GC BLK II

Question 1

When information is received from any source that a bomb has been placed on, in, or near an aircraft for the purpose of damaging or destroying such aircraft, notify your

Answer 1

supervisor or the facility air traffic manager

Question 2

If the threat is general in nature, handle it as a

Answer 2

“Suspicious Activity.”

Question 3

Aircraft bomb threats:

Handle the aircraft as an __ and/or provide the most expeditious handling possible with respect to the safety of other aircraft, ground facilities, and personnel.

Answer 3

emergency

Question 4

Advise the aircraft to remain as far away from other aircraft and facilities as possible, to clear the runway, if appropriate, and to taxi to an isolated or designated search area. When it is impractical or if the pilot takes an alternative action; e.g., parking and off-loading immediately, advise other aircraft to remain clear of the suspect aircraft by at least __ if able.

Answer 4

100 yards

Question 5

Determine the __ of an aircraft, personnel or equipment before issuing taxi instructions, takeoff clearance, or authorizing personnel, and/or equipment to proceed onto the movement area.

Answer 5

position

Question 6

The following locations are considered part of the AOA:

Answer 6

Runway 14/32, Runway 8/26, Taxiways A, B, B1, B2, B3, C, D, E, F, G, H, K, and associated safety areas

Question 7

__ at Kingsley Field/Crater Lake-Klamath Falls Airport are not considered part of the AOA.
The __road is also outside of the AOA.

Answer 7

Ramps and aircraft parking aprons
North perimeter

Question 8

When instructed to “___”, all vehicles will proceed to the nearest exit, depart the runway, remain behind the runway hold short lines and/or runway safety areas, and advise Kingsley Ground when runway exiting is complete

Answer 8

exit the runway

Question 9

Personnel, vehicles, and equipment must be removed from the _ and ___ prior to an arriving aircraft crossing the threshold of the __ and prior to an aircraft starting a departure phase.

Answer 9

over underruns
underrun

Question 10

Work in taxiway safety areas may be permitted up to the edge of the pavement in many circumstances with prior coordination by the __

Answer 10

Klamath Falls Airport Manager, Kingsley Tower, and the personnel operating in the safety areas

Question 11

Provide air traffic control service to aircraft on a ____basis as circumstances permit

Answer 11

“first come, first served”

Question 12

IFR aircraft must have priority over__ aircraft.

Answer 12

SVFR

Question 13

IFR Operations.

Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Arrival: Opposite direction arrivals will not proceed closer than _ NM final until the first aircraft has crossed the __ threshold for a full stop landing.

Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Departure/Departure vs. Arrival: The departure aircraft must be airborne and turned out on radar vectors on a course of at least__ of course divergence, prior to the opposite direction arrival reaching __ NM final.

Answer 13

10 landing

45° 10

Question 14

VFR Operations.

Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Arrival: The arriving aircraft must cross landing threshold prior to the opposite direction arrival reaching _ mile final.

Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Departure/Departure vs. Arrival: The departing aircraft must be airborne and turning on a diverging course prior to the opposite direction arriving aircraft reaching _mile final.

Answer 14

2
2

Question 15

ODO
Center must:
(a)Between an IFR arrival or practice approach aircraft and an IFR departure; ensure the departing aircraft is airborne and turned to avoid all conflicts prior to the arrival aircraft reaching ten __ NM from the runway threshold unless an emergency exists.

(b)Between an IFR arrival or practice approach aircraft and an IFR arrival or practice approach aircraft; ensure the first arrival has crossed the runway threshold prior to the second aircraft reaching ten __NM from the runway threshold unless an emergency exists.

Answer 15

(10)
(10)

Question 16

Vehicles between the __ and__ will be instructed to exit the area to accommodate airplane design group IV-VI aircraft (wingspan of 118 feet or more).

Answer 16

runway
taxiway B

Question 17

Personnel and equipment working adjacent to the runway shall remain clear of the runway and remain behind the __ or __, as applicable.

Answer 17

VFR
Instrument hold lines

Question 18

Clearance to tow an aircraft on the AOA must be obtained from Kingsley Ground and direct radio communications will be maintained with the _ or _ vehicle

Answer 18

tow
lead

Question 19

Runway __ is the only runway designated for use by heavy aircraft.

Taxiways __ are the only taxiways designated for use by heavy aircraft.

Answer 19

14/32

B, B1, B2, B3, C, D, E, G, K, and F (between runway 14/32 and taxiway G)

Question 20

Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ). The POFZ is an area centered on the extended runway centerline, beginning at the runway threshold, __ feet long and__ feet wide with an Obstacle Clearance Surfaces (OCS) directed toward the final approach course.

Answer 20

200
800

Question 21

Opening, Closing, Suspending, and Resuming Runway Operations
Operations will remain suspended until resumption is authorized/inspection accomplished by the __, __ or __.

Exception: The 173 FW SOF may waive runway inspections for 173 FW aircraft only. This means 173 FW aircraft may land at their own risk prior to a FOD inspection and while the runway surfaces are suspended. This exception does not extend to any civilian aircraft.

Answer 21

Incident Commander
Crater Lake-Klamath Falls Airport Manager
designated representative.

Question 22

If a military aircraft is disabled on the runway, the __ or __, __, or designated representative, shall advise Kingsley Tower of the estimated length of time required to remove the aircraft and reopen the runway.

Answer 22

SOF
designated military representative
Klamath Falls Airport Manager

Question 23

If the estimated suspension/closure of runway 14/32 is expected to exceed __minutes Kingsley Tower shall broadcast the suspension/closure over 243.0. The intention is to ensure 173 FW aircraft are aware of the runway condition.

Answer 23

ten

Question 24

Reopening the Runway(s):

__, __ or __ is authorized to open runways after ensuring that all appropriate runway checks are complete as necessary.

The __ or ___in charge at the scene shall be responsible for determining the method to be used in removing the aircraft from the runway.

Answer 24

The Incident Commander
Civilian Airport Management
designated representative

SOF
designated military representative

Question 25

Helicopters will land on the___.

Answer 25

runways, taxiways, and paved controlled/non-controlled movement areas

Question 26

If a pilot requires a climb to ___’ MSL before the departure end of the runway, the pilot will request a “Quick Climb” on departure.

Answer 26

above 5,400

Question 27

Aircraft will be advised to proceed to the hung ordnance area at___ hammerhead until emergency personnel have responded.

Answer 27

taxiway G

Question 28

Gun Malfunctions:
After landing, aircraft will de-arm at the __ end of runway 32 at the hammerhead on _ pointing __. When landing runway 32, aircraft will back taxi on the runway to the south end.

Answer 28

south
G
south

Question 29

Emergency and civilian aircraft with explosive cargo will be directed to park on the__ arm/de-arm end of runway 14/32.

Depending on the type of hazardous cargo, aircraft may be instructed to park on the secondary hazardous cargo area at the __.

Military aircraft carrying hazardous materials will be instructed to park at the __ arm/de-arm end of runway 14/32

Answer 29

south

approach end of runway 26

south

Question 30

__ is not approved phraseology for instructing aircraft, vehicles, equipment, or personnel to cross or operate on a runway.

Answer 30

“PROCEED AS REQUESTED”

Question 31

When established in a letter of agreement (LOA), vehicles, equipment, and personnel in two−way communications with ATC may be authorized to operate in the runway safety area (RSA) up to the edge of the runway surface, which includes when aircraft are ___

Answer 31

arriving, departing, or taxiing along the runway.

Question 32

HELICOPTER TAKEOFF CLEARANCE
Unless agreed to by the pilot, do not issue downwind takeoffs if the tailwind exceeds __ knots.

Answer 32

5

Question 33

Category (CAT) I and II ILS Localizer Critical Areas.
When the reported ceiling is less than __ feet and/or the visibility is less than __ miles, controllers must restrict all aircraft and vehicle operations in the localizer critical area.

Answer 33

800
2

Question 34

CCTLRs must develop procedures to warn controllers (e.g., Obstruct view of wind indicators by physically placing signs over them, use automated methods such as Airfield Automation System [AFAS]) when: __

Answer 34

Aircraft, vehicles, or personnel are on the runway/landing zone.

Question 35

In any case where hot brakes are suspected or confirmed, aircraft shall proceed to the hot brake area located on taxiways _or __ at the approach end of runway 14/32 and notify Kingsley Tower as soon as possible. Kingsley Tower will activate the PCAS after notification of hot brakes (suspected or confirmed).

Answer 35

C
G

Question 36

Verify Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) for personnel and equipment on all runways and taxiways for snow removal. Also verify a NOTAM has been issued showing runway __

Answer 36

7/25 closed.

Question 37

Light Gun Operations. The light guns will be checked during the WS/SC Opening Checklist with an airborne aircraft if able. If unable to complete the checks with an aircraft, accomplish the check with a vehicle on the ground if available.

Question 38

A standard formation is one in which a proximity of no more than _mile laterally or longitudinally and within __ feet vertically from the flight leader is maintained by each wingman.

b. Nonstandard formations are those operating under any of the following conditions:
1. When the flight leader has requested and ATC has approved other than standard formation dimensions.
2. When operating within an authorized altitude reservation (ALTRV) or under the provisions of a letter of agreement.
3. When the operations are conducted in airspace specifically designed for a special activity.

Answer 38

1
100

Question 39

Separation between aircraft within the formation is the responsibility of the __

Answer 39

flight leader and the pilots of the other aircraft in the flight.

Question 40

Support formation flight join−up for two aircraft when all of the following occur:
1.
2.
3.

Answer 40

Requested by any participating pilot.
All participating pilots concur.
Either of the participating pilots reports the other/s in sight.

Question 41

C. After join−up, aircraft beacon code assignment will be determined by formation type.
1. For a standard formation only the aircraft acting as the lead will squawk an ATC assigned beacon code. Ensure all other aircraft squawk standby.
2. For a nonstandard formation, each aircraft should squawk an ATC assigned beacon code. Controller discretion allows aircraft in a nonstandard formation to squawk standby if operationally advantageous.

Question 42

USAF control towers are authorized to inform all departing IFR military transport/cargo type aircraft operating in formation flight to change to departure control frequency before __.

Answer 42

takeoff

Question 43

After takeoff.
1. When the aircraft is about __ mile beyond the runway end, instruct civil aircraft, and military transport, and cargo types to contact departure control, provided further communication with you is not required.

Answer 43

1/2

Question 44

Do not request departing military turboprop/ turbojet aircraft (except transport and cargo types) to make radio frequency or radar beacon changes before the aircraft reaches 2,500 feet above the surface.

Answer 44

2,500

Question 45

Pilots who request ___ are considered a flight.

Answer 45

“sequential closed traffic”

Question 46

Tactical Initial. 173 FW and ADAIR pilots may conduct Tactical Initials at Kingsley Field. The Tactical Initial is similar to the overhead pattern, but the formation is approximately __ to__ apart line abreast, with a simultaneous break.

Answer 46

4,000
6,000’

Question 47

The standard Combat Initial overhead pattern is __ MSL, with the standard turn (break) to the west. An east break may be requested by the pilot or directed by the tower.

Answer 47

10,000’

Question 48

The Combat Initial reporting point is located between __ to __ nautical NMs from the approach end of the runway. Pilots will break at the departure end of the runway making a 180° turn to downwind and begin descent reaching 5,900’ MSL at rollout.
The procedure may terminate in a low approach, touch and go, or a full stop.

Answer 48

3 10

Question 49

If the Kingsley Tower or pilot deem it necessary to terminate the procedure once the pilot has begun the procedure the pilot will be instructed to enter a standard Tactical Initial or breakout to re-enter the VFR traffic pattern.

Question 50

173 FW and ADAIR pilots may conduct TAC 90 arrivals. Pilots will enter the pattern at the “Gap” between 5,900’ MSL and 10,000’ MSL. No other entry point is authorized. Pilots will enter the downwind between 5,900’ MSL and 6,500’ MSL

Question 51

A TAC 90 will normally be conducted by a flight of two aircraft but can be conducted by a single aircraft or up to a flight of four aircraft

Question 52

Based on traffic conditions, Kingsley Tower may disapprove a TAC 90, or approve a TAC 90 east break, to ensure appropriate separation exists

Question 53

Desired spacing for a trail recovery is __ NM between each aircraft/element. Maximum spacing between aircraft/elements will be _ NM unless requested and approved by ATC. Trail recovery is limited to a maximum of four aircraft. Minimum spacing between flights shall be IAW standard ATC separation requirements

Answer 53

2
3

Question 54

NORDO aircraft without escort:
If VMC, descend below 18,000’ MSL and squawk transponder code 7600. Execute NORDO flight procedures

Question 55

No radio (NORDO) aircraft with escort:
The aircraft with operable radios should lead and setup the flight for a straight-in approach.

At 5 NM during VMC, with clearance to land, the escort will offer the NORDO aircraft the lead and drop back into the chase position if accepted.

Question 56

A confidence maneuver consists of one or more turns, a climb or descent, or other maneuver to determine if the pilot in command (PIC) is able to receive and comply with ATC instructions.

Answer 56

CONFIDENCE MANEUVER−

Question 57

Direct a general warning signal, alternating red and green, to aircraft or vehicle operators, as appropriate, when:

NOTE− The warning signal is not a prohibitive signal and can be followed by any other light signal, as circumstances permit.

Answer 57

a. Aircraft are converging and a collision hazard exists.

b. Mechanical trouble exists of which the pilot might not be aware.

c. Other hazardous conditions are present which call for intensified pilot or operator alertness. These conditions may include obstructions, soft field, ice on the runway, etc.

Question 58

When an IFR aircraft experiences two-way radio communications failure, air traffic control is based on ___ .

Answer 58

anticipated pilot actions

Question 59

If radio communications have not been (re) established with the aircraft after 5 minutes, consider the aircraft’s or pilot’s activity to be __ and report it to the OS/CIC

Answer 59

suspicious

Question 60

In the event of lost communications with an aircraft under your control jurisdiction use all appropriate means available to reestablish communications with the aircraft. These may include, but are not limited to, emergency frequencies, NAVAIDs that are equipped with voice capability, FSS, New York Radio, San Francisco Radio, etc.

Question 61

Lost communications:
VFR conditions.If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot must continue the flight under __ and __

Answer 61

VFR and land as soon as practicable.

Question 62

When a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure, air traffic control is based on __

Answer 62

anticipated actions

Question 63

A pilot who encounters a ___ condition should declare an emergency by beginning the initial communication with the word “Mayday,” preferably repeated three times.

For an __ condition, the word “Pan-Pan” should be used in the same manner.

Answer 63

Distress
Urgency

Question 64

To obtain acknowledgment from an aircraft equipped with receiver only, request the aircraft to do the following:
Fixed-wing aircraft:
Between sunrise and sunset:
(a)
(b)

2. Between sunset and sunrise:

Answer 64

Move ailerons or rudders while on the ground.
Rock wings while in flight.

Flash navigation or landing lights.

Question 65

To obtain acknowledgment from an aircraft equipped with receiver only, request the aircraft to do the following:
b. Helicopters:
Between sunrise and sunset:
(a) While hovering, either___ or __
(b) While in flight, either__ or__
2. Between sunset and sunrise: __

Answer 65

a. turn the helicopter toward the controlling facility and flash the landing light

a. rock the tip path plane.

b. flash the landing light
n. rock the tip path plane.

2. Flash landing light or search light.

Question 66

− A condition of air piracy or other hostile act by a person(s) aboard an aircraft which threatens the safety of the aircraft or its passengers.

Answer 66

SPECIAL EMERGENCY

Question 67

If you are in communication with an aircraft in distress, handle the emergency and coordinate and direct the activities of assisting facilities. Transfer this responsibility to another facility only when you feel __

Answer 67

better handling of the emergency will result.

Question 68

Before a determination is made to have an aircraft in distress be escorted by another aircraft, ask the pilots if they are familiar with and capable of formation flight.

Question 69

Do not allow aircraft to join up in formation during emergency conditions, unless:
The pilots involved are familiar with and capable of formation flight.
(b) They can communicate with one another, and have visual contact with each other.

Question 70

When an emergency occurs on the airport proper, control other air and ground traffic to avoid conflicts in the area where the emergency is being handled. This also applies when routes within the airport proper are required for movement of local emergency equipment going to or from an emergency which occurs outside the airport proper.

Question 71

Minimum required information for inflight emergencies is:
1.
2.
3.

Answer 71

1. Aircraft identification and type.
2. Nature of the emergency.
3. Pilot’s desires.

Question 72

An emergency is declared by any of the following:
1. __.
2. __.
3. __
4. __

Answer 72

1. The pilot.
2. Facility personnel.
3. Officials responsible for the operation of the aircraft.
4. A system−generated transmission from an aircraft.

Question 73

If VFR aircraft requests assistance when it encounters or is about to encounter IFR weather conditions, ___

Answer 73

determine the facility best able to provide service.

Question 74

When an ELT signal is heard or reported:
TERMINAL. Notify the __ which will coordinate with the RCC.

Answer 74

ARTCC

Question 75

Aircraft bomb threat:
If the threat is general in nature, handle it as a __

Answer 75

“Suspicious Activity.”

Question 76

When it is impractical or if the pilot takes an alternative action; e.g., parking and off-loading immediately, advise other aircraft to remain clear of the suspect aircraft by at least __ yards if able.

Answer 76

100

Question 77

When a laser event is reported to an air traffic facility, broadcast on all appropriate frequencies a general caution warning every __ minutes for __ minutes following the last report.

Answer 77

five
20

Question 78

Consider an aircraft to be overdue and initiate the procedures stated in this section to issue an ALNOT when neither communications nor radar contact can be established and __ minutes have passed since:
1. Its ETA over a specified or compulsory reporting point or at a clearance limit in your area.
2. Its clearance void time.
3. A VFR or IFR aircraft arriving at an airport not served by an air traffic control tower or flight service station fails to cancel a flight plan after receiving instructions on how to cancel

Answer 78

30

Question 79

The ___ of an aircraft is directly responsible for and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft

Answer 79

pilot-in-command

Question 80

Vehicular traffic will always give way to ___ on any portion of the movement area

Answer 80

responding emergency vehicles

Question 81

When advance information is received regarding an aircraft emergency at Kingsley Field, Kingsley Tower will activate the PCAS when an emergency is declared. The PCAS is connected to 173 FW AM, BDOC, and the Fire Department. 173 FW AM and BDOC have transmit and receive capability. The Fire Department has receive only capability via loudspeaker and will coordinate with Kingsley Ground after initial PCAS activation.

Question 82

Operations will remain suspended until resumption is authorized/inspection accomplished by the Incident Commander, Crater Lake-Klamath Falls Airport Manager or designated representative. Exception: The 173 FW SOF may waive runway inspections for 173 FW aircraft only

Question 83

After a cable engagement, expect runway operations to be suspended for a minimum of __ minutes.

Answer 83

15

Question 84

The successive engagement interval has been determined as __ minutes

Answer 84

30