Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Midwifery Boards > Labs > Flashcards

Labs Flashcards

1
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Normal nonpreg female: 12-16
Normal pregnant white female: 11+ in 1st and 3rd, 10.5+ in second
Normal pregnant black: female: 10.2+ in 1st and 3rd, 9.7 in second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hematocrit

A

Normal nonpreg female: 37-47
Normal pregnant white female: 33+ in 1st and 3rd, 32+ in second
Normal pregnant black female: 31+ in 1st and 3rd, 30 + in second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MCV

A

Mean corpuscular volume
Average size/volume of a RBC
Normal:80-95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MCHC

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration: avg conc of hgb in single RBC
Normal: 32-36: normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neutrophilia

A

High neutrophils: bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lymphocytosis

A

High lymphocytes: virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Monocytosis

A

High monocytes: debris (recovery phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Eosinophilia

A

high eosinophils: allergens, parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Basophilia

A

high basophils
anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Left shift of neutrophils

A

More young neutrophils (bands elevated) –> acute bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Elevated direct bilirubin

A

AKA elevated conjugated bilirubin
gallstones, obstruction of extrahepatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Elevated indirect bilirubin

A

AKA elevated unconjuated bilirubin
hepatocellular dysfunction (hepatitis, cirrhosis), hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What level of serum hcg should you be able to visualize IUP on u/s?

A

1500-2000, if cannot see it - ectopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How soon can urine hcg be detected?

A

as early as 28 days from LMP, levels as low as 5-50 in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does increased estradiol indicate?

A

Adrenal tumor,
estrogen-producing tumor,
hepatic cirrhosis,
hyperthyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does decreased estradiol indicate?

A

post-menopause,
ovarian failure,
primary or secondary hypogonadism,
Turner’s syndrome,
anorexia nervosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does increased progesterone indicate?

A

pregnancy
ovulation
progesterone-secreting ovarian tumor or cyst
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
hydatidiform mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does decreased progesterone indicate?

A

primary or secondary hypogonadism
threatened abortion
fetal demise
PEC
short luteal phase syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does increased FSH indicate?

A

postmenopause
gonadotropin-secreting pituitary tumor
ovarian failure
primary hypogonadism
Turner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does decreased FSH indicate?

A

pregnancy
pituitary or hypothalamic dysfunction
hyperprolactinemia
anorexia nervosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does increased LH indicate?

A

postmenopause
primary hypogonadism
gonadal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does decreased LH indicate?

A

pituitary or hypothalamic dysfunction
anorexia nervosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are normal findings on a urinalysis?

A

No nitrates, ketones, cyrstals, casts, glucose
Clear, amber yellow, aromatic
pH 4.6-8
Protein 0-8 mg/dL
Specific gravity 1.005 to 1.030
Leukocyte esterase negative
WBCs 0-4 per high-power field
RBCs at 2 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does high specific gravity indicate?

A

dehydration, shock, increased sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does low specific gravity indicate?

A

kidney damage, renal failure, too much fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Urine culture results:
When to treat?

A

Considered + with presence of a single type of bacteria at 100,000 CFU/mL
Lower CFU of 1000 CFU/mL or greater may be used to indicated infection when UTI s/s are PRESENT
Growth of several types of bacteria is likely d/t specimen contamination

27
Q

What are normal vaginal in-office diagnostic findings?
pH
Whiff
Wet mount

A

Vaginal pH: 3.8-4.5
whiff negative
wet mount: epithelial cells, few or no WBCs, lactobacilli present

28
Q

In-office BV findings?
pH
whiff
wet mount

A

pH > 4.5
whiff test positive
wet mount: > 20% of epithelial cells are clue cells, 0-1 WBC per epithelial cell, lactobacilli reduced or absent
POC sialidase test +

29
Q

In-office Trich findings?
pH
whiff
wet mount

A

pH > 4.5
whiff + or -
Wet mount: motile trichomonads, > 1 WBC per epithelial cell, lactobacilli reduced or absent
POC rapid antigen test is positive

30
Q

In office vulvovaginal candidiasis findings?
pH
Whiff
Wet mount

A

pH </= 4.5
whiff negative
wet mount: hyphae/spores (best seed post KOH), > 1 WBC per epithelial cell, lactobacilli present

31
Q

What is CDC recommended test for trich?

A

NAAT

32
Q

When is a yeast culture indicated?

A

If wet mount neg, but suspicious for yeast based on s/s
OR can identify species with recurrent/persistent yeast infections

33
Q

HIV testing and time frames:

A

EIA (enzyme immunoassay):
- can be lab or rapid POC
- needs to be confirmed by Western blot or immunofluorescence assay

HIV antibody is detectable in 95% of individuals by 6 months

HIV-1 p24 antigen test detects HIV-1 antigen as early as 2-6 weeks post infection, but declines once antibodies develop

34
Q

Rubella titers

A

1:10 or greater = immunity
> 1:64 may indicate current infection

Rubella IgM appears 1-2 days post rash and disappear 5-6 weeks post infection

35
Q

Positive Hepatits B surface antigen (HBsAg)

A
  • indicates active HBV infection (individual is infectious)
  • Individual is considered a carrier if levels persist
  • rises before onset of clinical symptoms, peaks during first week of symptoms and returns to normal by the time jaundice subsides
36
Q

Positive Hepatitis B surface antibody (HBsAB)

A
  • Indicates end of acute infectious phase and signifies immunity to subsequent infection
  • Immunity after vaccine
  • appears 4 weeks after disappearance of surface antigen
37
Q

Hepatitis B core antibody (HBcAB)

A

indicates past infection, chronic hepatitis

38
Q

Hepatitis B e-antigen (HBeAg)

A

seen with acute infection - infective

39
Q

Hepatitis B e-antibody (HBeAB)

A
  • seen with convalescence, decreased infectivity
40
Q

How to test for HCV

A

HCV antibody test –> if positive follow up with HCV RNA
+HCV RNA = current infection
-HCV RNA = resolved HCV or false antibody positive

41
Q

Best test for chlamydia?

A

NAAT urine or endocervical

42
Q

Best test for gonorrhea?

A

NAAT urine or endocervical

43
Q

What are the nontreponemal tests for syphilis?

A
  • VDRL or RPR
  • Non specific: many things besides syphilis make it positive (mono, - etc)
  • Becomes positive 1-2 weeks after chancre
  • If reactive –> need to confirm with treponemal test
  • also reported as a titer
  • false positives often have a low titer (1:8, etc)
  • Titers are also used to follow up for successful treatment –> usually becomes non-reactive with treatment
44
Q

What are the treponemal tests for syphilis?

A

FTA-ABS or TPI
- specific
-reported as positive or negative, not quantitative
- usually remains positive indefinitely, even after treatment

45
Q

What is the recommended test for HSV lesion?

A

PCR assay is more sensitive than tissue culture

46
Q

How long does HSV take to seroconvert?

A

4-6 weeks to detect HSV1 or HSV2 antibodies in serum
- serology recommended only if hx is suggestive of HSV or there is a negative culture, but you suspect HSV; partner has known HSV; patients with HIV

47
Q

How to test for chancroid?

A

culture from lesion or bubo

48
Q

How to interpret PPD test?

A

5 mm: positive in high risk
10 mm: positive in moderate risk
15 mm: positive in general population

49
Q

what causes a false positive ppd?

A

previous BCG vaccination

50
Q

what causes a false neg ppd?

A

immunocompromised, incorrect administration

51
Q

What is normal bone density from DEXA?

A

T score greater than -1 (BMD within 1 standard variation of young normal adult)

52
Q

What BMD score indicates osteopenia?

A

T-score between -1 and -2.5 (BMD between 1 and 2.5 standard deviations below young normal adult)

53
Q

What BMD score indicates osteoporosis

A

T-score at or less than -2.5: BMD 2.5 SD or more below that of young adult

54
Q

How to diagnose DM?

A
  • FBS 126 or greater
  • 2 hour (75 g glucose test) 200 or greater
  • classic symptoms of DM with random non-fasting glucose of 200 or more
    -repeat the above tests on a subsequent day to confirm dx
  • a1c 6.5 or greater
55
Q

FBS results interpretation

A

no caloric intake x 8 hours
normal: < 100
impaired fasting glucose: 100-125
DM: 126 or greater

56
Q

2 hour glucose test results interpretation

A

Normal: less than 140
impaired glucose tolerance: 140-199
DM: 200 and higher

57
Q

A1c results interpretation

A

<5.7% = normal
5.7-6.4 = preDM
6.5 or greater = DM

58
Q

McBurney’s sign

A

localized tenderness in right lower abdominal quadrant = possible
sign of appendicitis

59
Q

Rosvig’s sign

A

referred rebound tenderness –> pain in right lower quadrant when left-sided pressure is applied and quickly withdrawn = possible appendicitis

60
Q

Murph’s sign

A

sharp increase in tenderness and sudden stop in inspiratory effort with upward pressure under the right costal margin while client takes a breath = possible cholecystitis

61
Q

Where are Skene’s glands

A

just posterior to and on each side of urethral meatus

62
Q

Where are bartholin’s glands?

A

posteriorly on each side of vaginal orifice

63
Q

Describe a normal non pregnant cervix

A

smooth, firm, mobile, nontender, about 2.5 cm in diameter, protrudes 1-3 cm in vagina

64
Q

Describe a normal non pregnant uterus

A

smooth, rounded contour, firm, mobile, nontender, 5.5-8 cm long and pear-shaped.

** parous female 2-3 cm longer **

Midwifery Boards (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions