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KLMT TOWER > FLT BLK I > Flashcards

FLT BLK I Flashcards

1
Q

Initial tower rating will be issued to Apprentice controllers who successfully.

A

complete SEI requirements

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2
Q

The __ will ensure the trainee meets the requirements of CFETP/STS and local requirements. Accomplish the knowledge evaluation by using examiner-developed tests that ensure comprehensive CFETP/AF Form __ coverage based on the objectives set in the PCG

A

DE, Form 797

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3
Q

The ________________ have the authority to revoke the ______________ of a controller whose control practices demonstrate a hazard to flying safety.

A

AOF/CC, CCTLR, NSE, and ANSE
position certifications

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4
Q

A CTO facility rating may be suspended by a _________, when the controller’s performance of required duties adversely affects the facility efficiency, aviation safety, or at any time for just cause

A

facility chief, Designated Examiner, or higher authority

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5
Q

______________ are conducted on controllers who have had ratings revoked as a result of a demonstrated hazard to flying safety or suspended due to a lack of proficiency.

A

Special evaluations

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6
Q

Only the____may conduct special evaluations on controller’s whose ratings were revoked as a result of flying safety.

A

DE

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7
Q

Lack of proficiency. A______ must recertify controllers with suspended ratings of ____ calendar days or more

A

DE 270

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8
Q

Lack of proficiency. A __ or __ may perform a special evaluation for certifications suspended less than ____ calendar days.

A

WS DE 270

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9
Q

____ must ensure the tower contains: (11 items)

A

CCTLR, current on base emergency management grid map, Airport diagram, visibility checkpoint charts, current sunrise/sunset table, diagram of the airfield lighting system, wake turbulence chart, FLIP, location and frequency of each navaid, RIF, RRF.

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10
Q

_____It establishes procedures to ensure standardization of all flying and airfield/flight line activities at Kingsley Field.

A

13-204

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11
Q

The ______ determines BWCs throughout the day by line of sight observations of wildlife activity around the airfield environment to include immediate approach and departure corridors.

A

177 OG SOF

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12
Q

How does Bird Watch Condition MODERATE affect traffic pattern?

A

Multiple approach and traffic pattern activity for aircraft ceases. A departure and full stop landing are allowed if the departure and approach route avoids identified wildlife activities. Simulated Engine Out and chase procedures for currencies and check rides are not permitted

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13
Q

Bird Watch Condition SEVERE

A

Traffic Pattern. Takeoffs and landings are prohibited unless approved by the 173 OG/CC or a greater emergency and/or an immediate operational necessity dictates a takeoff or landing is made (e.g. minimum fuel, in-flight emergency, contingency mission, etc.).

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14
Q

Define Class D airspace

A

Class D airspace extends upward from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower.

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15
Q

the Kingsley Field Class D airspace extends from the surface up to and including ___’ MSL (2,500’ Above Ground Level [AGL]) within a ___ NM radius.

A

6,600’, 5.4 NM

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16
Q

The two Class E extensions are:

A
  1. northwest extension is along the LMT 332° radial, 1.8 NMs each side, to 9.6 Nm.
  2. southeast extension is along the LMT 171° radial, 3.5 NMs east and 1.8 NMs west to 7.4 NMs
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17
Q

What are the 5 adjacent airports (ID, name, direction from LMT)

A

Butte Valley A32 SW
Malin 4S7 E
Tulelake Muni O81 SE
Chiloquin State 2S7 NW
Pinehurst State 24S W

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18
Q

The AOA at Kingsley Field consists of all ________

A

runways, taxiways, and safety areas

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19
Q

The following locations are considered part of the AOA: _______

A

Runway 14/32, Runway 8/26, Taxiways A, B, B1, B2, B3, C, D, E, F, G, H, K, and associated safety areas

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20
Q

Runway ____ is the only runway designated for use by heavy aircraft. Taxiways ____ are the only taxiways designated for use by heavy aircraft.

A

14/32

B, B1, B2, B3, C, D, E, G, K, and F (between runway 14/32 and taxiway G)

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21
Q

If a pilot requires a climb to above ___’ MSL before the departure end of the runway, the pilot will request a ____

A

5,400
“Quick Climb” on departure

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22
Q

Hung ordnance includes _____ Kingsley Tower will activate the PCAS after notification of any hung ordnance.

A

stores that fail to jettison or a gun that runs away, jams, or fails to fire.

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23
Q

Aircraft will be advised to proceed to the hung ordnance area at ____ until emergency personnel have responded.

A

taxiway G hammerhead

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24
Q

Gun Malfunctions: After landing, aircraft will de-arm at the south end of ______. When landing _____, aircraft will back taxi on the runway to the ____ end

A

runway 32 at the hammerhead on G pointing south.
aircraft will back taxi on the runway to the south end

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25
Q

aircraft shall proceed to the hot brake area located on taxiways ___ and notify Kingsley Tower as soon as possible

A

taxiways C or G at the approach end of runway 14/32

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26
Q

The arm/de-arm areas are located on _______

A

north and south ends of runway 14/32, taxiway C on the north end and the hammerhead area on taxiway G on the south end

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27
Q

RWY length?

A

14/32 10302x150
7/25 5258x100

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28
Q

Taxiways (A, C, D, E, G, and K)____wide

A

75 feet Taxiways

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29
Q

Taxiways (B, B1, B2, B3 and F)_____wide

A

50 feet Taxiways

30
Q

Taxiway (H)_____wide

A

35 feet Taxiway

31
Q

Field elevation

A

4095ft

32
Q

Runway ____ is equipped with 1,400 foot ____. Runway ____ is equipped with _____.

A

14/32, medium intensity approach lighting sequenced flashers system with high intensity runway lights.

8/26, medium intensity runway lights.

33
Q

If a pilot requires a climb to above_____ before the departure end of the runway, the pilot will request a ____ on departure.

A

5,400’ MSL
“Quick Climb”

34
Q

Runway ___ is the primary calm wind runway. Runway ___ is the primary instrument runway for the ILS.

A

14
32

35
Q

Hung Ordinance.
- Aircraft will be advised to proceed to the hung ordnance area at ___ until emergency personnel have responded.

A

taxiway G hammerhead

36
Q

In any case where hot brakes are suspected or confirmed, aircraft shall proceed to the hot brake area located on ____ and notify Kingsley Tower as soon as possible.

A

taxiways C or G at the approach end of runway 14/32

37
Q

The arm/de-arm areas are located on north and south ends of ___ on the north end and the hammerhead area on __ on the south end

A

14/32, taxiway C
taxiway G

38
Q

Emergency and civilian aircraft with __ cargo will be directed to park on the __ arm/de-arm end of runway __

A

explosive
south
14/32

39
Q

Pattern altitudes:
SFO:
Combat initial (Overhead)
Overhead/Closed
Outside Downwind
Conventional
Light Aircraft/Helo

(WX Minimums)

A

SFO High Key 100-170
Locw Key 70-90
Combat initial 100
Overhead/Closed 5,900
Outside downwind 6,500
Conventional 5,400
Light Aircraft/Helo 4,900

40
Q

173 FW and ADAIR pilots will maintain at or below __ until ___ during all departure phases of flight

A

5,400
departure end of runways

41
Q

The Tactical Initial is similar to the overhead pattern, but the formation is approximately ____ apart line abreast, with a simultaneous break.

A

4,000 to 6,000’

42
Q

TAC 90 Arrival Procedure.
Pilots will enter the pattern at the “Gap” between ___. No other entry point is authorized. Pilots will enter the downwind between ___

A

5,900’ MSL and 10,000’
5,900’ MSL and 6,500’ MSL

43
Q

Victor Airways and fixes

A

V25 N SPRAG
V25 S MUREX
V122 NE
V122 W LANKS
V452 SE TULIP
V452 NW MIXUP

44
Q

Controlled Bailout

A

Aircraft will track outbound on the LMT 200° radial between 17 and 20 Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) VFR between 6,000 and 14,000’ MSL, or IFR level at block 9,300 through 14,000’ MSL and perform a controlled bailout

45
Q

External Stores Jettison Procedures

A

Situation permitting,
aircraft will track outbound on the LMT 200° radial at 17 to 20 DME.
Aircraft will jettison at 1,000’ AGL in VMC and at 9,300 to 14,000’ MSL in IMC.

46
Q

Hung Ordinance

Aircraft will be advised to proceed to the hung ordnance area at ___until emergency personnel have responded.

A

taxiway G hammerhead

47
Q

Gun Malfunctions:

After landing, aircraft will de-arm at ___When landing runway 32, aircraft will backtaxi on the runway to the south end.

A

the south end of runway 32 at the hammerhead on G pointing south.

48
Q

Hot Brakes

In any case where hot brakes are suspected or confirmed, aircraft shall proceed to the hot brake area located on___

A

taxiways C or G at the approach end of runway 14/32 and notify Kingsley

49
Q

Arm/De-Arm Areas, Hazardous Cargo and Hydrazine Parking Procedures.
The arm/de-arm areas are located on __

A

north and south ends of runway 14/32, taxiway C on the north end and the hammerhead area on taxiway G on the south end.

50
Q

the secondary hazardous cargo area at the __

A

approach end of runway 26.

51
Q

Aircraft and vehicle access to the ILS critical area must be controlled to ensure the integrity of ILS course signals whenever the official weather observation is __

A

a ceiling of less than 800 feet or visibility less than 2 miles.

52
Q

What Category is the LMT ILS?

A

CAT 1

53
Q

Kingsley Tower will evacuate to the ___ for sustained winds of ___

A

base building of the control tower
80 knots or more

54
Q

Kingsley Tower will evacuate to the ___ for natural or man-made destruction, fire, and bomb threat

A

270 ATCS

55
Q

The __ opening the facility must complete all equipment checks, as applicable, prior to officially opening the facility.

A

WS/SC

56
Q

Use __ or suitable substitute to document all abnormal conditions and occurrences during each shift in the airfield operations facilities

A

AF Form 3616

57
Q

____, USAF Hazard Reports as soon as possible and forward a copy to 173 FW/SEG, and Klamath Falls Airfield Management after a controlled movement area violation has occurred on the airfield

A

AF 457

58
Q

______, Position Log. Position logs, Attachment 4, are required for LC, GC, and FD positions for each day of the week. Position logs will be initiated at the beginning of the day, normally,.

A

AF Form 3626

59
Q

______Equipment Outage Log. This form, (Attachment 3), will be used to record all equipment outages other than those related to the building (elevator, water fountain, etc.).

A

AF Form 3624,

60
Q

____, Daily Traffic Count (Suitable Substitute). This facility is responsible for daily, monthly, and quarterly traffic count reports to both the FAA and ANG

A

AF Form 3623

61
Q

When a bomb threat is received by phone, attempt to obtain the information contained in WS RRF and ____, Bomb Threat Aid.

A

AF Form 440

62
Q

VFR reporting points and direction

A

Malin SE
Keno W
Modoc N
Olene E

63
Q

The areas of the CMA that require no coordination from ATCT are ___

A

Taxiways A, C, D, E, G, K, and F (between D and rwy 14/32 VFR hold line)

64
Q

What is the VHF/UHF Freqs for Local, Ground, and ZSE 10?

A

Local: 133.975/257.9
Ground: 121.9/348.6
ZSE 10: 127.6/346.35

65
Q

The standard Combat Initial overhead pattern is ____’ MSL, with the standard
turn (break) to the ____. An east break may be requested by the pilot or directed by the
tower.

A

10,000
west

66
Q

The Combat Initial reporting point is located between ____ nautical NMs from
the approach end of the runway

A

3 to 10

67
Q

TAC 90 arrivals. Pilots will enter the
pattern at ____ between ___.

A

the “Gap”
5,900’ MSL and 10,000’ MSL.

68
Q

A TAC 90 will normally be conducted by a flight of __ aircraft but can be
conducted by _____

A

two
a single aircraft or up to a flight of four aircraft

69
Q

Protection of the 360 Overhead Pattern. 173 FW and ADAIR pilots will maintain at
or below ___ until _____ during all departure phases of flight

A

5,400
departure end of runways

70
Q

Jet route altitudes range from FL ____ to FL ____.

A

180 to 450

KLMT TOWER (8 decks)

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