last min Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse cares for a 34-year-old woman after a lumbar puncture. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. Assess for drainage or bleeding from the puncture site.
B. Monitor for bladder dysfunction and bowel incontinence.
C. Maintain bed rest until lower extremities move normally.
D. Check for loss of muscle strength in the upper extremities.

A

A. Assess for drainage or bleeding from the puncture site.

After a lumbar puncture the nurse should monitor the puncture site for drainage or bleeding. Other assessments include headache intensity, meningeal irritation (nuchal rigidity), signs and symptoms of local trauma (e.g., hematoma, pain), neurologic signs, and vital signs. A lumbar puncture does not affect bowel or bladder function or upper extremity muscle strength. Bed rest until lower extremity movement returns is indicated for the patient after spinal anesthesia.
Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.

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2
Q

A patient with heart failure and type 1 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for a positron emission tomography (PET) of the brain. Which medication prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse expect to administer before the diagnostic study?

A. Regular insulin 6 units (SQ)
B. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg (IV)
C. Alprazolam (Xanax) 0.5 mg (PO)
D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 500 mg (PO)

A

A. Regular insulin 6 units (SQ)

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3
Q

In a patient with a disease that affects the myelin sheath of nerves, such as multiple sclerosis the glial cells affected are the?

A. microglia
b. Astrocytes.
C. ependymal cells
D. Oligodendrocytes

A

D. Oligodendrocytes

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4
Q

Drugs or disease that impair the function of the extrapyramidal system may cause loss of?

A. sensations of pain and temperature
B. regulation of the automonic nervous system
C. integration of somatic and special sensory inputs
D. Automatic movements asociated with skeletal muscle activity

A

D. Automatic movements asociated with skeletal muscle activity

Rationale: A group of descending motor tracts carries impulses from the extrapyramidal system, which includes all motor systems (except the pyramidal system) concerned with voluntary movement. It includes descending pathways originating in the brainstem, basal ganglia, and cerebellum. The motor output exits the spinal cord by way of the ventral roots of the spinal nerves.

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5
Q

An obstruction of the anterior cerebral arteries will affect functions of?

A. Visual imaging
B. balane and coordination
C. Judgment, insight, and reasoning
D. Visual and auditory integration for language comprehension

A

C. Judgment, insight, and reasoning

Rationale: The anterior cerebral artery feeds the medial and anterior portions of the frontal lobes. The anterior portion of the frontal lobe controls higher order processes such as judgment and reasoning.

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6
Q

Paralysis of lateral gaze indicates a lesion of cranial nerve

A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. VI

A

D. VI

Rationale: Cranial nerves III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens) are responsible for eye movement. The lateral rectus eye muscle is innervated by cranial nerve VI, and it is the primary muscle that is responsible for lateral eye movement.

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7
Q

A result of stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system is (select all that apply)

A. constriction of the bronchi
B. Dilation of skin blood vessels
C. increased secreation of insulin
D. increased blood glucose levels
E. relaxation of the urinary sphincters
A

A. constriction of the bronchi
B. Dilation of skin blood vessels
C. increased secreation of insulin
E. relaxation of the urinary sphincters

Rationale: Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system results in constriction of the bronchi, dilation of blood vessels to the skin, increased secretion of insulin, and relaxation of the urinary sphincter. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in increased blood glucose levels.

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8
Q

Assessment of muscle strength of older adults cannot be compared with that of younger adults because?

A. Stroke is more common in older adults
B. Nutritional status is better in younger adults
C. Most young people exercise more than older people
D. Aging leads to a decrease in muscle bulk and strength

A

D. Aging leads to a decrease in muscle bulk and strength

Rationale: Changes associated with aging include decreases in muscle strength and agility in relation to decreased muscle bulk.

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9
Q

Data regarding mobility, strength, coordination and activity tolerance are important for the nurse to obtain because?

A. Many neurologic diseases affect one or more of these areas
B. Patients are less able to identify other neurologic impairments
C. These are the first functions to be affected by neurologic diseases
D. Aspects of movement are the most important function of the nervous system

A

A. Many neurologic diseases affect one or more of these areas

Rationale: Many neurologic disorders affect the patient’s mobility, strength, and coordination. These problems can alter the patient’s usual activity and exercise patterns.

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10
Q

During neurologic testing, the patient is able to perceive pain elicited by pinprick based on this finding the nurse may omit testing for?

A. Position sense
B. Patellar reflexes
C. Temperature perception
D. Heel-to- shin movements

A

C. Temperature perception

Rationale: If pain sensation is intact, assessment of temperature sensation may be omitted because both sensations are transmitted by the same ascending pathways

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11
Q

A patient’s eyes jerk while the patient looks to the left. You will record this finding as?

A. Nystagmus
B. CN VI palsy
C. Oculocephalia
D. Ophthalmic dyskenesia

A

A. Nystagmus

Rationale: Nystagmus is defined as fine, rapid jerking movements of the eyes.

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12
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral neuropathy who is going to have EMG studies tomorrow morning. The nurse should?

A. Ensure the patient has an empty bladder
B. Instruct the patient that there is no risk of electric shock
C. Ensure the patient has no metallic jewelry or metal fragments
D. Instruct the patient that she or he may experience pain during the study

A

B. Instruct the patient that there is no risk of electric shock

Rationale: Electromyography (EMG) is used to assess electrical activity associated with nerves and skeletal muscles. Activity is recorded by insertion of needle electrodes to detect muscle and peripheral nerve disease. The nurse should inform the patient that pain and discomfort are associated with insertion of needles. There is no risk of electric shock with this procedure.

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13
Q

When assessing a patient with a traumatic brain injury, the nurse notes uncoordinated movement of the extremities. How should the nurse document this assessment?

A. Ataxia
B. Apraxia
C. Anisocoria
D. Anosognosia

A

A. Ataxia

Ataxia is a lack of coordination of movement, possibly caused by lesions of sensory or motor pathways, cerebellum disorders, or certain medications. Apraxia is the inability to perform learned movements despite having the desire and physical ability to perform them related to a cerebral cortex lesion. Anisocoria is inequality of pupil size from an optic nerve injury. Anosognosia is the inability to recognize a bodily defect or disease related to lesions in the right parietal cortex.

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14
Q

When assessing the accessory nerve, what should the nurse do?

A. Assess the gag reflex by stroking the posterior pharynx.
B. Ask the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance.
C. Ask the patient to push the tongue to either side against resistance.
D. Have the patient say “ah” while visualizing elevation of soft palate

A

B. Ask the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance.

The spinal accessory nerve is tested by asking the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance and to turn the head to either side against resistance while observing the sternocleidomastoid muscles and the trapezius muscles. Assessing the gag reflex and saying “ah” are used to assess the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. Asking the patient to push the tongue to either side against resistance and to stick out the tongue are used to assess the hypoglossal nerve

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15
Q

When assessing motor function of a patient admitted with a stroke, the nurse notes mild weakness of the arm demonstrated by downward drifting of the arm. How should the nurse most accurately document this finding?

A. Athetosis
B. Hypotonia
C. Hemiparesis
D. Pronator drift

A

D. Pronator drift

Downward drifting of the arm or pronation of the palm is identified as a pronator drift. Athetosis is a slow, writhing, involuntary movement of the extremities. Hypotonia is flaccid muscle tone, and hemiparesis is weakness of one side of the body.

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16
Q

A patient’s sudden onset of hemiplegia has necessitated a computed tomography (CT) of her head. Which assessment should the nurse complete prior to this diagnostic study?

A. Assess the patient’s immunization history.
B. Screen the patient for any metal parts or a pacemaker.
C. Assess the patient for allergies to shellfish, iodine, or dyes.
D. Assess the patient’s need for tranquilizers or antiseizure medications.

A

C. Assess the patient for allergies to shellfish, iodine, or dyes.

Allergies to shellfish, iodine, or dyes contraindicate the use of contrast media in CT. The patient’s immunization history is not a central consideration, and the presence of metal in the body does not preclude the use of CT as a diagnostic tool. The need to assess for allergies supersedes the need for tranquilizers or antiseizure medications in the majority of patients.

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17
Q

A patient who has a neurologic disease that affects the pyramidal tract is likely to manifest what sign?

A. Impaired muscle movement
B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
C. Decreased level of consciousness
D. Impaired sensation of touch, pain, and temperature

A

A. Impaired muscle movement

Among the most important descending tracts are the corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts, collectively termed the pyramidal tract. These tracts carry volitional (voluntary) impulses from the cortex to the cranial and peripheral nerves. Dysfunction of the pyramidal tract is likely to manifest as impaired movement because of hypertonicity. Diseases affecting the pyramidal tract do not result in changes in LOC, impaired reflexes, or decreased sensation.

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18
Q

How should the nurse most accurately assess the position sense of a patient with a recent traumatic brain injury?

A. Ask the patient to close his or her eyes and slowly bring the tips of the index fingers together.
B. Ask the patient to stand with the feet together and eyes closed and observe for balance maintenance.
C. Ask the patient to close his or her eyes and identify the presence of a common object on the forearm.
D. Place the two points of a calibrated compass on the tips of the fingers and toes and ask the patient to discriminate the points.

A

B. Ask the patient to stand with the feet together and eyes closed and observe for balance maintenance.

The Romberg test is an assessment of position sense in which the patient stands with the feet together and then closes his or her eyes while attempting to maintain balance. The other cited tests of neurologic function do not directly assess position sense.

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19
Q

The new patient has a diagnosis of frontal lobe dementia. What functional difficulties should the nurse expect in this patient?

A. The lack of reflexes
B. Endocrine problems
C. Higher cognitive function abnormalities
D. Respiratory, vasomotor, and cardiac dysfunction

A

C. Higher cognitive function abnormalities

Because the frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive function, this patient may have difficulty with memory retention, voluntary eye movements, voluntary motor movement, and expressive speech. The lack of reflexes would occur if the patient had problems with the reflex arcs in the spinal cord. Endocrine problems would be evident if the hypothalamus or pituitary gland were affected. Respiratory, vasomotor, and cardiac dysfunction would occur if there were a problem in the medulla.

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20
Q

Which normal nervous system changes of aging put the geriatric person at higher risk of falls (select all that apply)?

A. Memory deficit
B. Sensory deficit
C. Motor function deficit
D. Cranial and spinal nerves
E. Reticular activation system
F. Central nervous system changes
A

B. Sensory deficit
C. Motor function deficit
F. Central nervous system changes

An older person is at a higher risk for falls because the changes in the nervous system decrease the sensory function that leads to poor ability to maintain balance and a widened gait. The motor function deficit decreases muscle strength and agility. The central nervous system changes in the brain lead to a diminished kinesthetic sense or position sense. Memory deficits, normal changes of cranial and spinal nerves, and the reticular activation system do not contribute to the increased risk of falls.

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21
Q

A patient is having a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The nurse should provide preoperative patient teaching about what potential deficit as a result of the surgery?

A. Increased heart rate
B. Loss of coordination
C. Impaired swallowing
D. Altered sense of smell

A

D. Altered sense of smell

Using a transsphenoidal approach to remove the pituitary gland includes a risk of damage to the olfactory cranial nerve because the cell bodies of the olfactory nerve are located in the nasal epithelium. With damage to this nerve, the sense of smell would be altered. Increased heart rate, loss of coordination, and impaired swallowing will not be potential deficits from this surgery.

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22
Q

The nurse is preparing the patient for an electromyography (EMG). What should the nurse include in teaching the patient before the test?

A.The patient will be tilted on a table during the test.
B. It is noninvasive, and there is no risk of electric shock.
C.The pain that occurs is from the insertion of the needles.
D.The passive sensor does not make contact with the patient.

A

C.The pain that occurs is from the insertion of the needles.

With an EMG, pain may occur when needles are inserted to record the electrical activity of nerve and skeletal muscle. The patient is tilted on a table during a myelogram. The electroencephalography (EEG) is noninvasive without a danger of electric shock. The magnetoencephalography (MEG) is done with a passive sensor that does not make contact with the patient.

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23
Q

A 68-year-old patient who is hospitalized with pneumonia is disoriented and confused 3 days after admission. Which information indicates that the patient is experiencing delirium rather than dementia?

a. The patient was oriented and alert when admitted.
b. The patient’s speech is fragmented and incoherent.
c. The patient is oriented to person but disoriented to place and time.
d. The patient has a history of increasing confusion over several years

A

a. The patient was oriented and alert when admitted.

The onset of delirium occurs acutely. The degree of disorientation does not differentiate between delirium and dementia. Increasing confusion for several years is consistent with dementia. Fragmented and incoherent speech may occur with either delirium or dementia.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1459 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

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24
Q

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with moderate dementia who had an appendectomy 2 days ago?

a. Provide complete personal hygiene care for the patient.
b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital.
c. Reposition the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown.
d. Place suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration.

A

b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital.

The patient with moderate dementia will have problems with short- and long-term memory and will need reminding about the hospitalization. The other interventions would be used for a patient with severe dementia, who would have difficulty with swallowing, self-care, and immobility.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1453 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological

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25
Q

When administering a mental status examination to a patient with delirium, the nurse should

a. wait until the patient is well-rested.
b. administer an anxiolytic medication.
c. choose a place without distracting stimuli.
d. reorient the patient during the examination.

A

c. choose a place without distracting stimuli.

Because overstimulation by environmental factors can distract the patient from the task of answering the nurse’s questions, these stimuli should be avoided. The nurse will not wait to give the examination because action to correct the delirium should occur as soon as possible. Reorienting the patient is not appropriate during the examination. Antianxiety medications may increase the patient’s delirium.

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26
Q

The nurse is concerned about a postoperative patient’s risk for injury during an episode of delirium. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to

a. secure the patient in bed using a soft chest restraint.
b. ask the health care provider to order an antipsychotic drug.
c. instruct family members to remain with the patient and prevent injury.
d. assign unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the patient and offer reorientation.

A

d. assign unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the patient and offer reorientation.

The priority goal is to protect the patient from harm. Having a UAP stay with the patient will ensure the patient’s safety. Visits by family members are helpful in reorienting the patient, but families should not be responsible for protecting patients from injury. Antipsychotic medications may be ordered, but only if other measures are not effective because these medications have many side effects. Restraints are not recommended because they can increase the patient’s agitation and disorientation.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1460 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environme

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27
Q

56-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment (MCI).Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?

a. Suggest a move into an assisted living facility.
b. Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments.
c. Ask family members to supervise the patient’s daily activities.
d. Discuss the preventive use of acetylcholinesterase medications.

A

b. Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments.

Ongoing monitoring is recommended for patients with MCI. MCI does not interfere with activities of daily living, acetylcholinesterase drugs are not used for MCI, and an assisted living facility is not indicated for MCI.

28
Q

The nurse is administering a mental status examination to a 48-year-old patient who has hypertension. The nurse suspects depression when the patient responds to the nurse’s questions with

a. “Is that right?”
b. “I don’t know.”
c. “Wait, let me think about that.”
d. “Who are those people over there?

A

b. “I don’t know.”

Answers such as “I don’t know” are more typical of depression than dementia. The response “Who are those people over there?” is more typical of the distraction seen in a patient with delirium. The remaining two answers are more typical of a patient with mild to moderate dementia.

29
Q

A 68-year-old patient is diagnosed with moderate dementia after multiple strokes. During assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect to find

a. excessive nighttime sleepiness.
b. difficulty eating and swallowing.
c. loss of recent and long-term memory.
d. fluctuating ability to perform simple tasks.

A

c. loss of recent and long-term memory.

Loss of both recent and long-term memory is characteristic of moderate dementia. Patients with dementia have frequent nighttime awakening. Dementia is progressive, and the patient’s ability to perform tasks would not have periods of improvement. Difficulty eating and swallowing is characteristic of severe dementia.

30
Q

Which finding for a patient who has a head injury should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

a. Intracranial pressure is 16 mm Hg when patient is turned.
b. Pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours.
c. LICOX brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO2 of 38 mm Hg.
d. Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the last 2 hours.

A

b. Pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours.

The high urine output indicates that diabetes insipidus may be developing, and interventions to prevent dehydration need to be rapidly implemented. The other data do not indicate a need for any change in therapy.

31
Q

A patient with possible viral meningitis is admitted to the nursing unit after lumbar puncture was performed in the emergency department. Which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse question?

a. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees.
b. Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL daily.
c. Administer ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1 g IV every 12 hours.
d. Give ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours as needed for headache.

A

b. Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL daily.

The patient with meningitis has increased fluid needs, so oral fluids should be encouraged. The other actions are appropriate. Slight elevation of the head of the bed will decrease headache without causing leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the lumbar puncture site. Antibiotics should be administered until bacterial meningitis is ruled out by the cerebrospinal fluid analysis.

32
Q

Which action will the public health nurse take to reduce the incidence of epidemic encephalitis in a community?

a. Encourage the use of effective insect repellents during mosquito season.
b. Remind patients that most cases of viral encephalitis can be cared for at home.
c. Teach about the importance of prophylactic antibiotics after exposure to encephalitis.
d. Arrange for screening of school-age children for West Nile virus during the school year.

A

a. Encourage the use of effective insect repellents during mosquito season.

33
Q

To assess for functional deficits, which question will the nurse ask a patient who has been admitted for treatment of a benign occipital lobe tumor?

a. “Do you have difficulty in hearing?”
b. “Are you experiencing visual problems?”
c. “Are you having any trouble with your balance?”
d. “Have you developed any weakness on one side?”

A

b. “Are you experiencing visual problems?”

Because the occipital lobe is responsible for visual reception, the patient with a tumor in this area is likely to have problems with vision. The other questions will be better for assessing function of the temporal lobe, cerebellum, and frontal lobe.

34
Q

An unconscious patient with a traumatic head injury has a blood pressure of 130/76 mm Hg, and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. The nurse will calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) as ____ mm Hg.

A

ANS:
74
Calculate the CPP: (CPP = mean arterial pressure [MAP] - ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (systolic blood pressure [SBP] - diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). The MAP is 94. The CPP is 74.

35
Q
he nurse assessing a 54-year-old female patient with newly diagnosed trigeminal neuralgia will ask the patient about
a.
visual problems caused by ptosis.
b.
triggers leading to facial discomfort.
c.
poor appetite caused by loss of taste.
d.
weakness on the affected side of the face.
A

b.

triggers leading to facial discomfort.

36
Q

Which action should the nurse take when assessing a patient with trigeminal neuralgia?
a.
Have the patient clench the jaws.
b.
Inspect the oral mucosa and teeth.
c.
Palpate the face to compare skin temperature bilaterally.
d.
Identify trigger zones by lightly touching the affected side.

A

b.

Inspect the oral mucosa and teeth.

37
Q

When evaluating outcomes of a glycerol rhizotomy for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia, the nurse will
a.
assess whether the patient is doing daily facial exercises.
b.
question whether the patient is using an eye shield at night.
c.
ask the patient about social activities with family and friends.
d.
remind the patient to chew on the unaffected side of the mouth.

A

c.

ask the patient about social activities with family and friends.

38
Q
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 62-year-old patient who is experiencing pain from trigeminal neuralgia?
a.
Assess fluid and dietary intake.
b.
Apply ice packs for 20 minutes.
c.
Teach facial relaxation techniques.
d.
Spend time talking with the patient.
A

a.

Assess fluid and dietary intake.

39
Q

The nurse identifies a patient with type 1 diabetes and a history of herpes simplex infection as being at risk for Bell’s palsy. Which information should the nurse include in teaching the patient?
a.
“You may be able to prevent Bell’s palsy by doing facial exercises regularly.”
b.
“Prophylactic treatment of herpes with antiviral agents prevents Bell’s palsy.”
c.
“Medications to treat Bell’s palsy work only if started before paralysis onset.”
d.
“Call the doctor if you experience pain or develop herpes lesions near the ear.”

A

d.

“Call the doctor if you experience pain or develop herpes lesions near the ear.”

40
Q

A 32-year-old pregnant patient with Bell’s palsy refuses to eat while others are present because of embarrassment about drooling. The best response by the nurse is to
a.
respect the patient’s feelings and arrange for privacy at mealtimes.
b.
teach the patient to chew food on the unaffected side of the mouth.
c.
offer the patient liquid nutritional supplements at frequent intervals.
d.
discuss the patient’s concerns with visitors who arrive at mealtimes.

A

a.

respect the patient’s feelings and arrange for privacy at mealtimes.

41
Q

Which nursing action will the home health nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with paraplegia at the T4 level in order to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?
a.
Support selection of a high-protein diet.
b.
Discuss options for sexuality and fertility.
c.
Assist in planning a prescribed bowel program.
d.
Use quad coughing to strengthen cough efforts.

A

c.

Assist in planning a prescribed bowel program.

42
Q

Which assessment data for a patient who has Guillain-Barré syndrome will require the nurse’s most immediate action?
a.
The patient’s triceps reflexes are absent.
b.
The patient is continuously drooling saliva.
c.
The patient complains of severe pain in the feet.
d.
The patient’s blood pressure (BP) is 150/82 mm Hg.

A

b.

The patient is continuously drooling saliva.

43
Q

A 68-year-old patient hospitalized with a new diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome has numbness and weakness of both feet. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about
a.
intubation and mechanical ventilation.
b.
administration of corticosteroid drugs.
c.
insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube.
d.
infusion of immunoglobulin (Sandoglobulin).

A

d.

infusion of immunoglobulin (Sandoglobulin).

44
Q

A construction worker arrives at an urgent care center with a deep puncture wound after an old nail penetrated his boot.. The patient reports having had a tetanus booster 6 years ago. The nurse will anticipate
a.
IV infusion of tetanus immune globulin (TIG).
b.
administration of the tetanus-diphtheria (Td) booster.
c.
intradermal injection of an immune globulin test dose.
d.
initiation of the tetanus-diphtheria immunization series.

A

b.

administration of the tetanus-diphtheria (Td) booster.

45
Q

The nurse is admitting a patient with a neck fracture at the C6 level to the intensive care unit. Which assessment finding(s) indicate(s) neurogenic shock?
a.
Hyperactive reflex activity below the level of injury
b.
Involuntary, spastic movements of the arms and legs
c.
Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, pink extremities
d.
Lack of sensation or movement below the level of injury

A

c.

Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, pink extremities

46
Q

A 39-year-old patient is being evaluated for a possible spinal cord tumor. Which finding by the nurse requires the most immediate action?
a.
The patient has new onset weakness of both legs.
b.
The patient complains of chronic severe back pain.
c.
The patient starts to cry and says, “I feel hopeless.”
d.
The patient expresses anxiety about having surgery.

A

a.

The patient has new onset weakness of both legs.

47
Q

Which action will the nurse take when caring for a 46-year-old patient who develops tetanus from an injectable substance use?
a.
Avoid use of sedatives.
b.
Provide a quiet environment.
c.
Check pupil reaction to light every 4 hours.
d.
Provide range-of-motion exercises several times daily.

A

b.

Provide a quiet environment

48
Q

Following a cauda equina spinal cord injury, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?
a.
Catheterize patient every 3 to 4 hours.
b.
Assist patient to ambulate several times daily.
c.
Administer medications to reduce bladder spasm.
d.
Stabilize the neck when repositioning the patient.

A

a.

Catheterize patient every 3 to 4 hours.

49
Q

A nurse who works on the neurology unit just received change-of-shift report. Which patient will the nurse assess first?
a.
Patient with botulism who is experiencing difficulty swallowing
b.
Patient with Bell’s palsy who has herpes vesicles in front of the ear
c.
Patient with neurosyphilis who has tabes dorsalis and decreased deep tendon reflexes
d.
Patient with an abscess caused by injectable drug use who needs tetanus immune globulin

A

a.

Patient with botulism who is experiencing difficulty swallowing

50
Q

The home health nurse is caring for an 81-year-old who had a stroke 2 months ago. Based on information shown in the accompanying figure from the history, physical assessment, and physical therapy/occupational therapy, which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority for this patient?

a. Impaired transfer ability
b. Risk for caregiver role strain
c. Ineffective health maintenance
d. Risk for unstable blood glucose level

A

b. Risk for caregiver role strain

51
Q

A patient has a lesion that affects lower motor neurons. During assessment of the patient’s lower extremities, the nurse expects to find

a. spasticity.
b. flaccidity.
c. loss of sensation.
d. hyperactive reflexes.

A

b. flaccidity.

52
Q

When performing a focused assessment on a patient with a lesion of the left posterior temporal lobe, the nurse will assess for

a. sensation on the left side of the body.
b. voluntary movement on the right side.
c. reasoning and problem-solving abilities.
d. understanding of written and oral language.

A

d. understanding of written and oral language.

53
Q

Propranolol (Inderal), a β-adrenergic blocker that inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity, is prescribed for a patient. The nurse monitors the patient for

a. dry mouth.
b. constipation.
c. slowed pulse.
d. urinary retention.

A

c. slowed pulse.

54
Q

To assess the functioning of the trigeminal and facial nerves (CN V and VII), the nurse should

a. apply a cotton wisp strand to the cornea.
b. have the patient read a magazine or book.
c. shine a bright light into the patient’s pupil.
d. check for unilateral drooping of the eyelids.

A

a. apply a cotton wisp strand to the cornea.

55
Q

Neurologic testing of the patient indicates impaired functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and the vagus nerve (CN X). Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?

a. Insert an oral airway.
b. Withhold oral fluid or foods.
c. Provide highly seasoned foods.
d. Apply artificial tears every hour.

A

b. Withhold oral fluid or foods.

56
Q

During the neurologic assessment, the patient cooperates with the nurse’s directions to grip with the hands and to move the feet but is unable to respond orally to the nurse’s questions. The nurse will suspect

a. a brainstem lesion.
b. a temporal lobe lesion.
c. injury to the cerebellum.
d. damage to the frontal lobe.

A

d. damage to the frontal lobe.

57
Q

When developing a plan of care for a patient with dysfunction of the cerebellum, the nurse will include interventions to

a. prevent falls.
b. stabilize mood.
c. enhance swallowing ability.
d. improve short-term memory.

A

a. prevent falls.

58
Q

The nurse notes in the patient’s medical history that the patient has a positive Romberg test. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate?

a. Acute pain related to hyperreflexia and spasm
b. Risk for falls related to dizziness or weakness
c. Disturbed tactile sensory perception related to spinal cord damage
d. Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased vasomotor response

A

b. Risk for falls related to dizziness or weakness

59
Q

A patient is hospitalized with a possible seizure disorder. To determine the cause of the patient’s symptoms, the nurse will anticipate the need to teach the patient about which of these tests?

a. Cerebral angiography
b. Evoked potential studies
c. Electromyography (EMG)
d. Electroencephalography (EEG)

A

d. Electroencephalography (EEG)

60
Q

When caring for a patient who has had cerebral angiography, which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

a. Ask about headache and photophobia.
b. Keep patient NPO until gag reflex returns.
c. Check pulse and blood pressure frequently.
d. Assess orientation to person, place, and time.

A

c. Check pulse and blood pressure frequently.

Since a catheter is inserted into an artery (such as the femoral artery) during cerebral angiography, the nurse should assess for bleeding after this procedure. The other nursing assessments are not necessary after angiography.

61
Q

charge nurse is observing a new staff nurse who is assessing a patient with a possible spinal cord lesion for sensation. Which action indicates a need for further teaching about neurologic assessment?

a. The new nurse asks the patient, “Does this feel sharp?”
b. The new nurse tests for light touch before testing for pain.
c. The new nurse has the patient close the eyes during testing.
d. The new nurse uses an irregular pattern to test for intact touch.

A

a. The new nurse asks the patient, “Does this feel sharp?”

When performing a sensory assessment, the nurse should not provide verbal clues. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate.

62
Q

After reviewing a patient’s cerebrospinal fluid analysis, which result will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?

a. Specific gravity 1.007
b. Protein 65 mg/dL (0.30 g/L)
c. White blood cell (WBC) count 4/μL
d. Glucose 45 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L)

A

d. Glucose 45 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L)

63
Q

A patient with a brainstem infarction is admitted to the nursing unit. The priority nursing assessment for the patient is

a. reflex reaction time.
b. pupil reaction to light.
c. level of consciousness.
d. respiratory rate and rhythm.

A

d. respiratory rate and rhythm.

Vital centers that control respiration are located in the medulla, and these are the priority assessments because changes in respiratory function may be life threatening. The other information also will be collected by the nurse, but it is not as urgent.

64
Q

Which assessments will the nurse make to test a patient’s cerebellar function (select all that apply)?

a. Assess for graphesthesia.
b. Perform the finger-to-nose test.
c. Observe arm movement with gait.
d. Check ability to push against resistance.
e. Determine ability to sense heat and cold.

A

b. Perform the finger-to-nose test.

c. Observe arm movement with gait.

65
Q

The nurse is caring for a group of well older people at a community day center. Which neurologic finding associated with aging would the nurse expect to find in older adults?

A. Longer reaction time
B. Improved sense of taste
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

A

C. Orthostatic hypotension

66
Q

In which patient would it be the most important for the nurse to assess the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves?

A. A 50-year-old woman with lethargy from a drug overdose
B. A 40-year-old man with a complete lumbar spinal cord injury
C. A 60-year-old man with severe pain from trigeminal neuralgia
D. A 30-year-old woman with a high fever and bacterial meningitis

A

A. A 50-year-old woman with lethargy from a drug overdose

The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves innervate the pharynx and are tested by the gag reflex. It is important to assess the gag reflex in patients who have a decreased level of consciousness, a brainstem lesion, or a disease involving the throat musculature. If the reflex is weak or absent, the patient is in danger of aspirating food or secretions.