GC BLK I Flashcards
The following locations are considered part of the AOA:
Runway 14/32, Runway 8/26, Taxiways A, B, B1, B2, B3, C, D, E, F, G, H, K, and associated safety areas
__ at Kingsley Field/Crater Lake-Klamath Falls Airport are not considered part of the AOA.
Ramps and aircraft parking aprons
The __ road is also outside of the AOA
North perimeter
Runway 14/32 RSA: __ feet wide, centered on the runway centerline (___ feet each side of centerline), ____ feet beyond each runway threshold.
500
250
1000
Runway 08/26 RSA: ___ feet wide, centered on the runway centerline (___ feet each side of centerline), ___ feet beyond each runway threshold.
300
150
600
75 feet Taxiways (_, _, _, _, _, and _): 171 feet wide, centered on the taxiway centerline (rounded to 86 feet each side of centerline).
A, C, D, E, G, and K
When instructed to “___”, all vehicles will proceed to the nearest exit, depart the runway, remain behind the runway hold short lines and/or runway safety areas, and advise Kingsley Ground when runway exiting is complete.
Exit the runway
The following areas are established as part of the vehicle movement lanes and are designated as non-controlled portions of the movement area. These restricted crossing locations do not require ATC communication:
- The portion of taxiway G at the south end extending westward from runway 14/32 between the ramp parking (arm/de-arm) areas.
- Taxiway B at the locations where the AOA utility roads cross.
In case of radio failure, Kingsley Tower will__
turn on/off and/or raise/lower the intensity of the runway lights or utilize light gun signals to notify vehicles to exit the runway
Personnel, vehicles, and equipment must be removed from the __ and __ prior to an arriving aircraft crossing the threshold of the __ and prior to an aircraft starting a departure phase.
over
underruns
underrun
Work in taxiway safety areas may be permitted up to the edge of the pavement in many circumstances with prior coordination by the ___
Klamath Falls Airport Manager,
Kingsley Tower,
and the personnel operating in the safety areas
Vehicles between the runway and taxiway B will be instructed to exit the area to accommodate airplane design group ___aircraft (wingspan of __ feet or more).
IV-VI
118
Vehicle operators authorized to operate within the area must:
Hold short of runway safety areas, VFR hold lines, and instrument hold lines
Clearance to tow an aircraft on the AOA must be obtained from __ and direct radio communications will be maintained with the __ or __ vehicle.
Kingsley Ground
tow
lead
Taxiways ____ are the only taxiways designated for use by heavy aircraft.
B, B1, B2, B3, C, D, E, G, K, and F (between runway 14/32 and taxiway G)
The following areas are restricted to military use only:
F-15 ramp
Compass rose.
Building 400.
Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ). The POFZ is an area centered on the extended runway centerline, beginning at the runway threshold, _ feet long and _ feet wide with an Obstacle Clearance Surfaces (OCS) directed toward the final approach course.
200
800
If it is not possible to clear the POFZ or OCS prior to an aircraft on a vertically guided procedure reaching a point _ NMs from the runway threshold, issue traffic to the landing aircraft as described in FAA JO 7110.65.
2
The runway(s) involved in an emergency situation will have operations suspended upon touchdown of the emergency aircraft
Reopening the Runway(s):
__ is authorized to open runways after ensuring that all appropriate runway checks are complete as necessary.
The __ or __ in charge at the scene shall be responsible for determining the method to be used in removing the aircraft from the runway.
Incident Commander, Civilian Airport Management or designated representative
SOF, designated military representative
Where appropriate, use __ in lieu of manual coordination procedures. Do not use the remarks section of flight progress strips in lieu of voice coordination to pass control information.
computer equipment
Local/Ground coordination:
This may be accomplished via verbal means, flight progress strips, other written information, or automation displays. As a minimum, provide __ information as follows:
a. Ground control must notify local control when a departing aircraft has been taxied to a runway __
b. Ground control must notify local control of any aircraft taxied to an __ This notification may be accomplished by __
c. When the runways in use for landing/departing aircraft are not visible from the tower or the aircraft using them are not visible on radar, advise the local/ground controller of the __before releasing the aircraft to the other controller.
aircraft identification and applicable runway/intersection/taxiway
a. other than one previously designated as active.
b. intersection for takeoff.
verbal means or by flight progress strips.
aircraft’s location
The actual departure time or a subsequent strip posting time must be forwarded to the receiving facility unless assumed departure times are agreed upon and that time is within __ minutes of the actual departure time.
3
Tower controller acknowledges and issues a verbal landing, touch-and go, stop and go, low approach or for the option clearance when the aircraft is no closer than __ miles, from touchdown or end of runway. The clearance includes field and traffic information if appropriate, and altitude restrictions for a low approach, if required.
3
Minimum Distance Without Final Clearance. Do not continue a radar or radar monitored approach closer than __ miles from touchdown using PAR equipment or __ miles from end of runway using ASR equipment without verbal clearance from the tower controller
three
three
Kingsley Tower provides traffic advisories and safety alerts while aircraft are __ within the Class D surface area.
entering, exiting, transitioning, or conducting approaches
Upon notification, Kingsley Tower will activate the PCAS and advise that there is an unauthorized movement of an aircraft followed by information regarding __
aircraft type, location, and direction of movement.
Determine the__ of an aircraft, personnel or equipment before issuing taxi instructions, takeoff clearance, or authorizing personnel, and/or equipment to proceed onto the movement area.
position
Light Gun signals:
A/C on ground
Steady Green- Cleared for takeoff
Flashing Green- Cleared to taxi
Steady Red- Stop
Flashing Red- Taxi clear of landing area or runway
White- Return to starting point on
airport
Light Gun signals:
Aircraft in flight
Steady Green- Cleared to land
Flashing Green- Return for landing (to be followed
by steady green at the proper time)
Steady Red- Give way to other aircraft and
continue circling
Flashing Red- Airport unsafe do not land
White- Not applicable
Light Gun signals:
Movement of vehicles,
equipment and personnel
Steady Green- Cleared to cross; proceed; go
Flashing Green- Not applicable
Steady Red- Stop
Flashing Red- Clear the taxiway/runway
White- Return to starting point on
airport
Alternating red and green
General Warning Signal−
Exercise Extreme Caution
Controllers are required to __ when it is not received from the pilot/vehicle.
request a readback of runway hold short assignment
__ at Kingsley Field/Crater Lake-Klamath Falls Airport are not considered part of the AOA. __ is also outside of the AOA
Ramps and aircraft parking aprons
North perimeter road
There is no designated helipad at Kingsley Field. Helicopters will land on the __
runways, taxiways, and paved controlled/non-controlled movement areas.
If a pilot requires a climb to __ MSL before the __ of the runway, the pilot will request a “Quick Climb” on departure
above 5,400’
departure end
Kingsley Tower will __ after notification of any hung ordnance.
activate the PCAS
Aircraft will be advised to proceed to the hung ordnance area at __ until emergency personnel have responded.
taxiway G hammerhead
Gun Malfunctions:
After landing, aircraft will de-arm at the south end of runway 32 at the hammerhead on _ pointing _. When landing runway 32, aircraft will backtaxi on the runway to the south end.
G
south
Emergency and civilian aircraft with explosive cargo will be directed to park on the __ arm/de-arm end of runway 14/32. Depending on the type of hazardous cargo, aircraft may be instructed to park on the secondary hazardous cargo area at the __
south
approach end of runway 26.
Military aircraft carrying hazardous materials will be instructed to park at the __ arm/de-arm end of runway 14/32
south
Verify Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) for personnel and equipment on all runways and taxiways for snow removal. Also verify a NOTAM has been issued showing ___ closed.
runway 7/25
Check with __ for airport conditions
Airport Management or Frosty 1
Avoid clearances which require:
__ aircraft to use greater than normal taxiing power.
Small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in close proximity to __.
Super or heavy
taxiing or hover-taxi helicopters.
Controllers may use the words ___ when issuing cautionary advisories.
rotor wash, jet blast, or prop wash
__is the preferred method for helicopter movements on airports provided ground operations/conditions permit. Air-taxi authorizes the pilot to proceed above the surface either via hover-taxi or flight at speeds more than 20 knots. Unless otherwise requested or instructed, the pilot is expected to remain below Air-taxi __ feet AGL. The pilot is solely responsible for selecting a safe airspeed for the altitude/operation being conducted.
Air-taxi
100
Avoid clearances which require ___ to taxi in close proximity to taxiing or hover-taxi helicopters.
small aircraft or helicopters
SVFR operations in weather conditions less than basic VFR minima are authorized:
- At any location not prohibited by 14 CFR Part 91 . 14 CFR Part 91 does not prohibit SVFR helicopter operations.
- Only within the lateral boundaries of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface areas, below 10,000 feet MSL.
- Only when requested by the pilot.
- On the basis of weather conditions reported at the airport of intended landing/departure.
- When weather conditions are not reported at the airport of intended landing/departure and the pilot advises that VFR cannot be maintained and requests SVFR
b. SVFR operations may be authorized for aircraft operating in or transiting a Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area when the primary airport is reporting VFR but the pilot advises that basic VFR cannot be maintained.
a. Apply __ or __ separation between:
1. SVFR fixed−wing aircraft.
2. SVFR fixed−wing aircraft and SVFR Helicopters.
3. SVFR fixed−wing aircraft and IFR aircraft.
non-radar
visual
Apply _ or_ __ separation between:
1. SVFR Helicopters.
2. SVFR Helicopters and IFR aircraft.
non-radar, visual, IFR radar
Seperation minma:
(a) Between a SVFR helicopter and an arriving or departing IFR aircraft:
1/2 mile. If the IFR aircraft is __ mile from the landing airport.
(b) _ mile. If the IFR aircraft is 1 mile or more from the airport.
less than 1
1
Seperation minma:
__ mile between SVFR helicopters. This separation may be reduced to 200 feet if:
Both helicopters are departing simultaneously on courses that diverge by at least__ degrees and:
(1) The tower can determine this separation by reference to surface markings; or
(2) One of the departing helicopters is instructed to remain at least 200 feet from the other
1
30
SVFR
GROUND VISIBILITY BELOW 1 MILE 14 CFR Part 91 does not prohibit helicopter SVFR flight when the visibility is less than 1 mile. Treat requests for SVFR fixed−wing operations as follows when the ground visibility is officially reported at an airport as less than 1 mile:
a. Inform __ aircraft that ground visibility is less than 1 mile and that a __.
b. Inform arriving aircraft, operating __ of a Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area, that ground visibility is less than 1 mile and that, unless an emergency exists, a clearance cannot be issued.
c. Inform arriving aircraft, operating VFR/SVFR __ a Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area, that ground visibility is less than 1 mile and __ .
d. Authorize scheduled air carrier aircraft in the U.S. to conduct operations if ground visibility is not less than 1/2 statute mile.
e. Clear an aircraft to fly through the Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area if the aircraft reports __ statute mile.
departing
clearance cannot be issued
outside
within
request the pilot to advise intentions
flight visibility is at least 1
__− Used to describe a helicopter/VTOL
aircraft movement conducted above the surface and
in ground effect at airspeeds less than approximately
__knots. The actual height may vary, and some
helicopters may require hover taxi above 25 feet AGL
HOVER TAXI
20
Aircraft weight class publication:
FAAO JO __
7360.1
Helicopters will land on the __ areas.
runways, taxiways, and paved controlled/non-controlled movement
Opposite Direction Traffic.IFR Operations.
Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Arrival: Opposite direction arrivals will not proceed closer than __ NM final until the first aircraft has crossed the __ for a full stop landing.
Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Departure/Departure vs. Arrival:
The departure aircraft must be airborne and turned out on radar vectors on a course of at least __ of course divergence, prior to the opposite direction arrival reaching __ NM final.
10 landing threshold
45°, 10
VFR Operations.
Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Arrival: The arriving aircraft must cross ___ prior to the opposite direction arrival reaching _ mile final.
Opposite Direction Arrival vs. Departure: The departing aircraft must be airborne and turning on a diverging course prior to the opposite direction arriving aircraft reaching _ mile final.
Opposite Direction Departure vs. Arrival: The opposite direction departing aircraft must be airborne and turning on a diverging course prior to the arriving aircraft reaching _ mile final.
landing threshold, 2
2
2
__− The runways, taxiways, and other areas of an airport/heliport which are utilized for taxiing/hover taxiing, air taxiing, takeoff, and landing of aircraft, exclusive of loading ramps and parking areas. At those airports/heliports with a tower, specific approval for entry onto the movement area must be obtained from ATC
MOVEMENT AREA
__− The airspace contained by the lateral boundary of the Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport that begins at the surface and extends upward.
SURFACE AREA
− Taxiways and apron (ramp) areas not under the control of air traffic.
NONMOVEMENT AREAS
Provide airport traffic control service based only upon __.
observed or known traffic and airport conditions.
Ground control must obtain approval from local control before authorizing an __ to cross or use any portion of an active runway. The coordination must include the __ at the runway where the operation will occur.
aircraft or a vehicle
point/intersection
Provide airport traffic control service based only upon __ or __ traffic and __.
observed
known
airport conditions
Do not, however, approve a speed in excess of 250 knots (288 mph) unless the __
pilot informs you a higher minimum speed is required.
Legally, only the__ can close a runway.
airport management/military operations office
If you observe or are informed of any condition which affects the safe use of a landing area:
a. Relay the information to the __
b. Copy verbatim any information received and record the name of the person submitting it.
c. Confirm information obtained from other than authorized airport or FAA personnel unless this function is the responsibility of the military operations office.
d. If you are unable to contact the airport management or operator, __ and inform the management or operator as soon as practicable.
airport manager/ military operations office concerned.
issue a NOTAM publicizing an unsafe condition
Issue FICON NOTAMs upon ___ permitting.
pilot request, workload
In the absence of RwyCC, issue to aircraft only__, as reported by the airport operator or pilots concerning the condition of the runway surface, describing the accumulation of precipitation.
factual information
—As defined in Airfield Operations Instructions, any portion of the airfield requiring aircraft, vehicles and pedestrians to obtain specific Air Traffic Control approval for access (normally via two-way radio contact with the control tower). Controlled Movement Areas include but are not limited to areas used for takeoff, landing and as required taxiing of aircraft. NOTE: This definition is used in lieu of “__” as defined in the FAA Pilot Controller Glossary
Controlled Movement Area (CMA)
“movement area
__ will activate the runway occupied function of the AFAS. __will ensure the runway occupied function of the AFAS is active following coordination.
LC
GC
− Used by ATC when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation
EXPEDITE
Use the word “__” only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation.
immediately
a. The primary purpose of the ATC system is to prevent a collision involving aircraft operating in the system.
b. In addition to its primary purpose, the ATC system also:
- __
- __.
Provides a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic.
Supports National Security and Homeland Defense missions.
Air Traffic Control services are not provided for model aircraft operating in the NAS or to any UAS operating in the NAS at or below __ AGL.
400ft
The VFR practice area is located __of Kingsley Field
Generally, all aircraft will remain below__ MSL.
southwest
9,000’
Arriving aircraft will not over fly aircraft on the runway. Responsibility for separation rests with the __.
pilot
Provide air traffic control service to aircraft on a “__” basis as circumstances permit
first come, first served
_− The rapid air movement produced by exhaust from jet engines
JET BLAST
__ are responsible for wake turbulence separation when maintaining visual separation or operating under VFR. When operating under IFR or ATC instructions, controllers must ensure standard wake turbulence separation exists.
Pilots
controllers
Where appropriate, use __ in lieu of manual coordination procedures. Do not use the remarks section of flight progress strips in lieu of __ to pass control information.
computer equipment
voice coordination
Ensure pilots acknowledge all Air Traffic Clearances and ATC Instructions. When a pilot reads back an Air Traffic Clearance or ATC Instruction:
a. Ensure that items read back are correct.
b. Ensure the read back of __ , whether a part of taxi instructions or a LAHSO clearance.
c. Ensure pilots use __ in any read back acknowledging an Air Traffic Clearance or ATC Instruction.
hold short instructions
call signs and/or registration numbers
Issue the following clearance items, as appropriate, in the order listed below:
a. Aircraft identification.
b. Clearance limit.
c. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) or vectors, where applicable.
d. Route of flight including ADR/ADAR/AAR when applied.
e. Altitude data in the order flown.
f. Mach number, if applicable.
h. Holding instructions.
i. Any special information.
j. Frequency and beacon code information.
Always include the __ when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by an FSS, dispatcher, etc.
airport of departure
a. Issue an abbreviated departure clearance if its use reduces verbiage and the following conditions are met:
- The route of flight filed with ATC has not been changed by the pilot, company, operations officer, input operator, or in the stored flight plan program prior to departure.
- All ATC facilities concerned have sufficient route of flight information to exercise their control responsibilities.
- When the flight will depart IFR, destination airport information is relayed between the facilities concerned prior to departure.
- The assigned altitude, according to the provisions in paragraph 4−3−2, Departure Clearances, subparagraph e, is stated in the clearance
reduces verbiage
When expect departure clearance times (EDCT) are assigned through traffic management programs, excluding overriding call for release (CFR) operations as described in subparagraph e, the departure terminal must, to the extent possible, plan ground movement of aircraft destined to the affected airport(s) so that flights are sequenced to depart no earlier than _ minutes before, and no later than _ minutes after the EDCT.
5
5
Call for Release (CFR). When CFR is in effect, release aircraft so they are airborne within a window that extends from _ minutes prior and ends _ minute after the assigned time, unless otherwise coordinated.
2
1
When issuing clearance void times at airports without an operating control tower, provide alternative instructions requiring the pilots to advise ATC of their intentions no later than __ minutes after the clearance void time if not airborne.
30
When aircraft elect to take delay on the ground before departure, issue departure clearances to them in the __ if practicable.
order in which the requests for clearance were originally made
Avoid using the term “__” except to actually clear an aircraft for takeoff or to cancel a takeoff clearance. Use such terms as “depart,” “departure,” or “fly” in clearances when necessary.
takeoff
Do not release an aircraft if a ground stop (GS) applicable to that aircraft is in effect, without the approval of __ of the GS.
the originator
VFR aircraft are _ automatically authorized to execute the missed approach procedure. This authorization must be specifically requested by the _ and approved by _. When a missed approach procedure has been approved, separation will be provided throughout the missed approach.
not
pilot
ATC
Transient aircraft in the category of__ or __ will utilize the west VFR pattern at an altitude, no lower than__’ MSL.
Large Heavy
5,400
If a pilot requires a climb to above 5,400’ MSL before the departure end of the runway, the pilot will request a “___” on departure.
Quick Climb
When Approach is closed, with the exception of Opposite Direction Operations, Kingsley Tower may provide visual separation within _ Nautical Miles (NM) of Crater Lake-Klamath Regional Airport (KLMT), at and below __’ MSL.
20
10,000
“Option Radar” is when an aircraft will conduct a _ or _, after the completion of an instrument approach then return to Center. When Center coordinates “Option Radar,” Center will assign the Kingsley SID, fly _, and maintain _’ MSL
low approach
touch and go
runway heading
10,000
“Option Tower” is when an aircraft will conduct an instrument approach, then plans to ___. Kingsley Tower will notify Center when the aircraft is VFR.
cancel IFR and remain inside the Klamath Falls Class D surface area
___ Portray the aeronautical data which is required to execute an instrument approach to an airport. These charts depict the procedures, including all related data, and the airport diagram. Each procedure is designated for use with a specific type of electronic navigation system including NDB, TACAN, VOR, ILS RNAV and GLS. These charts are identified by the type of navigational aid(s)/equipment required to provide final approach guidance.
Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Charts−
__ Designed to expedite clearance delivery and to facilitate transition between takeoff and en route operations. Each DP is presented as a separate chart and may serve a single airport or more than one airport in a given geographical location.
Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts
__ Designed to expedite the efficient and safe flow of ground traffic at an airport. These charts are identified by the official airport name.
Airport Taxi Charts−
__A preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) departure procedure published for pilot use, in _ or__ format, that provides obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. There are two types of DP, Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP), printed either__or __, and, Standard Instrument Departure (SID), which is always printed __.
INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE PROCEDURE (DP)
graphic textual
textually graphically
graphically
The __ is the primary instrument departure procedure.
Kingsley Departure
ODO procedures apply to __ aircraft
all
There is no departure procedure for runway ___.
8
Use caution when taxiing ___ in
the vicinity of larger aircraft/helicopters. Controllers may use the words __ when
issuing cautionary advisories.
smaller aircraft/helicopters
rotor wash, jet blast, or prop wash
AIRCRAFT CLASSES− For the purposes of Wake Turbulence Separation Minima, ATC classifies aircraft as Super,__ as follows:
__. The Airbus A-380-800 (A388) and the Antonov An-225 (A225) are classified as super.
__− Aircraft capable of takeoff weights of 300,000 pounds or more whether or not they are operating at this weight during a particular phase of flight.
__− Aircraft of more than 41,000 pounds, maximum certificated takeoff weight, up to but not including 300,000 pounds.
__− Aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less maximum certificated takeoff weight
Super, Heavy, Large, and Small
Do not issue __ instructions that are
dependent upon the movement of an arrival aircraft
on or approaching the runway or a departure aircraft
established on a takeoff roll
conditional
Do not issue __ instructions when
authorizing movement on a runway/taxiway for the
purpose of airfield checks or other airport operations
unconditional
Issue the measured distance from the intersection to the runway end rounded “down” to the nearest __ feet to any pilot who requests and to all__ aircraft, unless use of the intersection is covered in appropriate directives.
50
military
same runway seperation
CAT I
CAT II
CAT III
small single−engine propeller driven
aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less, and all helicopters.
small twin−engine propeller driven
aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less.
all other aircraft.
Vehicles may operate in the RSA up to the runway edge as long as the aircraft and vehicle are given an advisory IAW FAA JO 7110.65, Air Traffic Control, but not in the __
over or underrun areas
