Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Farm (Chloe) > Lameness > Flashcards

Lameness Flashcards

1
Q

What are the risk factors for sole ulcers/haemorrhage?

A
  1. Walking and standing for long periods on hard surfaces, especially post-calving
  2. Periparturient increase in movement of the pedal bone
  3. Loss of fat from the digital cushion and new bone formation on P3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can you reduce the incidence of sole ulcers in the dairy herd?

A

Promote lying and make use of rubber matting.
Cubicle train heifers
Group fresh cows together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What bedding promotes the longest length of lying time?

A

Proprietary cow cushions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the general aims of foot trimming?

A

Maintain optimum weight bearing and foot balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the risk factors of white line disease?

A
  1. Periparturient increase in movement of the pedal bones
  2. Loss of fat from digital cushions
  3. Poor underfoot condition
  4. Presence of small sharp foreign bodies in the environment
  5. Turning sharper on concrete surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the ideal track to promote healthy feet?

A

Cushioned for comfort, wide (3.5m), no sharp turns, quick drying, good grip but not abrasive, cheap, for cow use only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What management techniques can increase the risk of white line disease in dairy cattle and why?

A

Pressuring cows with motorbikes, dogs and sticks.
Prevents them watching and controlling foot placement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should be put down if cattle need to cross the road?

A

Carpet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What resources can increase the incidence of bullying in a herd?

A

Space, feed, cubicles, parlour, water, licks, grooming posts and brushes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What supplement can be added to the diet to aid a reduction in white lines disease?

A

Biotin - 20mg/cow/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where are the risk factors for digital dermatitis?

A

Housing
Wet and dirty conditions, scrapers
Herd/expansion/poor biosecurity
Younger cows
High production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the general rule for quantities of footbath solution?

A

1 cow passage per litre of footbath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What 2 products are typically used in a footbath?

A

Formalin 2-5%
Copper or zinc sulphate 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In what age of calves is septic arthritis most common?

A

Less than 3 weeks of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment for septic arthritis in calves?

A

Analgesia (NSAIDS), antibiotics (oxytetracycline), joint lavage, supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in calves?

A

Truperella pyogenes (gram positive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What deficiency causes white muscle disease?

A

Vitamin E/selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the pre-disposing factors for white muscle disease?

A

Young, fast growing animas (calves <6 months)
Sudden expectation of exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the clinical signs of white muscle disease?

A

Recumbency and difficulty standing.
Stiff, trembling legs
Weakness
Rotation of distal hindlimbs from hocks
Gluteal, shoulder and dorso-lumbar musculature palpably enlarged and firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is seen on clinpath in white muscle disease?

A

Urinalysis: Myoglobin
Biochemistry: Elevated CK and AST. Low selenium or glutathione peroxidase
Liver biopsy: Low selenium/vitamin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What calf fracture types are good candidates to cast or splint?

A

Transverse/short oblique
Salter-harris type 1 and 2 growth plate fractures
Closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What bacterium causes blackleg?

A

Clostridium chauvoei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What pathology is associated with blackleg?

A

Severe necrotising myositis, severe lameness and upper limb swelling, sudden death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for blackleg?

A

High dose penicillin - double dose for 12 to 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is osteochondrosis dissecans?

A

Foetal defect in articular cartilage resulting from failure of blood supply development during ossification.
Young, fast growing animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What NMSK mechanism is crucial in the maintainance of healthy feet?

A

Suspensory apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the three gradings of sole ulcer?

A

Mild - incorporation of blood into horn as sole is produced
Moderate - Partial/intermitted interruption of horn production at sole ulcer site
Severe - horn production completely arrested at sole ulcer site for prolonged periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 3 animal types presenting with digital dermatitis?

A
  1. Does not develop M2 lesions but can show M1 or M4
  2. Single episode of M2, followed by a prolonged period of absence of acute DD
  3. Repeat episodes of acute M2 lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the pathology of interdigital necrobacillosis?

A

Acute necrotising inflammation of interdigital skin

30
Q

What are the clinical signs of interdigital necrobacillosis?

A

Sudden onset of moderate to severe lameness.
Swollen, hot, inflamed, painful.
Split ID space discharging pus and necrotic tissue
May track up leg
Anorexia, milk drop, weight loss, pyrexia

31
Q

What is the definition of a down cow?

A

Inability to rise and stand for a period of at least 12-24 hours - bovine secondary recumbancy

32
Q

What are the metabolic differentials for a down cow?

A

Hypocalcaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Ketosis
Hypokalaemia
Fatty liver disease

33
Q

What does movement from sparse to lush pasture cause?

A

Fog fever - acute bovine pulmonary oedema and emphysema

34
Q

What is the treatment for fog fever?

A

Steroids and diuretics to support the lungs

35
Q

What are the pre-disposing factors for hypomagnesaemia?

A

New flush of grass in spring
Stale grass in autumn
High potassium and ammonium fertiliser

36
Q

What are the top 3 traumatic differentials of a down cow?

A

Sacroiliac luxation
Coxo-femoral luxation
Gastrocnemius rupture

37
Q

What are the top 2 neurological differentials for a down cow?

A

Obturator paralysis
Bilateral peroneal paralysis

38
Q

What are the top 2 toxic differentials for a down cow?

A

Septic metritis
Acute toxic mastitis - usually with coliform

39
Q

What is compartment syndrome

A

Reduced blood flow to tissues under pressure - damaging muscles and nerves followed by ischaemic necrosis

40
Q

What tube should be selected for a haematology sample?

A

EDTA (purple top)

41
Q

What tube should be used for most biochemistry tests?

A

Lithium heparin (green top)

42
Q

What salvage procedures are available in a bad situation?

A

Clay removal
Perimortem caesarean
Tibial neurectomy
Emergency slaughter
Ovary removal
Semen harvesting
Teat removal - better alternatives

43
Q

What are the main differentials for a down sheep?

A

Hypocalcaemia
Twin lamb
Scrapie
Lameness
Respiratory
Listeria
Hypomagnesaemia
Trauma

44
Q

What is the clinical presentation of hypocalcaemia in the sheep?

A

Bloating due to ruminal stasis
Dried faecal pellets in rectum
Green fluid in external nares/lower jaw

45
Q

How to manage the hypocalcaemia case in the sheep?

A

25-40ml 40% calcium borogluconate over 30-60 seconds I/V

46
Q

How do you manage the pregnancy toxaemia case in the sheep?

A

I/V glucose, oral glucose, induce parturition, encourage eating

47
Q

What deficiency causes cerebrocortical necrosis (CCN)?

A

Thiamine (B1)

48
Q

What cattle are pre-disposed to sulphur induced cerebrocortical necrosis?

A

Young cattle on feedlots (6-18 months) fed on diets high in sulphur

49
Q

What are the clinical signs of cerebrocortical necrosis?

A

Sudden onset blindness, aimless wandering, circling, head pressing, star gazing
Lateral recumbency and opisthotonos
Death

50
Q

What deficiency causes swayback in sheep and goats mid-pregnancy?

A

Copper

51
Q

What are the three presentations of copper deficiency in sheep and goats?

A
  1. Congenital cerebrospinal swayback
  2. Progressive spinal swayback
  3. Cerebral oedema
52
Q

What are the clinical signs of a vitamin A deficiency?

A

Night blindness, corneal keratinisation, skeletal muscle paralysis, encephalopathy, dry brittle hooves, reduced reproductive performance

53
Q

What sample can be taken on PME to confirm diagnosis of hypomagnesemia?

A

Vitreous humour

54
Q

What is the pathology of hydrocephalus?

A

Brain ventricle distention with fluid - increased CSF production, obstruction of outflow, decreased CSF absorption

55
Q

What are the clinical signs of cerebellar hypoplasia and atrophy?

A

Recumbency and opisthotonos
Generalised ataxia, hypermetric gait

56
Q

What breeds are predisposed to hydrocephalus?

A

Holstein and Hereford cattle. Suffolk sheep

57
Q

What breeds are pre-disposed to cerebellar hypoplasia and atrophy?

A

Herefords, shorthorns, Ayrshire, Aberdeen angus

58
Q

At what age is spastic paresis seen in calves?

A

From a few weeks to 6 months old

59
Q

What are the clinical signs of spastic paresis?

A

Very straight hocks, excess tone in gastrocnemius, tail elevated
Progressive lameness to recumbency

60
Q

What is the treatment for spastic paresis?

A

Partial tibial neurectomy

61
Q

What congenital abnormality is most commonly seen with BVD?

A

Cerebellar hypoplasia

62
Q

What are the risk factors of listeriosis?

A

Poor nutritional status, suppressed immunity, sudden weather changes

63
Q

What tickborne encephalitis disease is associated with rough hill grazing in sheep?

A

Louping ill

64
Q

What are the clinical signs of louping ill?

A

Muscle tremors
Nibbling
Ataxia
Drooling
Death after 1-3 days

65
Q

What neurological condition is associated with slowly developing unilateral blindness?

A

Coenurus cerebralis

66
Q

What bacterium causes tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani

67
Q

What are the clinical signs of tetanus?

A

Muscle stiffness, inability to open mouth, drooling, anxious, constipation, tail held away from body, recumbency, convulsions, death

68
Q

What is the treatment for tetanus?

A

Tetanus antitoxin, penicillin, sedation, TLC

69
Q

How is clostridium botulism transmitted?

A

Ingested toxins. Contamination of forage with poultry faeces.

70
Q

What are the clinical signs of botulism?

A

Flaccid paralysis, initial muscle stiffness and ataxia

71
Q

What are the clinical signs of lead toxicity?

A

Acute - Tremors, staggering, blindness, twitching, seizures, death
Sub-acute - GIT dysfunction, dull, blindness, twitching, death

Farm (Chloe) (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions