Exam 4 Shocks, MODS, SIRS Flashcards
Which types of shock may cause reduced urinary output in a patient? [Select all that apply]
A. Septic shock B. Hypovolemic shock C. Neurogenic shock D. Anaphylactic shock E. Cariogenic shock.
A. Septic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
E. Cariogenic shock.
Decreased urine output is a clinical manifestation of septic, hypovolemic, obstructive and cardiogenic shock. Neurogenic shock is associated with bladder dysfunction. Anaphylactic shock is associated with urinary incontinence.
Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery a patient has postoperative bleeding that requires returning to surgery to repair the leak. During surgery, the patient has a myocardial infarction (MI). After restoring the patient’s body temperature to normal, which patient assessment is the most important for planning nursing care?
A. Cardiac index (CI) 5 L/min/m2
B. Central venous pressure (CVP) 8 mm Hg
C. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) 86 mm Hg
D. Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) 28/14 mm Hg
D. Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) 28/14 mm Hg
Pulmonary hypertension as indicated by an elevated PAP indicates impaired forward flow of blood because of left ventricular dysfunction or hypoxemia. Both can be caused by the MI. The CI, CVP, and MAP readings are normal.
A patient in neurogenic shock is receiving phenylephrine. Which nursing actions are appropriate when caring for this patient?
A. Monitoring for signs of dyspnea and pulmonary edema
B. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and hyperglycemia
C. Monitoring for signs of reflex bradycardia and restlessness
D. Monitoring for signs of hypothyroidism and Addison’s disease
C. Monitoring for signs of reflex bradycardia and restlessness
Phenylephrine is α-adrenergic agonist and may cause bradycardia and restlessness due to central nervous system stimulation. β-adrenergic agonists such as epinephrine cause dyspnea and pulmonary edema. Phenylephrine does not increase the elimination of potassium levels or blood glucose levels. Therefore, the patient does not have risk of hypokalemia and hyperglycemia. Phenylephrine does not impair thyroid and adrenal gland functioning. Therefore, the nurse will not monitor for the signs of hypothyroidism and Addison’s disease.
When managing a patient with shock, which appropriate actions should the nurse take as part of nutritional therapy? [Select all that apply]
A. Plan enteral feeding to meet at least 50 percent of calorie requirements.
B. Start enteral nutrition within the first 24 hours.
C. Wait until the patient recovers to start with enteral nutrition.
D. Start a slow continuous drip of small amounts of enteral feedings.
E. Start parenteral nutrition if enteral feedings are contraindicated.
B. Start enteral nutrition within the first 24 hours.
D. Start a slow continuous drip of small amounts of enteral feedings.
E. Start parenteral nutrition if enteral feedings are contraindicated.
Enteral nutrition should ideally begin within the first 24 hours. It is important because it enhances the perfusion of the (gastrointestinal) GI tract and helps to maintain the integrity of the gastrointestinal mucosa. Enteral feeding should be started with a slow continuous drip of small amounts of enteral feedings. If enteral feedings are contraindicated, parenteral feedings can be started. Enteral feeding should be planned to meet at least 80 percent of the total calorie requirements, but if it is not feasible, parenteral feeding should be started. Nutritional therapy should start as early as possible. The nurse should not wait for the patient to recover before starting nutritional therapy.
When caring for a critically ill patient who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse will astutely monitor for which clinical manifestation of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
A. Increased serum albumin
B. Decreased respiratory compliance
C. Increased gastrointestinal (GI) motility
D. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio
B. Decreased respiratory compliance
Clinical manifestations of MODS include symptoms of respiratory distress, signs and symptoms of decreased renal perfusion, decreased serum albumin and prealbumin, decreased GI motility, acute neurologic changes, myocardial dysfunction, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and changes in glucose metabolism. Serum albumin is not increased, GI motility decreases in MODS, and the BUN/Creatinine ratio likely will increase.
What occurs when the inflammatory response is activated in a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)?
A. Release of mediators
B. Decrease in metabolism
C. Damage of the mesothelium
D. Decrease in vascular permeability
A. Release of mediators
A release of mediators occurs when the inflammatory response is activated. Other changes that occur include an increase in metabolism or hypermetabolism, direct damage to the endothelium, and an increase in vascular permeability.
Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has
cardiogenic shock?
A. Avoid elevating head of bed.
B. Check temperature every 2 hours.
C. Monitor breath sounds frequently.
D. Assess skin for flushing and itching.
C. Monitor breath sounds frequently.
Since pulmonary congestion and dyspnea are characteristics of cardiogenic shock, the
nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The head of the bed is usually elevated
to decrease dyspnea. Elevated temperature and flushing or itching of the skin are not
typical of cardiogenic shock.
The following therapies are prescribed by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after a bee sting. Which will the nurse administer first?
A. normal saline infusion
B. epinephrine (Adrenalin)
C. dexamethasone (Decadron)
D. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B. epinephrine (Adrenalin)
Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions also are appropriate but would not be the first ones administered.
To evaluate the effectiveness of the pantoprazole (Protonix) ordered for a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse perform?
A. Auscultate bowel sounds.
B. Palpate for abdominal pain.
C. Ask the patient about nausea.
D. Check stools for occult blood.
D. Check stools for occult blood.
Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease the risk for stress ulcers in critically ill patients. The other assessments also will be done, but these will not help in determining the effectiveness of the pantoprazole administration.
A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?
A. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr.
B. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally.
C. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL.
D. Start norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg.
A. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr.
Because of the low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate, and should be initiated quickly as well.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
a. Blood pressure (BP) 92/56 mm Hg
b. Skin cool and clammy
c. Oxygen saturation 92%
d. Heart rate 118 beats/minute
b. Skin cool and clammy
Because patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient’s cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information will also be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient’s status.
The following interventions are ordered by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after eating strawberries. Which will the nurse complete first?
a. Start a normal saline infusion.
b. Give epinephrine (Adrenalin).
c. Start continuous ECG monitoring.
d. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
b. Give epinephrine (Adrenalin).
Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions are also appropriate but would not be the first ones completed.
A patient experiences a myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse closely monitors the patient for complications and recognizes that hypotension is a warning sign of:
A. A secondary MI
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Fatal dysrhythmias
C. Cardiogenic shock
One of the initial cardinal signs of cardiogenic shock after a myocardial infarction (MI) is a slow, steady drop in blood pressure. Hypotension after an MI may be an indirect sign of a secondary MI or a fatal dysrhythmia. Depending on the origin of pulmonary edema, patients may experience hypotension or hypertension.
A patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) after multiple bee stings. On assessment, the nurse finds that the patient has edema on the lips and tongue as well as chest pain, dizziness, wheezing, and stridor. What type of shock should the nurse document this as?
A. Septic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
Anaphylactic shock is an acute, life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction to a sensitizing substance that, in this case, is insect venom. The reaction quickly causes massive vasodilation, release of vasoactive mediators, and an increase in capillary permeability. As capillary permeability increases, fluid leaks from the vascular space into the interstitial space. The consequences of these pathophysiologic processes include edema on the lips and tongue, chest pain, wheezing, and stridor. Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to a documented or suspected infection. Neurogenic shock is a hemodynamic phenomenon that can occur within 30 minutes of a spinal cord injury at the fifth thoracic (T5) vertebra or above.
Why is there a loss of lean body mass in patients with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiorgan dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
A. Hypoglycemia occurs.
B. Glucose is converted to glycogen.
C. Fatty acids are mobilized for fuel.
D. Glucose is converted to amino acids.
C. Fatty acids are mobilized for fuel.
Both SIRS and MODS trigger a hypermetabolism response leading to mobilization of fatty acids for fuel. Such a catabolic state leads to loss of lean body mass. Because catecholamines and glucocorticoids are released, hyperglycemia occurs, not hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia also occurs, because glycogen stores are converted into glucose. Once glycogen is depleted, amino acids are converted into glucose and there is a reduction in protein stores.
A patient is treated in the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to:
a. administer oxygen.
b. attach a cardiac monitor.
c. obtain the blood pressure.
d. check the level of consciousness.
a. administer oxygen.
The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs—airway, breathing,
circulation—and administration of oxygen should be done first. The other actions should
be accomplished as rapidly as possible after oxygen administration.
A massive gastrointestinal bleed has resulted in hypovolemic shock in an older patient. What is a priority nursing diagnosis?
A. Acute pain
B. Impaired tissue integrity
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. Ineffective tissue perfusion
D. Ineffective tissue perfusion
The many deleterious effects of shock are all related to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of every body system. Ineffective tissue perfusion supersedes acute pain, impaired tissue integrity, and decreased cardiac output, because circulation is a priority. Acute pain may occur, but is not a priority at this time. Tissue integrity is not impaired.
A patient’s localized infection has progressed to the point where septic shock now is suspected. What medication is an appropriate treatment modality for this patient?
A. Insulin infusion
B. Intravenous (IV) administration of epinephrine
C. Aggressive IV crystalloid fluid resuscitation
D. Administration of nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers
C. Aggressive IV crystalloid fluid resuscitation
Patients in septic shock require large amounts of crystalloid fluid replacement. Epinephrine is indicated in anaphylactic shock, and insulin infusion is not normally necessary in the treatment of septic shock (but can be). Nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers are used most often in the treatment of patients in cardiogenic shock.
Which type of shock can be treated by minimizing spinal cord trauma with stabilization?
A. Septic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Hypovolemic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
Neurogenic shock is caused by severe injury to the spinal cord and results in loss of sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels. Apart from administering vasoconstrictor agents, minimizing the spinal cord trauma with stabilization is a supporting therapy for neurogenic shock. Septic shock occurs in response to a systemic infection. Obtaining the cultures before starting antibiotics is appropriate care for septic shock. A life-threatening allergic reaction to a sensitizing substance causes anaphylactic shock. Avoiding exposure to allergens is supportive therapy for anaphylactic shock. Excessive loss of intravascular fluid causes hypovolemic shock. Besides restoring fluid volume, correcting the cause of fluid loss is supportive therapy.
The nurse reviews the medical record of a patient with pneumonia and notes that the patient has hypotension, hypothermia, leukocytosis, and hypoxemia. What should the nurse infer from these findings?
A. The patient has septic shock.
B. The patient has neurogenic shock.
C. The patient has cardiogenic shock.
D. The patient has hypovolemic shock.
A. The patient has septic shock.
Septic shock is most commonly found in the patient having gram-negative bacterial infections, such as pneumonia. Because it is characterized by hypertension, hypothermia, leukocytosis, and hypoxemia in patients with infections, the nurse concludes that the patient has septic shock. Neurogenic shock is most commonly seen in the patient who has an injury. Cardiogenic shock is caused by cardiovascular disorders, such as a myocardial infarction and cardiomyopathy. Hypovolemic shock is caused by hemorrhage or trauma.
When examining a patient with cardiogenic shock, which signs of peripheral hypoperfusion does the nurse expect? Select all that apply.
A. Cyanosis B. Cold skin C. Weak pulse D. Bradycardia E. Hypertension
A. Cyanosis
B. Cold skin
C. Weak pulse
Cyanosis, cold skin, and a weak pulse are the signs of peripheral hypoperfusion in cardiogenic shock. Bradycardia and hypertension are not seen in cardiogenic shock; instead, tachycardia and low blood pressure are noted.
When examining a patient in the progressive stage of shock, which factors related to the gastrointestinal (GI) system should the nurse consider? Select all that apply.
A. Increased motility and peristalsis B. Increased likelihood of GI ulcers C. Increased ability to absorb nutrients D. Increased risk of GI bleeding E. Increased risk of bacterial migration from the GI tract to the bloodstream.
B. Increased likelihood of GI ulcers
D. Increased risk of GI bleeding
E. Increased risk of bacterial migration from the GI tract to the bloodstream.
In the progressive stage of shock, the GI system gets affected by prolonged decreased tissue perfusion. As the blood supply to the GI tract is decreased, the normally protective mucosal barrier becomes ischemic. This ischemia predisposes the patient to ulcers and GI bleeding. It also increases the risk of bacterial migration from the GI tract to the blood. The decreased perfusion to the GI tract also results in a decreased ability to absorb nutrients, decreased motility, and slowed peristalsis.
A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) in a state of shock. On assessment, the nurse finds that the patient is cyanotic and has crackles on auscultation of the lungs. As which type of shock will the nurse classify this?
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Anaphylactic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
A patient with cardiogenic shock shows peripheral hypoperfusion presenting as cyanosis and has crackles on auscultation of the lungs due to pulmonary congestion. In neurogenic shock, the patient demonstrates symptoms related to the injury such as hypotension and bradycardia. The patient in hypovolemic shock may experience tachycardia as a late sign. In anaphylactic shock, the patient may experience wheezing and stridor.
If the patient in shock is to receive 1000 mL of normal saline in two hours, at what rate should the infusion pump be set? Fill in the blank. ___mL/hour
500
For the 1000 mL of normal saline to be infused in two hours, the infusion pump should be set at 500 mL per hour (1000 mL divided by two hours).