is 1 mile or more from the airport. ​

Question 92

1 mile between SVFR helicopters. This separation may be reduced to 200 feet if: ​

(a) Both helicopters are departing simultaneously on courses that diverge by at least 30 degrees and: ​

(1) The tower can determine this separation by reference to surface markings; or ​

(2) One of the departing helicopters is instructed to remain at least 200 feet from the other. ​

Question 93

Do not assign a fixed altitude when applying vertical separation, but clear the SVFR aircraft at or below an altitude which is at least _ feet below any conflicting IFR traffic but not below the _ prescribed in 14 CFR Section 91.119.

Answer 93

500
MSA

Question 94

The MSAs are: ​

(a) Over congested areas, an altitude at least ___ feet above the highest obstacle, and ​

(b) Over other than congested areas, an altitude at least__ feet above the surface. ​

(c) ___ may be operated at less than the minimum altitudes prescribed in (a) and (b) above. ​

Answer 94

1,000

500

Helicopters

Question 95

Opposite Direction Traffic. ​

​

3.30.1. IFR Operations. ​

​

3.30.1.1. Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Arrival: Opposite direction arrivals will not proceed closer than 10 NM final until the first aircraft has crossed the landing threshold for a full stop landing. ​

​

3.30.1.2. Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Departure: The departure aircraft must be airborne and turned out on radar vectors on a course of at least 45° of course divergence, prior to the opposite direction arrival reaching 10 NM final. ​

​

3.30.1.3. Opposite Direction Departure vs. Arrival: The opposite direction departure must be airborne and turned out on radar vectors on a course of at least 45° of course divergence prior to an arriving aircraft reaching 10 NM final. ​

Question 96

Wake Turbulence application:

Separate aircraft taking off from the same runway

Heavy, large, or small behind Super -__ minutes

Heavy, large, or small behind Heavy - __minutes

Answer 96

3

2

Question 97

Do not approve a pilot’s requests to waive wake turbulence for___

Answer 97

Super or heavy aircraft

Question 98

In the event of a missed approach involving a turn, unless otherwise cleared, the pilot ___ before starting that turn

Answer 98

will proceed to the missed approach point

Question 99

Provide current landing information, as appropriate, to arriving aircraft. Landing information contained in the ATIS may be omitted if the pilot states ___

Answer 99

The appropriate ATIS code.

Question 100

What is the correct phraseology to issue an aircraft a safety alert ___

Answer 100

Traffic alert ____

Question 101

When information is received from any source that a bomb has been placed on, in, or near an aircraft for
the purpose of damaging or destroying such aircraft, notify your ___.
If the threat is general in nature, handle it as a ____

Answer 101

supervisor or the facility air traffic manager

“Suspicious Activity.”

Question 102

When it is impractical or if the pilot takes an alternative action; e.g., parking and off-loading immediately, advise other aircraft to remain clear of the suspect aircraft by at least __ yards if able.

Answer 102

100

Question 103

SURFACE AREA RESTRICTIONS
a. If traffic conditions permit, approve a pilot’s request to cross Class C or Class D surface areas or exceed the Class C or Class D airspace speed limit.

Do not, however, approve a speed in excess of ____ unless the pilot informs you a higher minimum speed is required.

Answer 103

250 knots

Question 104

Closed traffic crosswind legs that are turned before the departure end of the runway are considered___ and shall be requested by the pilot and subject to tower approval. PHRASEOLOGY– ___

Answer 104

non-standard maneuvers

“PRESENT POSITION CLOSED TRAFFIC APPROVED, REPORT (additional information as req.).”

Question 105

Pilots who request___ are considered a flight.

Answer 105

“sequential closed traffic”

Question 106

If a pilot requires a climb to above 5,400’ MSL before the departure end of the runway, the pilot will request a___ on departure.

Answer 106

“Quick Climb”

Question 107

Tactical Initial. 173 FW and ADAIR pilots may conduct Tactical Initials at Kingsley Field. The Tactical Initial is similar to the overhead pattern, but the formation is approximately ___ apart line abreast, with a simultaneous break.

Answer 107

4,000 to 6,000’

Question 108

The standard Combat Initial overhead pattern is __MSL, with the standard turn (break) to the west. An east break may be requested by the pilot or directed by the tower.

Answer 108

10,000’

Question 109

TAC 90 Arrival Procedure.
173 FW and ADAIR pilots may conduct TAC 90 arrivals. Pilots will enter the pattern at the “Gap” between ___ MSL. No other entry point is authorized. Pilots will enter the downwind between ___ MSL

Answer 109

5,900’ MSL and 10,000’

5,900’ MSL and 6,500’

Question 110

Provide _____to civil air ambulance flights when the pilot, in radio transmissions, verbally identifies the flight by stating “MEDEVAC” followed by the FAA authorized call sign or the full civil registration letters/numbers.

Answer 110

priority handling

Question 111

Provide aircraft engaged in the flight inspection of NAVAIDs with ___. Unless otherwise agreed to, maintain direct contact with the pilot and exchange information regarding known traffic in the area and his/her intentions.

Answer 111

maximum assistance

Question 112

Provide ____ as required, to FAA aircraft conducting flight inspections using the call sign “Flight Check.” The call sign “Flight Check (Nr) recorded” indicates automated flight inspections are in progress in terminal areas.

Answer 112

special handling,

Question 113

Direct a general warning signal, alternating red and green, to aircraft or vehicle operators, as appropriate, when:

Answer 113

a. Aircraft are converging and a collision hazard exists.
b. Mechanical trouble exists of which the pilot might not be aware.
c. Other hazardous conditions are present which call for intensified pilot or operator alertness.

Question 114

If radio communications have not been (re) established with the aircraft after __ minutes, consider the aircraft’s or pilot’s activity to be suspicious and report it to the OS/CIC per FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 7, Procedures for Handling Suspicious Flight Situations and Hijacked Aircraft, and paragraph 2−1−26f, Supervisory Notification, of this order.

Answer 114

5

Question 115

When a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure, air traffic control is based on ___

Answer 115

anticipated actions.

Question 116

When notified by the pilot of an RA, the controller is___ from issuing traffic advisories and safety alerts.

Answer 116

not prohibited

Question 117

The runway(s) involved in an emergency situation will have operations suspended upon touchdown of the emergency aircraft for all arrivals and departures. Operations will remain suspended until resumption is authorized/inspection accomplished by the ___

Answer 117

incident Commander,
Crater Lake-Klamath Falls Airport Manager,
or designated representative

Question 118

If the estimated suspension/closure of runway 14/32 is expected to exceed __ minutes Kingsley Tower shall broadcast the suspension/closure over 243.0. The intention is to ensure 173 FW aircraft are aware of the runway condition.

Answer 118

ten

Question 119

Information
requirements will vary, depending on the existing situation. Minimum required information for inflight
emergencies is:

Answer 119

1. Aircraft identification and type.
2. Nature of the emergency.
3. Pilot’s desires.

Question 120

Use of the term ___ indicates recognition by a pilot that his/her fuel supply has reached a state where, upon
reaching destination, he/she cannot accept any undue delay.

Answer 120

“minimum fuel”

Question 121

___ handling to civil air ambulance flights when the pilot, in radio transmissions, verbally
identifies the flight by stating “MEDEVAC” followed by the FAA authorized call sign or the full civil registration
letters/numbers.

Answer 121

Provide priority

Question 122

Consider an aircraft to be overdue and initiate the procedures stated in this section to issue an ALNOT when
neither communications nor radar contact can be established and __ minutes have passed since:
1. Its ETA over a specified or compulsory reporting point or at a clearance limit in your area.
2. Its clearance void time.
3. A VFR or IFR aircraft arriving at an airport not served by an air traffic control tower or flight service
station fails to cancel a flight plan after receiving instructions on how to cancel.

Answer 122

30