law ppt Flashcards

1
Q

How long should the RP record be kept for?

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What must be included in the RP notice?

A

name of rp, reg number, in charge and notice must be conspiculously displayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can you sign in as RP off premises

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long is the RP allowed to be absent from the premises for in 24 hours?

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What activities cannot be undertaken in the absence of the RP?

A

Professional check, sale and supply of P, POM, PGDS, ES, supply of pre checked rx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What activities can be undertaken in the absence of RP

A

Labelling, dispensing, accuracy checking, taking in rx, gsl sales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many professional standards is there

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does clinical governance include

A

– clinical effectiveness
– risk management
– patient experience and involvement
– Audit
– Education & training
– Information and IT
– Staff management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many CPD entries must a pharmacist complete per year

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is revalidation

A

Revalidation is a process which will help you to keep
your professional skills and knowledge up to date. It
will help you to show how you provide the safe and
effective care patients and the public expect, as set
out in the standards for pharmacy professionals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does revalidation affect CPD

A

Addition of 2 new elements to the CPD framework
for pharmacists & pharmacy technicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the stages of audit

A

identify topic
agree or identify standards of best practice
define methodology
pilot data collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the stages of audit

A

identify topic
agree or identify standards of best practice
define methodology
pilot data collection
analysis
report and make recommendations
implement change
re audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is confidential information

A

Electronic and hard copy data
– Personal details
– Any information about a person’s med hx, treatment or care that could
identify them
– Information shared by patients that is not strictly medical in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

can you disclose confidential information

A

Appropriate situations: when you have the patient’s consent, when
the law says you must, or when it is in the public interest to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is capacity

A

Adults are assumed to have capacity unless there is
evidence to suggest otherwise
* Age does not dictate capacity.
* Young people (16-18yo) are assumed to have capacity
unless there is evidence to suggest otherwise as per
adults – therefore use same criteria to assess capacity.
* Children (under 16) are not assumed to have capacity
and must demonstrate competence (Gillick). You must
be assured that the child has the maturity and ability to
understand what they are consenting to. If a child lacks
capacity any person with parental responsibility can
give consent on their behalf.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the 2 types of consent

A

Explicit – specific permission, spoken or written
Implied – consent indicated indirectly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does capacity mean

A

Capacity means being able to weigh up
information, being able to communication an
answer and understand consequences of a
decision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the steps of whistleblowing

A

– Understand company whistleblowing policy
– Raise concern with member of staff / employer in the first instance
– Many cases can be managed by discussing your concerns with the staff
member implicated – line manager if not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the duty of candour

A

Professional responsibility to be honest with
patients/those close to them when things go wrong
– includes fully informing patients of potential risks before
treatment
– When things go wrong you need to apologise to patient
including what happened, how any harm will be dealt with
and how the risk of others being harmed can be reduced
– This is not the same as admitting legal liability
* Also to be open and honest with your organisation - to
encourage a learning culture by reporting adverse
incidents that lead to harm, as well as near misses

21
Q

What is the limits on paracetamol and aspirin

A

Max effervescent you can sell?
- No legal limit
- Max non-effervescent you can sell?
- 100 but technically 96 paracetamol due to 32 P pack size
- Max GSL pack size?
- 16

22
Q

What is the indication of codeine and dihydrocodeine otc

A

Short term use for acute to moderate pain not relieved by paracetamol/ibuprofen
- Cold/Flu/Sore Throat are no longer indications

23
Q

What is the legal issues around codeine and dihydrocodeine

A

Max pack size?
- 32 including effervescent
- Legal labelling?
- ‘Can cause addiction. For 3 days use only’
- ‘New advice for drivers. See leaflet inside’

24
Q

What can be sold for cough/cold for children under 6

A

– Simple linctus paediatric, Glycerin Honey & Lemon, any demulcent
– No evidence that other medications are effective & ingredients have
been linked to sleep disturbance & hallucinations

25
Q

What can be sold for coughs/colds for 6-12 yo

A

As above, pholcodeine, guaifenesin
– Max 5 days treatment

26
Q

What is the age restriction on codeine linctus

A

Codeine linctus 18+ years as risks outweigh benefits (MHRA)

27
Q

What are the max pack sizes for pseudoephedrine/ephedrine

A

720mg/180mg max supply

28
Q

What are the limits on prescriber requests for emergency supply

A

Rx in 72 hours
* CDs Sch 1,2,3 disallowed except phenobarbital

29
Q

What are the restrictions on patient request es

A

Max supply 30 days or 5 days for Sch 4+5 and
phenobarbital (Sch3). No other Sch 1,2 or 3 CD
permitted
* The words “Emergency Supply” must appear on the
label

30
Q

What are the legal limits on fp10cd

A

valid 6 months
patient name and address, age if under 12, prescriber name and address, signature and date

31
Q

What are the legal limits on private rx

A

1st dispensing within 6 months, after which no limit, any med except 2,3,4. same as fp10, mr and pom reg which is kept for 2 years, coc are exempt from record keeping

32
Q

What are the legal limits on fp10d

A

6 months, as fp10, pmr

33
Q

What are the legal limits on fp10mda

A

first dispensing withon 28 days, cd reg sched 2

34
Q

What are the legal limits on fp10cd

A

valid 28 days, must have prescriber id number and all cd script requirements
cd reg for 2 legal requirement
pom reg is just good practice

35
Q

What are the legal limits on fp10rd

A

1st within 6 months and then batches within 12 months of first
cd 4 but must be within 28 days
signature needed on base
pmr and audit trails

36
Q

What are the storage requirements for controlled drugs

A

Sch 2, 3 only (exceptions include phenobarbital,
midazolam, pentazocine, tramadol and
gabapentinoids)

37
Q

What are cd rx requirements

A

Relevant for all Sch 2 + 3 including temazepam
* Validity 28 days
* Amendments by pharmacist…W or F (not both),
minor spelling errors only
* Address of prescriber??

38
Q

How are zomorph 10mg destroyed

A

Patient returns – Denature and enter into destruction register (no authorized witness)
* OOD stock – Segregate and denature with authorized witness (entry into CD reg)

39
Q

How are temazepam drugs denatured

A

Patient returns – Denature (no records needed)
* OOD stock – Denature (no records needed)

40
Q

How are clonazepam drugs denatured

A

Patient returns – Denature (no records needed)
* OOD stock – Denature (no records needed

41
Q

How is morphine solution disposed of

A

patient returns – Medicines waste bin
* OOD stock – Medicines waste bin

42
Q

How are fentanyl patches disposed of

A

Patient returns: Patient has returned 4 complete patches and one patch he has had on
for 24 hours – complete patches folded in half and places into general waste. Incomplete
patch is folded, cut and placed into doop (no authorized witness). Destruction register.
* OOD stock – Folded, cut and placed into doop with authorized witness (CD reg entry)

43
Q

What is the requirement from school signed orders

A

head teacher, name of school, purpose and quantity

44
Q

What is the pom register requirements from signed orders

A
  1. The DATE the POM was supplied
  2. Name, quantity & where it is not apparent
    formulation & strength of POM supplied
  3. Name & address, trade, business or profession of the
    person to whom the medicine was supplied
  4. The purpose for which it was sold or supplied
45
Q

What additional information could you provide for inhalers on a signed order

A

Explain how to use a salbutamol inhaler & any associated
information
* Advise schools on the selection of the most appropriate spacer
device for the different age groups & how to use them correctly.

46
Q

What is the first step of the cascade

A

Medicine authorised in the
UK for use in a different
species or for a different
condition in the same specie

47
Q

What are the requirements on a vet script

A

Name, address and telephone number of the prescribing
veterinary surgeon
* Name and address of the animal owner
* Identification and species of the animal
* Date of prescription
* Signature of veterinary surgeon
* The name/description of the product
* Dosage and administration instructions
* ‘Prescribed under the cascade’
* ‘Prescribed for an animal under my care’ CD 2+3

48
Q

What must be present on a vet label

A

Name of the prescribing veterinary surgeon
* Name and address of the animal owner
* Name and address of the pharmacy
* Identification and species of the animal
* Date of supply
* Expiry date of the product
* The name/description of the product
* Dosage and administration instructions
* If appropriate, special storage instructions
* Any necessary warnings for the user including any applicable
withdrawal period
* ‘For animal treatment only’
* ‘Keep out of reach of children’