Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PRE REG > Eye > Flashcards

Eye Flashcards

1
Q

State one side effect of using eye gels/drops/ointments?

A

Transient blurred vision. Patients should not drive or perform skilled tasks until vision is clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How are eye drops instilled into the eyes?

A

Gently pulling down on the lower eyelid, blinking a few times to ensure even spread, then closing the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long of an interval should patients leave between drops if using two preparations?

A

5 minutes. Apply ointment after drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the expiry once gel/ointments/eye drops are used at:

A

Home = 28 days
Hospital ward = 1 week
Surgery = single use application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

State a preservative used in eye care?

A

Benzalkonium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

State two side effects of Benzalkonium chloride?

A

Stinging & Irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which two drugs can stain and discolour contact lenses?

A

Rifampicin & Sulfasalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What colour does Rifampicin stain contact lenses?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What colour does Sulfasalazine stain contact lenses?

A

Yellow/Orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which drugs can cause corneal oedema?

A

oral contraceptives, particularly those with higher oestrogen content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which drugs reduce eye movement and blink reflex?

A

anxiolytics, sedative, antihistamines and muscle relaxants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two treatments for dry eyes and frequency?

A

Hypromellose – OD every hour
Carmellose – OD QDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the three main dangers associated with corticosteroids in the eyes?

A
  • red eye can be due to herpes virus, which would be aggrevated by corticosteroids
  • steroid glaucoma can occur
  • steroid cataract can follow prolonged use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When are ciclosporin eye drops licensed?

A

severe keratitis in patients with dry eye disease which has not improved despite tear substitutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment for viral conjunctivitis associated with herpes simplex virus?

A

Aciclovir 5 times daily until 3 days after healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment for blepharitis?

A

Hygiene measures / Chloramphenicol ointment on eyelid / fusidic acid cream for staphylococcal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two side effects of topical corticosteroids?

A

Cataracts & steroid glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment for corneal ulcers?

A

Intensive course with ciprofloxacin eye drops – OD one drop every 15 minutes for the first 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Give one major interaction with phenylephrine?

A

MAOI interaction and risk of hypertensive crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define glaucoma?

A

Group of eye disorders characterised by loss of visual field associated with pathological cupping of the optic disc and optic nerve damage.
Raised Intra-ocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the risk factors for glaucoma?

A

Age, family hx, ethnicity, corticosteroid use, myopia, type 2 diabetes, cv disease, hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is chronic open-angle glaucoma?

A

Where drainage of aqueous humour is restricted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is acute-closed angle glaucoma?

A

Outflow of aqueous humour from the eye is totally obstructed. It has an abrupt onset of symptoms, and is a sight-threatening medical emergency, requires urgent reduction of IOP to prevent loss of vision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the first line treatments for glaucoma?

A

Beta-blocker eye drops OR Prostaglandin analagoue eye drops. If response not adequate then add something like dorzolomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is occular hypertension treated?

A
  • No risk of visual impairment = monitor
  • 24mmHg or more = laser surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

State one beta-blocker eye drops?

A

Betaxolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

State one contra-indication of beta-blocker eye drops?

A

Asthma – due to risk of bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

State one prostaglandin analogue?

A

Bimatoprost / latanoprost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where do you store latanoprost?

A

Fridge 2-8 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the MHRA advice associated with latanoprost?

A

Tell healthcare professional if they experience eye irritation severe enough to consider stopping tx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What patient/carer advice is there for latanoprost (Or any prostaglandin analogues)?

A

Possible changes to eye colour - brown pigmenetation can occur. Elongation of eyelash hair can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the second line treatments for glaucoma?

A

Sympathomimetic eye drops – Brimonidine
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eye drops – Brinzolamide/Dorzolamide eye drops / Acetazolamide taken orally

34
Q

What are the symptoms of Closed Angle Glaucoma (medical emergency):

A

Cloudy eye, hazy eyes, blurred vision, vomiting, headache, intense eye pain, rainbow coloured lights

35
Q

Which four drug classes reduces blink rate?

A

Anxiolyitics, hypnotics, antihistamines and muscle relaxants

36
Q

Which drugs increases lacrimation?

A

Ephedrine and hydralazine

37
Q

Which drug classes reduces lacrimation?

A

Antihistamines, antimuscarinics, phenothiazines, beta-blockers, diuretics, tri-cyclic antidepressants

38
Q

How can isotretinoin affect contact lens wear?

A

Cause conjunctival inflammation

39
Q

How can Aspirin affect contact lens wear?

A

Salicylic acid is absorbed into tears – leading to irritation

40
Q

State one use of sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil eye drops?

A

Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

41
Q

State one use of lodoaxmide?

A

Allergic conjunctival conditions including seasonal allergic conjunctivitis

42
Q

State one use of cenegermin?

A

Moderate to severe neurotrophic keratitis

43
Q

Which eye drop can be sold to adults and children over 4 for treatment of allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Lodoxamide 0.1 eye drops

44
Q

State one side effect of nedcromil eye drops?

A

Taste altered/ eye discomfort and eye strain

45
Q

State two uses of nepafenac eye drops?

A

Prophylaxis and treatment of postoperative pain and inflammation associated with cataract surgery
And
Reduction in the risk of postoperative macular oedema associated with cataract surgery in diabetic patients

46
Q

How does ciclosporin work?

A

Inhibits production and release of lymphokines, thereby suppressing cell-mediated immune response

47
Q

How does cenegermin work?

A

It is a recombinant form of corneal integrity; endogenous human nerve growth factor

48
Q

State two drugs which are used in cycloplegia?

A

Atropine and cyclopentolate hcl

49
Q

State a drug which is uses in anterior uveitis?

A

Atropine/ cyclopentolate hcl/ homatropine hydrobromide

50
Q

State a function of Hypromellose?

A

Tear deficiency (every hourly)

51
Q

How does polyvinyl alcohol work?

A

Increases the persistence of the tear film and is useful when the ocular surface mucin is reduced

52
Q

state a function of sodium hyaluronate?

A

Management of tear deficiency

53
Q

Which eye drop is used for corneal oedema?

A

Sodium chloride eye drops

54
Q

Which ointment is used for eye surface lubrication?

A

Paraffin, yellow, soft ointment

55
Q

What is blepharitis and conjunctivitis often caused by?

A

Staphylococci

56
Q

What is the difference between conjunctivitis and blepharitis?

A

Blepharitis is an irritation and inflammation of the eyelids. Conjunctivitis is an irritation and inflammation of the conjunctiva.

57
Q

Which 4 drugs are effective for infections causes by pseudomas aeruginosa?

A

Gentamicin, tobramycin, quinolones (except moxifloxacin, polymyxin B

58
Q

What are ciprofloaxin eye drops used for?

A

Corneal ulcer (intensive application especially first 2 days)

59
Q

State a function for azithromycin eye drops?

A

Trachomatous conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia trachomatis

60
Q

State one function of propamidine isetionate eye drops?

A

Treatment for acanthamoeba keratitis

61
Q

State one function for cefuroxime for eye treatment?

A

Prophylaxis of endopthalmitis following cataract surgery

62
Q

Which two drugs can treat dendritic corneal ulcer?

A

Aciclovir and ganciclovir

63
Q

What rare side effect can you get whilst takin ciprofloxacin 0.3% eye drops?

A

Ear pain

64
Q

Which quinolone eye drops can cause tongue swelling and oropharyngeal swelling as a side effect?

A

Ofloxacin

65
Q

State 3 common side effects of chloramphenicol?

A

Angioedema, eye stinging, fever, skin reactions, bone marrow disorders, paraesthesia

66
Q

State a drug class that dilates the pupil and paralyses the ciliary muscle in eye?

A

Antimuscarinics

67
Q

State a short-acting weak mydriatic?

A

Tropicamide – doa 4-6 hours

68
Q

State the doa of cyclopentolate hcl?

A

Upto 24 hours

69
Q

State the doa of atropine sulfate?

A

Upto 7 days

70
Q

State an alpha2 adrenoreceptor agonist?

A

Apraclonidine

71
Q

State how does Apraclonidine reduces intra-ocular pressure?

A

Reducing production of aqueous humour

72
Q

State a function of acetylcholine when administered in the anterior chamber of eye?

A

Miosis – doa 20 minutes

73
Q

State a function of povidone-iodine?

A

Peri-ocular and conjunctival antisepsis

74
Q

State an ocular local anaesthetic?

A

Oxybuprocaine hcl / tetracaine / lidocaine / proxymetacaine

75
Q

Which ocular local anaesthetic is common in children and why?

A

Proxymetacaine as it causes less initial stinging

76
Q

Define ocular hypertension in terms of mmHg?

A

IOP greater than 21 mmHg

77
Q

State one synthetic prostamide?

A

Bimatoprost

78
Q

State the treatments for ocular hypertension and chronic open angle glaucoma?

A

1 – prostaglandin analogue / synthetic prostamide
2 – alternative prostaglandin analogue
3 – topical beta-blocker (timolol, betaxolol, levobunol hcl)
4 – carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (dorzolamide, brinzolamide) Or apraclonidine / brimonidine / pilocarpine
(can be monotherapy or combination therapy)

79
Q

What is the treatment of advanced chronic open angle glaucoma?

A

Surgery with mitomycin treatment

80
Q

Which eye drops can cause sulfonamide like side effects as a side effect?

A

Dorzolamide

81
Q

What age does age-related macular degeneration occur?

A

55 years and over

82
Q

What is the treatment for wet active age-related macular degeneration?

A

Anti vegf – Aflibercept / Ranibizumab / bevacizumab who’s visual acuity between 6/12 and 6/96

PRE REG (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions