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Medsci 142 > LABS 2 > Flashcards

LABS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Identify and label the diagram of the male pelvis pg 36 lab

A
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2
Q

The combined oral contraceptive pill:

  1. contains the hormones LH and FSH
  2. inhibits the uterine cycle
  3. elevates the levels of circulatory estrogen and progesterone
  4. prevents fertilisation of a mature oocyte
  5. stimulates ovulation
A
  1. elevated progesterone inhibit GNRJ - decreases LH and FASH preventing development of follicles
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3
Q

All of the following are features characteristic of an early secondary follicle, EXCEPT:

  1. antral space is beginning to form
  2. zona pellucida is visible
  3. epithelial cells of the granulosa classification are numerous
  4. surrounding connective tissue cells, called the theca, are clearly visible
  5. the antral cavity is large and the oocyte is suspended on a ‘stalk’
A
  1. mature follicle
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4
Q

Spermatocytes are one stage that occurs during the development of sperm. Name the stages that occur immediately before and after spermatocytes.

  1. spermatogonia and spermatids
  2. Leydig cells and spermatogonia
  3. spermatozoa and Sertoli cells
  4. spermatozoa and spermatids
  5. spermatogonia and spermatozoa
A

1.

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5
Q

Where in the male pelvis do the urinary and reproductive pathways first converge?

bladder
penis
seminal vesicle
prostatic urethra
vas deferens

A

prostatic urethra, converges with ejaculatory duct below prostate

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6
Q

The formation of follicular fluid marks the beginning of which follicular stage in the ovarian cycle?

late primary
early primary
tertiary or Graafian
primordial
secondary

A

secondary

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7
Q

Immediately following ovulation, the levels of which two hormones decrease the most?

GnRH and FSH
FSH and LH
Progesterone and estrogen
LH and progesterone
LH and estrogen

A

LH and estrogen

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8
Q

The contraceptive pill prevents pregnancy by:

  1. using copper to alter the uterine lining
  2. generating sperm-killing agents such as nonoxynol-9
  3. increasing the secretion of GnRH
  4. creating a physical barrier at the entrance to the fallopian tubes, thus preventing sperm from entering
  5. inhibiting the secretion of gonadotropins
A

5.

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9
Q

Sertoli cells are most directly responsible for:

the secretion of FSH
the production of testosterone
None of these options
the transport of progesterone
nourishing developing oocytes

A

none of these options - resposible for producing ABP, which binds androgen for transport around the body

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10
Q

With respect to primordial follicles, select the CORRECT statement:

  1. They lack a zona pellucida.
  2. They actively secrete estrogen.
  3. They are the same size as a tertiary / Graafian follicle.
  4. They are commonly found in the medullary region of the ovary.
  5. They are surrounded by a single layer of cuboidal epithelium.
A
  1. zona pellucida forms in primary follicle
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11
Q

Which contraceptive device acts by directly contacting the cervix?

IUD
Condom
Diaphragm
Tubal ligation
The pill

A

diaphragm - rubber dome that fits over cervix

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12
Q

During the reproduction laboratory a student examines a histological slide of the ovary. She focuses on one follicle containing an oocyte which is immediately surrounded by a thin blue line. The oocyte is also encircled by a small antral cavity. Which of the following is also true of this follicle?

  1. The corona radiata is attached to the thin blue line.
  2. The oocyte is surrounded by a single layer of flat follicular cells.
  3. The oocyte is suspended by a thin ‘stalk’ of granulosa cells.
  4. The next stage for this follicle will be to immediately develop into a corpus albicans.
  5. The follicle is found in the uterine cortex.
A
  1. blue line - zona pellucida - corona radiata attached to this
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13
Q

The glycoprotein layer between the oocyte and the granulosa cells of an ovarian follicle is called the

antrum
theca interna
zona pellucida
theca externa
corona radiata

A

zona pellucida - formed by glycoprotein secretions of oocyte during primary follicle phase

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. The vital capacity of an asthmatic subject is always lower than that of a normal subject
  2. Total lung capacity is the sum of vital capacity plus residual volume
  3. Vital capacity is the sum of TV, FEV1.0 and IRV
  4. The vital capacity of a normal subject is approximately 800ml
  5. Vital capacity may be recorded using a peak flow meter
A

2.

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is true of intrapleural pressure in a normal subject?

  1. During inspiration, intrapleural pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure
  2. Intrapleural pressure is always equal to atmospheric pressure
  3. During quiet breathing, intrapleural pressure is sub-atmospheric
  4. Intrapleural pressure may be measured using a dry spirometer
  5. None of these
A

3.

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16
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume:

  1. May be measured using a dry spirometer
  2. Is approximately 200ml in a normal subject
  3. Is the sum of tidal volume and residual volume
  4. Is the sum of residual volume and FEV1.0
  5. Is the air that one can inspire in addition to the tidal volume
A

5.

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17
Q

Choose the correct option when comparing the pressure changes occurring in the obstructed and unobstructed airway of the lung model during quiet breathing.

  1. obstruction lowers the rate of airway equalisation with the atmosphere
  2. larger pressure changes occur during unobstructed breathing
  3. during obstructed exhalation the airway displayed a negative pressure
  4. the lung is more compliant during unobstructed breathing
  5. the airway pressure was different to the intrapleural pressure during obstructed breathing
A
  1. if breathing is obstructed, airflow is decreased becasue of increased airway resistance. takes longer for airway to equalise with atm as there is less airflow
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18
Q

In asthma, difficulty in exhaling is a symptom of problems occurring with:

bronchioles
intercostal muscles
elastic fibres
surfactant
lung compliance

A

bronchioles

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19
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT when comparing human ventilation to that of the lung model used during the laboratory?

  1. the intrapleural pressures are the same when at rest
  2. the contents of the intrapleural space are the same
  3. the elastic mechanisms of the lungs are different
  4. the volume of the intrapleural cavities is the same
  5. the structures used for maximal inspiration are represented in both
A

3.

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20
Q

During “quiet breathing” on a lung model with a simulated pneumothorax:

  1. obstructing the airway will reduce the effects of the pneumothorax
  2. the lung compliance will increase
  3. the pressure inside the lung will fluctuate
  4. a larger magnitude of change will be shown on the intrapleural manometer when compared to a normal lung model
  5. the volume of the intrapleural space changes.
A

e.

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21
Q

William (a biological male) and Kate (a biological female) are the same height. During the ventilation laboratory Kate recorded a higher peak flow reading than William. Choose the option that best explains this result.

  1. Kate is older than William.
  2. William has weaker external intercostal muscles than Kate.
  3. Kate has a larger vital capacity than William.
  4. Kate is an asthmatic.
  5. William has a narrower trachea than Kate.
A

e. decrease radius of airway - increase resistance - lower peak flow

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22
Q

A student is using the lung model during the ventilation laboratory. A series of events causes the liquid in the arm of the intrapleural manometer that is open to the atmosphere to go down. Choose the correct statement to

explain this observation.

  1. the lung model has a simulated pneumothorax
  2. there is increased airway resistance during expiration
  3. the intrapleural pressure is less than atmospheric pressure
  4. the airway pressure is greater the atmospheric pressure
  5. the lung model is about to inspire
A

3.

if liquid arm goes down - intrapleural pressure has decreased

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23
Q

Difficulty in exhaling at the end of inspiration is a symptom of:

  1. collapsed bronchioles typical of an asthma attack
  2. weak external intercostal muscles
  3. a pneumothorax
  4. loss of surfactant, increasing water surface tension inside the lungs
  5. decreased lung compliance
A
  1. true - increased resistance, collapsed, no air gets through, gas trapped
  2. inspiration
  3. collapsed lung
  4. this would increase recoil force leading to easier exhalation
  5. increased lung compliance = decreased elasticity - expiration harder bc elasticrecoil
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24
Q

The most accurate method of measuring your fastest expiratory flow rate is to use a:

  1. vitalograph or dry spirometer
  2. Collins or wet spirometer
  3. peak flow meter
  4. nomogram using your age and height
  5. lung model
A

peak flow meter

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25
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to asthmatics?

  1. asthmatics will have weaker expiratory muscles
  2. an asthmatic’s FEV1.0 will be the same as a normal subject’s
  3. the peak flow of an asthmatic will be the same as a normal subject
  4. the asthmatic intrapleural pressure will vary over a greater range during ventilation
  5. asthmatics will always have a lower vital capacity than a normal subject
A
  1. because there will be increased resistance to airflow which will require greater pressues to overcome resistance
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26
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement:

  1. the height of the subject is not related to respiratory volume
    the airway manometer of the
  2. lung model will show a positive pressure during obstructed inspiration
  3. FEV1.0 is 75% of the total lung capacity
  4. total lung capacity cannot be calculated from the wet spirometer
  5. a pneumothorax occurs only when the thoracic wall is damaged.
A

4.

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27
Q

Choose the option which, when entered into the following statement in the corresponding order would make it correct. “While ………….. , the pressure in the ………….. will …………. .”

  1. holding a deep inspiration / intrapleural space / be more sub-atmospheric than at FRC
  2. exhaling / alveolar space / be sub-atmospheric
  3. inhaling / thoracic cavity / exceed atmospheric
  4. quietly exhaling / intrapleural space / exceed atmospheric
  5. coughing / trachea / be sub-atmospheric
A
  1. true
  2. exhaling, Ppul must be subatomic
  3. cavity never exceed atm
  4. never
  5. air in trachea is atm
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28
Q

FEV1.0 is a direct indication of:

  1. the total lung capacity
  2. the degree of airway resistance
  3. the strength of the inspiratory muscles
  4. the maximum air velocity
  5. the vital capacity
A
  1. FEV measure of how much air can be blown out in 1 second - info about resitance which can lower FEV
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29
Q

During the respiratory lab a young male student, who is an active smoker, achieved a much higher peak flow rate than a non-smoking male student. The two students are of similar age, height and body size and used the same peak flow meter. The most likely explanation for this observation is:

  1. the smoker’s airways have a more active population of mucus-secreting cells.
  2. the non-smoker has more developed external intercostal muscles.
  3. the non-smoker is likely to have emphysema which reduces compliance.
  4. the smoker has bigger lungs and hence a larger vital capacity.
  5. the smoker has more developed internal intercostal muscles.
A

e. used more often to cough - more forceful expiration

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30
Q

Whilst filming an episode of Buffy the Vampire Slayer, Buffy accidentally speared a fellow actor in the thorax. The stake entered the actor’s thorax on his right side, just under his armpit, causing the lung to collapse. The structure which the stake must penetrate in order to result in a collapsed right lung is:

the right visceral pleura
the right parietal pleura
the lung parenchyma
the hilum of the right lung
the right main bronchus

A

the right parietal pleura

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31
Q

A student ran out of time and did not get to use the Collin’s spirometer during his ventilation laboratory. He did manage to use and record personal readings from the remainder of the equipment that was available. Which of the following options lists all the personal readings he obtained during the ventilation laboratory?

  1. forced expiratory volume, peak expiratory flow and vital capacity
  2. vital capacity and forced expiratory volume
  3. vital capacity, tidal volume, inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes
  4. tidal volume, vital capacity, forced expiratory volume
  5. peak expiratory volume, forced expiratory volume
A

1.

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32
Q

he most accurate method of measuring the vital capacity and fastest expiratory flow rate of a subject would be to use the:

  1. vitalograph only
  2. Collins spirometer and peak flow meter
  3. Collins spirometer and vitalograph
  4. peak flow meter and a nomogram using the subject’s age and height
  5. Collins spirometer and a nomogram using the subject’s age and height
A

2.

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33
Q

During the ventilation laboratory a student recorded her tidal volume as 1 litre and her inspiratory reserve volume as 2 litres. If the student knows that her vital capacity is 4.5 litres and her residual volume is 0.5 litre, what is her functional residual capacity?

2.5 litres
1 litre
2 litres
3 litres
1.5 litres

A

VC=IRV+ERV+TV
4.5=2+x+1
ERV= 1.5
FRC = ERV + RV
1.5 + 0.5
= 2 litres

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34
Q

Comparing the lung model and the human respiratory system, they:

  1. both have an airway pressure equal to atmospheric pressure
    at the end of expiration
  2. have a flexible thoracic wall
  3. display the same intrapleural volume
  4. have the same intrapleural contents
  5. both utilise lung surface tension for passive expiration
A

1.

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35
Q

During the ventilation laboratory a student recorded her tidal volume as 1.5 litres and her inspiratory reserve volume as 2 litres. If the student knows that her residual volume is 1 litre, and she has a total lung capacity of 6 litres, what is her functional residual capacity?

1.5 litres
2.5 litres
2 litres
1 litre
3 litres

A

FRC = TLC - IC = 6-3.5 = 2.5L

IC = TV + IRV = 1.5 + 2 = 3.5 L

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36
Q

With the chicken leg in the normal standing position, which of the following bone associations is correct?

  1. The fibula is distal to the intertarsal joint.
  2. The tarsometatarsus is proximal to the fibula.
  3. The femur is lateral to the fibula
  4. The tarsometatarsus is inferior to the tibiotarsus
  5. The ischium is superior to the ilium.
A

4.

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37
Q

The hamstring muscles are involved in the gait cycle. What are the hamstring muscles trying to do immediately before heel strike occurs?

  1. Decelerating hip extension.
  2. Flexing the hip.
  3. Decelerating knee extension.
  4. Initiating hip extension.
  5. Flexing the knee.
A

3.

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38
Q

During his dissection. a student accidentally cut through the belly of the medial knee flexor muscle. In doing so, he reveals a muscle which is connected to, but runs perpendicularly to the lateral knee flexor. With respect to the revealed muscle, select the CORRECT statement:

Functionally, it serves a similar purpose to the short head of biceps femoris, but for the lateral knee flexor.
It is an antagonist which supports the action of the medial knee flexor.
It is also known as the semimembranosus accessory muscle.
It is a synergist which opposes the action of the lateral knee flexor.
Its human equivalent is the gluteus maximus.

A

a

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39
Q

The correct order of structures in the chicken leg, from proximal to distal, is:

femur – hip joint – knee joint – tibiotarsus – intertarsal joint
hip joint – femur – knee joint – tibiotarsus
tibiotarsus – intertarsal joint – fibula – tarsometatarsus
femur – tibia – knee joint – fibula – intertarsal joint
femur – fibula – knee joint – intertarsal joint

A

b

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40
Q

A student who works at KFC was so excited about the chicken leg dissection lab, that she made a much deeper than intended incision for both cut No.1 (through the belly of the iliotibial muscle) and cut No.2 (through the gastrocnemius muscle, in a line which is a continuation of the tapering end of the iliofibular muscle). She unfortunately damaged the underlying structures. Which of the following structures are most likely to have been damaged?

the origin and insertion of the iliofibular muscle.
the belly of the iliofibular muscle, and the fibrous sling holding the iliofibular tendon in place.
the iliofibular and lateral knee flexor muscles.
the fibrous sling which connects the iliofibular muscle to the tibiotarsus.
the tendon of the iliofibular muscle, and the fibrous sling holding the belly of the iliotibial muscle in place.

A

b

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41
Q

If a student follows the correct dissection procedure during the chicken leg laboratory, she would expose the lateral structures in what order?

iliofibular muscle – fibrous sling – iliotibial muscle – femur
femur – iliofibular muscle – iliotibial muscle – fibrous sling
fibula – iliotibial muscle – iliofibular muscle – fibrous sling
iliofibular muscle – fibrous sling – iliotibial muscle – tibiotarsus
iliotibial muscle – iliofibular muscle – fibrous sling – fibula

A

e

42
Q

From most lateral to medial, the correct order of structures is:

fibrous sling – lateral iliotibial muscle – lateral knee flexor
fibrous sling – tendon of the iliofibular muscle – lateral knee flexor accessory muscle
iliofibular muscle – lateral knee flexor accessory muscle – medial knee extensor
lateral iliofibular muscle – iliotibial muscle – lateral knee flexor – medial knee flexor
iliofibular muscle – lateral knee flexor – medial knee flexor accessory muscle

A

b

43
Q

Considering the action of the iliofibular muscle of the chicken thigh on the knee joint: contraction produces a large-amplitude movement with little power. In order to increase the power, the insertion of the muscle would have to change to a point that is

closer to the origin.
proximal to the knee joint.
more distal to its anatomical position.
more proximal to its anatomical position.
on the femur.

A

c

44
Q

During the chicken leg lab, you were asked to expose a number of muscles that flexed the knee joint. Which of the following muscles did you have to dissect to expose the insertions for all of the knee flexors?

Gluteus maximus
Accessory muscle
Iliofibular muscle
Gastrocnemius
Iliotibial muscle

A

d

45
Q

Which of the following muscles CANNOT act upon the hip joint of the chicken?

Lateral knee flexor accessory muscle
Iliofibular muscle
Iliotibial muscle
Medial knee flexor muscle
Lateral knee flexor muscle

A

lateral knee flexor accessory muscle

46
Q

label the bones of the chicken leg

A

ilium, ischium, femur, pubis, pelvis, hip joint, knee joint, fibula, tibio-tarsus, intertarsal joint, tarso-metatarsus

47
Q

What are the bones of the shank?

A

fibula and tibiotarsus

48
Q

the intertarsal joint is between?

A

the leg and the foot

49
Q

Extension of teh knee is an ____ of the joint angle

A

increase (joint angle posterior to the limb)

50
Q

What happens to angle in flexion?

A

decreases

51
Q

When we are looking at the hip we are looking at the change in angle anteriorly/posteriorly

A

anteriorly

52
Q

describe extension and flexion of the hip

A

flexion - move knee up
extension - swing leg back

53
Q

When we are looking at the knee we are looking at the change in angle anteriorly/posteriorly

A

posteriorly

54
Q

describe extenion and felxion of the knee

A

extenion - bring bent knee straight
flexion - bending the knee back like a horse

55
Q

What is the lateral iliotibial msucle ?

A
  • origin in ilium inserts in tibio tarsus of the shank
  • broad, flattened, lateral surface of thigh
56
Q

What muscle lies beneath the iliotibial muscle?

A

iliofibular muscle

57
Q

Describe the shape of the iliofibular muscle

A
  • braod proximal and tapers distally
  • when gastrocnemius is cut, see tendon of iliofibular muscle
  • tendon passes through sling (CT)
58
Q

What are the two hamstring muscles in the medial view?

A

lateral and medial knee flexor muscles

59
Q

What are the three hamstring muscles

A
  1. lateral iliofibular
  2. later knee flexor
  3. medial knee flexor
60
Q

Where can the lateral and medial knee flexor be seen on the medial surface of the chicken leg?

A

orient from gastrochnmius - same side, top

61
Q

Which medial hamstrig muscles lies most to the side?

A

lateral knee flexor

62
Q

What is an apponeuroses?

A

thin, flat fibrous structure

63
Q

What is the common attachement point of the larteral and medial knee flexors

A

attach to tibiotarsus via knee flexor muscle tendon (aponeruosis)
- two parts
1. large aponeruosis inserts on tibiotarsus
2. smaller joins dense fascia on surface of shank (achilles tendon in humans)

64
Q

the origin of the lateral knee flexor is ____ to the origin of the medial knee flexor

A

dorsal

65
Q

What is the lateral knee flexor joined to near its distal end?

A

anterior edge joins short flattened msucle called ** lateral knee flexor accessory muscle - **

66
Q

What is the human equivalent of the lateral iliofibular muscle

A

biceps femoris

67
Q

What movement does contraction have of the iliofibular muscle on the hip joint

A

extension

68
Q

What is the function of the sling?

A

prevents bowstringing

69
Q

Why is there no sling in the human leg?

A

short bicep head instead - has similar effect

70
Q

What is the purpose of the lateral knee flexor accesory muscle

A

prevents bowstringing, like short head of biceps femoris in humans

71
Q

What increases torque/power?

A

moving the insertion of the muscle to a more distal position than its anatomical position

72
Q

gastrochnemius is equivalent to what muscle in humans?

A

calf

73
Q

large torque (power) is what displacement

A

small

74
Q

small torque is what displacement

A

large

75
Q

What are muscles that help eachother, what are muscles that oppose the action of another

A

synergists - assist
antagonists - oppose

76
Q

The medial and lateral knee flexors are equivalent to what muscles in the human body?

A

semimembranous and semitendinosus

77
Q

List the three human hamstrings

A

biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus

all innervated by sciatic nerve

78
Q

hamstring muscles are ____ muscles becuase they cross two joints (hip and knee)

A

biarticulate

79
Q

define concentric contraction

A

muscle shortens

80
Q

define isometric contraction

A

muscle length doesnt change

81
Q

define eccentric contraction

A

muscle lengthens

82
Q

List the stages of the gait cycle

A
  1. right heel strike
  2. right foot flat
  3. right mid stance
  4. right push off
  5. right toe off
  6. right mid-swing
  7. right heel strike
83
Q

What is a hallmark of asthma?

A

increased airway resistance due to obstruction or collapse of airways

84
Q

What do the water manometers show

A
  • measure pressure in the airway and in the intrapleural space and compares it to the atmospheric pressure
85
Q

How does the water manometer work

A

one arm is open to the atmosphere (outside arm) and the other. is open to a space or chamber of the lung model.

86
Q

When the liquid in the manometer is the same in both arms, the model chamber and the atmosphere ___

A

have equal pressure

87
Q

Explain how negative intrapleural pressue affects manometer

A

the higher pressure from the atmosphere will try to push the liquid in the manometer into the airway of the lung model
- downward movement of the liquid in the outside arm, indicating a negative pressure in the lung model

opposite happens when airway pressure is higher than atmospheric

88
Q

What is the magnitude and direction of pressure change in the airway during inspiration and expiration

A

inspiration - slight decrease
expiration - goes back to atm

89
Q

How does the magnitude and direction of pressure change in an obstructed airway differ from an normal one during inspiration and expiration. What does this indicate?

A

inspiration - greater pressure difference - decrease by a larger amount
expiration - goes back to atmospheric - levels off

obstruction - equilibrates more slowly to patm (explains the greater pressure change)

90
Q

What is the intrapleural pressure as indicated by the lung model?

A

0 mmHg

91
Q

Why does the lung model indicate an intrapleural pressure of 0 instead of -4?

A

no surface tension that links layers together and genrates -ve pressure

92
Q

When holding down the diaphragm (mimicing holding inspiration) what happens to pairways and pintraplerual

A

p aitways - equilibrates quiclly (exposed to atm)
p intrapleural - equilibrates slowly (not exposed to atm)

93
Q

How would one simulate an asthamtic inhalation

A

closing of teh valve imitating an obstruction i.e bronchoconstriction
pulling down the diaphram - shows greater resistance to ventilation

94
Q

what is the estimated volume of intrapleural space in humans

A

1 ml

95
Q

peak flow is measured in ?

A

L/min

96
Q

What are three possible reasons that contribute to differences in peak flow?

A

sex, height, age

97
Q

What does a vitalograph (dry spirometer) show?

A

FVC - maximum amount of air can exhale after max inspiration

(forced) vital capacity = vital capacity

98
Q

is dry or wet spirometer more accurate?

A

dry - measured by vitalograph, wet is an estimate

99
Q

sperm is produced in the ____ matured in the ____ stored in the ____ and released through the ____

A

testes, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra

100
Q

distinguish features characteritsc of the 4 stages of oocyte devolpment

A
  1. primordial - single layer of follicular cells no zona pellucida
  2. primary - zona pellucida and cuboidal grnaulosa cells around oocyte but within the tecal outer layer
  3. secondary - antrum starts to form
  4. mature - cumulus oophorsu (stalk)
101
Q

label a female and male pelvic diagram

A

Medsci 142 (10 decks)

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