Laboratory Flashcards

1
Q

Which microscopy method is best for detecting poxviruses?
A) Bright Field Microscopy
B) Electron Microscopy
C) Fluorescence Microscopy
D) Phase Contrast Microscopy

A

(Answer: A)

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2
Q

What type of inclusion body is found in Rabies virus-infected cells?
A) Guarnieri bodies
B) Negri bodies
C) Cowdry type A bodies
D) Henderson-Patterson bodies

A

(Answer: B)

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3
Q

What test is used to diagnose herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV) from vesicular lesions?
A) Tzanck Smear
B) ELISA
C) PCR
D) Western Blot

A

(Answer: A)

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4
Q

Which virus is best detected using cervical PAP smear?
A) Rabies virus
B) Papilloma virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Rotavirus

A

(Answer: B)

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5
Q

Which viruses can be detected in stool using electron microscopy?
A) HIV, HSV, RSV
B) Norwalk, Rotavirus, Enterovirus
C) Influenza, Measles, Rabies
D) CMV, HPV, Adenovirus

A

(Answer: B)

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6
Q

What type of microscopy uses FITC-labeled antibodies?
A) Bright Field
B) Electron
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Dark Field

A

(Answer: C)

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT commonly detected by enzyme immunoassays?
A) Influenza Virus
B) Respiratory Syncytial Virus
C) Human Papillomavirus
D) Rotavirus

A

C

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8
Q

Which enzyme immunoassay test is used to detect Hepatitis B virus from serum or plasma?
A) DFA
B) Western Blot
C) ELISA
D) PCR

A

C

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9
Q

What is the most commonly used nucleic acid detection method?
A) Hybridization assay
B) PCR
C) Branched DNA
D) Flow cytometry

A

B

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10
Q

Which enzyme is used in PCR for DNA amplification?
A) DNA ligase
B) Taq Polymerase
C) Reverse transcriptase
D) RNA polymerase

A

B

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11
Q

Which base pair forms two hydrogen bonds in DNA?
A) A-G
B) C-T
C) A-T
D) G-C

A

C

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12
Q

Which step in PCR involves the separation of double-stranded DNA?
A) Denaturation
B) Annealing
C) Extension
D) Replication

A

A

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13
Q

What is considered the “Gold Standard” for virus identification?
A) PCR
B) Cell Culture
C) ELISA
D) Western Blot

A

B

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14
Q

Which method is used for influenza vaccine production?
A) Tissue Culture
B) Embryonated Egg Inoculation
C) Animal Inoculation
D) Hemagglutination Assay

A

B

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15
Q

Which type of cell culture is used for short-term virus isolation?
A) Primary Cell Culture
B) Diploid Cell Line
C) Continuous Cell Line
D) Engineered Cell Line

A

A

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16
Q

Which virus is commonly grown in human diploid fibroblast cultures?
A) Influenza
B) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C) Rabies
D) Hepatitis B

A

B

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17
Q

Which continuous cell line is derived from human cervical carcinoma?
A) HEK293
B) HeLa
C) A549
D) Vero

A

B

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18
Q

Which medium is rich in serum and used for rapid cell growth?
A) Growth Medium
B) Maintenance Medium
C) Transport Medium
D) Enrichment Medium

A

A

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19
Q

Which virus produces “Owl Eye” inclusion bodies?
A) HPV
B) HSV
C) CMV
D) RSV

A

C

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20
Q

Which virus produces Cowdry Type A inclusions?
A) HPV
B) HSV
C) Rabies
D) RSV

A

B

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21
Q

What CPE effect is commonly seen in RSV-infected cells?
A) Syncytial formation
B) Inclusion bodies
C) Cell lysis
D) Shrinking

A

A

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22
Q

What serologic marker indicates a primary viral infection?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE

A

B

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23
Q

Which virus creates “grape-like clusters” of infected cells?
A) Adenovirus
B) Measles
C) Rabies
D) HPV

24
Q

Which serologic test is used for detecting HIV?
A) PCR
B) ELISA
C) DFA
D) Hemagglutination

25
Which virus is commonly detected using a hemagglutination assay? A) Influenza B) Rotavirus C) Rabies D) CMV
A
26
Which of the following is NOT an indication for serologic testing? A) Past infection confirmation B) Detecting immune status C) Identifying active viral replication D) Viral genome sequencing
D
27
What test is used for confirming viral antigen presence in shell vial centrifugation? A) ELISA B) DFA C) Western Blot D) PCR
B
28
Which of the following is used to test for CMV in transplant patients? A) PCR B) Western Blot C) Hemagglutination D) Fluorescence Microscopy
A
29
Which test is used to check immune status for measles and varicella? A) IgM detection B) IgG detection C) PCR D) Hemagglutination
B
30
Which serologic marker suggests immunity from a past infection or vaccination? A) IgM B) IgA C) IgG D) IgE
D
31
Which virus causes koilocyte formation in infected squamous cells? A) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) B) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) C) Rabies virus D) Measles virus
B
32
Which viral inclusions are associated with smallpox? A) Negri bodies B) Guarnieri bodies C) Cowdry type A D) Owl eye inclusions
B
33
Which virus produces Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells? A) Measles virus B) Influenza virus C) Rabies virus D) Herpes simplex virus
A
34
Which microscopy method is rarely used due to its high cost and labor intensity? A) Bright-field microscopy B) Fluorescence microscopy C) Electron microscopy D) Phase-contrast microscopy
C
35
What is a major disadvantage of enzyme immunoassays? A) Too expensive B) Low sensitivity C) Only detects bacterial infections D) Cannot detect antigens
B
36
Which virus is commonly detected from respiratory specimens using enzyme immunoassay? A) Rotavirus B) HIV C) Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) D) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C
37
Which immunoassay uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies? A) ELISA B) Western Blot C) Direct Fluorescence Assay (DFA) D) Hemagglutination Assay
C
38
Which scientist discovered PCR? A) Robert Koch B) Kary Mullis C) Louis Pasteur D) Alexander Fleming
B
39
What is the function of primers in PCR? A) Denature DNA strands B) Bind to specific DNA sequences for amplification C) Degrade viral RNA D) Act as a fluorescent marker
B
40
What is the annealing temperature in PCR? A) 30°C B) 45-65°C C) 72°C D) 95°C
b
41
Which type of PCR allows real-time detection of amplification? A) Conventional PCR B) Real-Time PCR C) Hybridization assay D) Branched DNA assay
B
42
Which virus is commonly detected using PCR-based nucleic acid detection? A) HIV B) Norovirus C) Influenza D) All of the above
D
43
What is the most common method of viral isolation? A) Animal inoculation B) Embryonated egg culture C) Cell culture D) Serologic testing
C
44
What type of virus culture is used for vaccine production? A) Animal inoculation B) Primary cell culture C) Diploid cell line D) Continuous cell line
B
45
Which virus is commonly grown using embryonated egg culture? A) Rabies virus B) Influenza virus C) Measles virus D) HIV
B
46
Which cell line is derived from African Green Monkey Kidney? A) HeLa B) Vero C) A549 D) HEp-2
B
47
Which cell culture type has infinite passage capabilities? A) Primary Cell Culture B) Diploid Cell Line C) Continuous Cell Line D) Explant Culture
C
48
Which virus produces multinucleated giant cells? A) Influenza virus B) Measles virus C) Norovirus D) Rabies virus
B
49
Which virus produces large, rounded cells in a grape-like cluster? A) Adenovirus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Measles virus D) Influenza virus
A
50
Which virus is identified by hemadsorption assay? A) Rabies B) Influenza C) HPV D) HIV
B
51
Which test is considered confirmatory for HIV? A) ELISA B) Western Blot C) PCR D) DFA
B
52
What is an indicator of a past viral infection? A) IgM B) IgA C) IgG D) IgE
C
53
Which virus is commonly tested for using hemagglutination inhibition assays? A) Influenza B) Measles C) CMV D) Rabies
A
54
Which serologic test is used to detect antibodies against multiple viruses at once? A) PCR B) Western Blot C) ELISA D) Flow Cytometry
C
55
Which virus is commonly screened for in organ transplant donors? A) Rabies B) HIV C) CMV D) HPV
C
56