Lab Values & Drug Monitoring Flashcards

1
Q

True or false: Home test kits exist for things like HIV and herpes, fecal occult blood

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

Obtaining a drug level or other relevant labs to monitor efficacy and safety

Often performed by pharmacists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CBC vs CBC with differential

A

Complete blood count panel analyzes white blood cells aka neutrophils, along with red blood cells, and platelets

CBC with differential analyzes the types of neutrophils which are types of WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

BMP

A

Basic metabolic panel (think of the fish skeleton model)
7-8 tests that analyze the electrolytes, glucose, renal function & acid base with bicarbonate status, sometimes anion gap is calculated too

BMP and CMP can be ordered together for convenience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CMP

A

Comprehensive metabolic panel includes BMP tests + albumin , alanine aminotranferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), total albumin, and total protein

BMP and CMP can be ordered together for convenience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Stem cells (hematopoetic cells) in the bone marrow produce which kinds of cells

A

WBCs aka leukocytes, RBCs aka erythrocytes, and PLTs

Immature RBCs are called reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the types of WBCs

A

Types of white blood cells are granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils), monocytes, and lymphocytes (T cells and B cells)

Never
Let
Monkeys
Eat
Bananas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the layout of the stick diagrams for the fish bone and the cat whiskers

A

Fishbone:
Na|Cl- |BUN|
K+ |HCO3-|SCr. | Glu

Cat whiskers”
WBC. Hbg/Hct Plt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define leukocytosis

A

increased WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define polycythemia

A

increased RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define thrombocytosis

A

increased PLTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define leukopenia

A

decreased WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define Anemia

A

decreased RBCs and Hgb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define thrombocytopenia

A

decreased platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define myelosuppression

A

decreased WBCs, RBCs, and PLT’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define agranulocytosis

A

Decreased granulocytes (WBCs with granules: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drugs that cause agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine
Propylthiouracil
methimazole
procainamide
carbamazepine
sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Total Ca+ normal range

A

8.5 - 10.5 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ionized Ca+ normal range

A

4.5 -5.1 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If ionized Ca+ is below normal range, do we need to calculate corrected calcium?

A

No. We would only need to if the albumin is low and we have the total calcium value. Ionized calcium does not require correction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T or F? Calcium should be supplemented in pregnancy and in osteoporosis/osteopenia and certain drugs

A

True girl.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are reasons Ca+ levels increase

A

Vitamin D or calcium supplementation, or thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are reasons Ca+ levels decrease

A

long term heparin use, loop diuretics, bisphosphonates, cinacalcet, systemic steroids, calcitonin, foscarnet, and topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Normal chloride levels

A

95-106 mEq/L - helps us understand acid bace and fluid balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Normal Mg levels

A

1.3 - 2.1 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Reasons for Mg increasing

A

Related to mg containing antacids and laxatives, risk is higher with renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Reasons for Mg decreasing

A

Related to PPIs, diuretics, amphotericin B, foscarnet, echinocandins, diarrhea, chronic alcohol intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Normal phosphate levels

A

2.3 - 4.7 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Reasons for Phosphate level increase

A

CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Reasons for phosphate level decrease

A

phosphate binders, foscarnet, oral calcium intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Normal K+ levels

A

3.5-5 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Reasons for K+ increase

A

ACE inhibitors, ARBs, aldosterone receptor antagonists (ARAs), aliskiren, canagliflozin, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, mycophenolate can increase and decrease, potassium supplements, sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim, drospirenone- containing oral contraceptives, chronic heparin use, NSAIDS, pentamidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Reasons for K+ decrease

A

Beta-2 agonists, diuretics, insulin, steroids, conivaptan, mycophenolate can increased and decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Normal Na+ levels

A

135-145 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Reasons for Na+ increase

A

hypertonic saline, tolvapatan, conivaptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Reasons for Na+ decrease

A

carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, SSRIs diuretics, desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Normal range for bicarbonate (venous and arterial) and why do we use it

A

venous: 24-30 mEq/L
arterial: 22-26 mEq/L

used to assess acid base status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Reasons for bicarbonate increase

A

loop diuretics and systemic steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

reasons for bicarbonate decrease

A

topiramate, zonisamide, and salicylate overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Normal BUN levels (blood urea nitrogen)

A

7-20 mg/dL
Used in ratio with SCr to assess fluid status and renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Reasons for BUN increase

A

renal impairment and dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Normal range for Scr

A

0.6-1.3 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Reasons for SCr increase

A

drugs that impair renal function (aminoglycosides, amphotericin B, cisplatin, colistimethate, cyclosporine, loop diuretics, polymixin, NSAIDs, radiocontrast dye, tacrolimus, vancomycin)

False increase: bactrim, H2RAs colbicistat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

reasons for Scr decrease

A

low muscle mass
amputation
hemodilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Normal anion gap range and reason for use

A

5-12 mEq/L

Tells us if theres a “gap” or mistake in the balance of electrolytes and helps to define if theres a metabolic problem (increased value = metabolic acidosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Normal wbc range and what is it used for

A

4000 - 11000 cells / mm^3
used to diagnose and monitor infection and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Reasons for WBC increase

A

acute phase reactant (inflammatory marker increases in serum after event like surgery), infection

systemic corticosteroids, colony stimulating factors, epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Reasons for WBC decrease

A

clozapine, chemotherapy for bone marrow, carbamezapine, cephalosporins, immunosuppressants (e.g. DMARDs like MTX, biologics, etc.), procainamide, vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Normal neutrophil (aka polymorphonuclear cell - PMNs or Polys or segmented neutrophils “segs”) range and how do we use it

A

45-73%

Used with clinical s/sx to assess the presence of an acute infection. Can be used in ANC formula (absolute neutrophil count).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Normal bands range and what are they used for

A

3-5%

They are immature neutrophils released from the bone marrow to fight infection. When these are elevated, it’s called a left shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

normal eosinophil range

A

0-5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

reasons for eosinophil increase

A

drug allergy
asthma
inflammation
parasitic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

normal basophil range

A

0-1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

reasons for increase in basophils

A

inflammation
hypersensitivity reaction
leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

normal lymphocyte range

A

20-40%
Bcells and Tcells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Reasons for lymphocyte increase

A

viral infections
lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Reasons for lymphocyte decrease

A

bone marrow suppression, HIV, systemic corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Normal monocyte range

A

2-8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Reason for monocyte increase

A

chronic infections
inflammation
stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Why do we care about therapeutic drug monitoring

A

We need to reach adequate drug therapy without causing toxicity. We need to account for underweight/overweight/obese patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Define drug peak

A

The highest concentration the drug will reach in the blood and this requires time to distribute into the body’s tissue

It’s ideal to obtain the drug level at steady state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Define drug trough

A

The lowest concentration the drug will reach in the blood and it’s drawn right before the next dose or like 30 min before. This gives time to assess the concentration and see if giving the next dose is appropriate

Its ideal to obtain the drug level at steady state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Narrow therapeutic index means

A

Drugs that have a small range between subtherapeutic (not working), therapeutic, and supratherapeutic (toxic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Usual therapeutic range for Carbamazepine

A

4-12 mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Usual therapeutic range for Digoxin

A

0.8- 2 ng/mL in Afib
0.5-0.9 ng/mL in heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Usual therapeutic range for Gentamicin traditional dosing AND tobramycin traditional dosing

A

Peak: 5-10 mcg/mL
Trough: <2 mcg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Usual therapeutic range for Lithium

A

Drawn as trough
0.6 -1.2 mEq/L (up to 1.5 for acute sx)

68
Q

Usual therapeutic range for phenytoin/fosphenytoin
and also for free phenytoin

A

10-20 mcg/mL if albumin is low, we need to calculate the corrected level

1-2.5 mcg/mL for free phenytoin

69
Q

Usual therapeutic range for free procainamide, for NAPA (active metabolite), and for combined

A

Procainamide: 4-10 mcg/mL
NAPA (procainamide active metabolite) 15-25 mcg/mL
Combined 10-30 mcg/mL

70
Q

Usual therapeutic range for Theophylline

A

5-15 mcg/mL

71
Q

Usual therapeutic range for Valproic acid

A

50-100 mcg/mL (up to 150 mcg/mL in some patients)

72
Q

Usual therapeutic range for Vancomycin

A

Trough 15-20 mcg/mL for most serious infections (pneumonia, endocarditis, osteomyelitis, meningitis, and bacteremia)

Trough: 10 -15 mcg/mL for others

73
Q

Usual therapeutic INR range for warfarin

A

Goal INR 2-3 in most patients
2.5 - 3.5 for more high risk conditions like mechanical mitral valve

74
Q

Normal Testoterone range and what can cause it to increase

A

Males: 300-950 ng/dL

Increases due to testosterone supplementation

75
Q

Normal prostate specific antigen (PSA) range and why do we use it what can cause it to increase

A

<4 ng/mL

Can increase when we give testosterone supplementation. It’s used to detect prostate cancer and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

76
Q

Normal human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) range and why do we use it what can cause it to increase

A

Varies by test.

Produced by placenta, so increases when pregnant and tells us how the pregnancy is progressing

77
Q

Luteinizing hormone (LH) range and why do we use it what can cause it to increase

A

Varies during cycle.

Rises mid cycle –> egg release from ovaries = ovulation, tested in urine with ovulation predictor kits for women who want to be pregnant

78
Q

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) normal levels and reason for use

A

Varies.

Used to understand parathyroid disorders , hypercalcemia, CKD,

79
Q

Cosyntropin simulation test

A

used to test for adrenal suppression

any medications that impact the baseline cortisol or suppress the adrenal response will impact the test and might need to be held prior to (ex: steroids)

80
Q

Lactic acid (lactate) normal levels and reason for use and reasons for increase

A

0.5 - 2.2 mEq/L
Increases during lactic acidosis which means that anaerobic metabolism is happening (ex: exercise, sepsis)

Metformin (rare- mostly ppl with HF or kidney disease), NRTI’s (HIV drugs), and alcohol and cyanide can cause an increase in these levels

81
Q

Procalcitonin normal levels and use/reasons for increase

A

</= 0.15 ng/mL
Increases due to systemic bacterial infections or severe localized infections.

82
Q

Prolactin use, normal levels, and reasons for increase/decrease

A

1-25 ng/mL

Secretion is regulated by dopamine, and it can increase when patients are on haloperidol, risperidone, paliperidone, methyldopa
Can decrease on bromocriptine

83
Q

Purified protein derivative (PPD) or Tuberculin skin test (TST) uses and diagnostic meaning

A

Intradermal injection used to detect if a person is infected with tuberculosis

No induration (raised area) = healthy
Induration with certain diameter in mm’s 48-72 hours after injection could imply TB, but further testing is needed. Not definitive

84
Q

Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) or Venereal Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL) uses and diagnostic meaning

A

Normally negative

Its an antibody test used to screen for syphilis, if the RPR or VDRL is positive, a treponemal assay is needed. Titers can be used to monitor effectiveness of therapy.

85
Q

Serum osmolality normal range uses and reasons for increase

A

275-290 mOSm/kg H2O

Used with Na+, BUN/Scr, to review clinical volume status and evaluate hypo and hypernatremia

Increases due to due to mannitol, toxicities, (e.g. ethylene glycol, methanol, propylene glycol)

86
Q

Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) normal range, use/meaning when low

A

> /= 15 u/mL

Genetic deficiency of TPMT = increased risk for myelosuppression while on azathiopurine and mercaptopurine, and may require lower doses

87
Q

Vitamin D, serum 25 OH

A

> 30 ng/mL

88
Q

Normal RBCs for males and females

A

Males 4.5 - 5.5x 10 ^6 cells/microL
Females 4.1 - 4.9 x 10 ^ 6 cells/microL

89
Q

How long do RBCs live & what are the reasons it might increase or decrease

A

120 days
Increases due to erythropoesis-stimulating agents (ESAs), smoking, and polycythemia - condition that increases RBC’s

Decreases due to chemotherapy that targets the bone marrow, low production, blood loss, deficiency anemias (B12 and folate), hemolytic anemia, sickle cell anemia

90
Q

Normal range for Hemoglobin (Hgb or Hb) for males and females. What is Hgb and what is its relationship to Hct

A

Males: 13.5 - 18 g/dL
Females: 12-16 g/dL

Hgb is an iron carrying protein in RBCs that carries oxygen.
Hematocrit measures the proportion of RBC’s in the blood as a percentage. Usually Hct mirrors the Hgb trends. Hct =d 3 x hemoglobin

91
Q

Reasons why Hgb and Hct might increase or decrease

A

Increase use of erythropoesis stimulating agents (ESAs)
Decrease in anemic patients and bleeding

92
Q

What is the MCV (mean corpuscular volume) normal range and what does it mean

A

80-100 fL

It represents the size and average volume of RBCs.

93
Q

Why does Mean Corpuscular volume increase or decrease and what does it mean

A

Increase in MCV means there is a B12 or folate deficiency and this may be macrocytic anemia

Decrease in MCV means there is an iron deficiency and this is microcytic anemia

94
Q

What is the normal mean corpuscular Hgb (MCH), the normal mean corpuscular Hgb concentration (MCHC), and the RBC distribution width (RDW) and what do they mean

A

MCH 26-34 pg/cell
MCHC is 31-37 g/dL
RDW 11.5-14.5% - this measures the variability in RBC size
All of these are additional tests used in an anemia workup. They are all used together and they are called the “RBC indices”

95
Q

What is the normal range for iron and what are reasons it might increase or decrease

A

65-150 mcg/dL

increases with supplementation
decreases due to iron deficiency anemia, poor nutrition, blood loss

96
Q

Which labs are monitored in someone who has iron deficiency anemia or anemia of chronic disease and what are the normal ranges

A

Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) : 250-400 mcg/dl
Transferrin: > 200 mg/dL
Transferrin Saturation (TSAT): Males: 15-50%, Females 12-45%
Ferritin: 11- 300 ng/mL
Erythropoetin: 2-25 mIU/mL

97
Q

Normal folic acid level (folate) and meaning and reasons why it may be low

A

5-25 mcg/L

We check B12 and folate levels to understand patients macrocytic anemia.

May decrease due to phenytoin/fosphenytoin, phenobarbital, primidone, methotrexate, bactrim, and sulfasalazine

98
Q

Who should receive folic acid supplementation

A

Women of child bearing age
Those with alcoholism

99
Q

Normal vitamin B12 range and reasons it decreases

A

> 200 pg/mL
Decreases due to PPIs, metformin, colchicine, chloramphenicol

100
Q

Normal methylmalonate (MMA) range and what is it used for

A

Range varies

It is used for further workup of macrocytic anemia when B12 deficiency is suspected. The schilling test is used to determine whether vitamin B12 is absorbed naturally.

In macrocytic anemia is when the RBCs get so big because of B12 or folate deficiency.

101
Q

Reticulocyte Count normal range and what does it mean and when does it increase and decrease.

A

0.5-2.5 %
Its the amount of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) being made in the bone marrow.

Increases when there is blood loss, decreases when there is untreated anemia related to iron, folate, or B12 deficiency and when there is bone marrow suppression

102
Q

Normal Coombs test direct aka Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) normal value and what does it mean

A

Negative

This is used to diagnosed hemolytic anemia when the cause is unclear ex: autoimmune mechanism vs another cause like drug induce

If the Coombs test is positive, and a drug induced cause is suspected, then you must discontinue the offending drug

103
Q

What drugs can cause hemolytic anemia

A

penicillins, cephalosporins with prolonged use at high conc., dapsone, isoniazid, levodopa, methyldopa, methylene blue, nitrofurantoin, pegloticase, primaquine, quinidine, rasburicase, rifampin, and sulfonamides.

104
Q

What is the normal range for G6PD (glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase) and what is it used for

A

5-14 u/gram

Used to determine if hemolytic anemia is due to G6PD deficiency.

Usually if RBD destruction is caused by G6PD deficiency its related to stress, foods (fava beans), or drugs: dapsone, methylene blue, nitrofurantoin, pegloticase, primaquine, rasburicase, sulfonamides.

105
Q

What is the normal range for antifactor Xa activity (Anti-Xa) and when do we use it

A

With therapeutic doses of LMWH we want to see peak anti-XA levels of 1.0-2.0 IU/mL after 4 hours of a subQ dose

With therapeutic doses of unfractionated heparin we should see range of 0.3 - 0.7 IU/mL 6 hours after the IV infusion starts and every 6 hours thereafter to show its therapeutic

Used to monitor low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) and unfractionated heparin (UFH), which is recommended in pregnancy but may be used in obesity, low body weight, pediatrics, elderly and renal insufficiency

106
Q

What is the normal range (someone who is not on anticoagulant) for prothrombin time (PT) aka international normalized ratio (INR) and what does it mean/how is it used

A

PT : 10-13 seconds (varies)
INR: < 1.2 for those not on warfarin

This is used to monitor warfarin efficacy

107
Q

Apart from warfarin itself, what might cause INR to increase or decrease

A

Increases due to liver disease
False increases occur due to daptomycin, oritavancin, and televancin

Many interactions can cause either an increase or a decrease

108
Q

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT or PTT) normal range and what is it used for, and what can cause it to falsely increase

A

22-38 seconds (varies- this is the control) - must be obtained 6 hours after IV infusion and every 6 hours so show its therapeutic
Goal on UFH is 1.5 - 2.5x control

Used to monitor unfractionated heparin and direct thrombin inhibitors (ex: dabigatran)

False increase: oritavancin or telavancin

109
Q

Activated Clotting Time (ACT) normal range and what is it used for

A

70-180 seconds (varies)

Used to monitor anticoagulation in the cardiac catherization lab during percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and surgery

110
Q

Platelets (PLTs) normal range
What low range do we begin to see bleeding
What are they used for
How long do they live, and
What causes them to decrease

A

150,000-450,000 cells/mm^3
They live 7-10 days
Required for clot formation. Spontaneous bleeding can occur if platelets reach < 20,000 cells, mm^3

They decrease due to heparin, LMWHs, fondaparinux, glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists, linezolid, valproic acid, chemotherapy that targets bone marrow

111
Q

What is the normal value for heparin-induced platelet anti-bodies? How do we test for it? Why do we test for it

A

Normally negative
Used to diagnose Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT). If PLTs drop below 50% from baseline after UFH or LMWH

This is an ELISA test first, then a serotonin release assay (SRA) is used second to confirm diagnosis.

112
Q

Normal albumin range and reasons for decrease or any discrepancies

A

3.5 - 5 g/dL

Decreases due to cirrhosis and malnutrition

Serum levels of drugs that are highly protein bound are affected by low albumin levels (ex: warfarin, calcium, phenytoin)

113
Q

which drugs require correction calculations when albumin is low

A

phenytoin, valproic acid, calcium

“FREE” phenytoin or “ionized” calcium, does not require an adjustment

114
Q

Alkaline phosphatase (Alk phos or ALP) normal level and use

A

33-131 IU/L
Used with other labs to assess liver, biliary tract (cholestasis) and bone disease

115
Q

Normal aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels and use, and reasons for increase

A

10-40 u/L for both

Both are enzymes released from injured hepatocytes. Many medications and herbals can cause these to increase

116
Q

Normal Gamma Glutamyl Transpeptidase (GGT) levels and use

A

9-58 u/L
Used with other labs to assess liver, biliary tract (cholestasis) and pancreas

117
Q

Normal bilirubin (T billi) levels and use

A

0.1-1.2 mg/dL

Used along with other liver tests to determine causes of liver damage and detect bile duct blockage

118
Q

Normal ammonia levels and use, and when does this increase and decrease

A

19-60 mcg/dL

Not diagnostic, but assessed in suspected hepatic encephalopathy (HE)

Ammonia increases when ppl are on valproic acid, or topiramate. It decreases when people are on lactulose

119
Q

Normal hepatic (liver) panel consists of and is used to assess?

A

AST, ALT, T billi (billirubin), albumin, alk phos

Ordered together and used to assess acute and chronic liver inflammation/disease and baseline and routine monitoring of hepatotoxic drugs. The panel can include other tests like PT/INR, and total protein

120
Q

Normal amylase levels and lipase levels and what they tell us and why they increase

A

60-180 u/L - amylase
5-160 u/L - Lipase

These are pancreatic enzymes. They increase due to didanosine, stavudine, GLP-1 agonists, DPP4 inhibitors, valproic acid, and hypertriglyceridemia

121
Q

Normal Creatine Kinase or Creatine phosphokinase (CK or CPK) levels and use

A

Males: 55-170 IU/L
Females: 30-135 IU/L

They are used to assess muscle inflammation (myositis) or more serious muscle damage and to diagnose cardiac conditions.

They increase due to daptomycin, quinupristin/dalfopristin, statins, fibrates (especially when given with a statin), emtricitabine, tenofovir, tipranavir, raltegravir, and dolutegravir

122
Q

Normal levels of all the cardiac enzymes
CK-MB isoenzymes
Troponin T (TnT)
Troponin I (TnI)
B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
and N-Terminal-ProBNP (NT-proBNP)

A

CK-MB isoenzymes: less than or equal to 6.0 ng/mL
Troponin T (TnT): 0-0.1 ng/mL
Troponin I (TnI): 0-0.5 ng/mL
B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP): < 100 pg/mL or ng/L
and N-Terminal-ProBNP (NT-proBNP) : Males < 61 pg/mL, females: 12-151 pg/mL

123
Q

What are all the cardiac enzymes

A

CK-MB isoenzymes
Troponin T (TnT)
Troponin I (TnI)
B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
and N-Terminal-ProBNP (NT-proBNP)

124
Q

Describe how we use these to understand heart conditions and tell us when they can be elevated:
CK-MB isoenzymes
Troponin T (TnT)
Troponin I (TnI)
B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
and N-Terminal-ProBNP (NT-proBNP)

A

CK-MB isoenzymes, Troponin T (TnT), and Troponin I (TnI) help in diagnosis of MI. Troponins can be elevated related to sepsis, PE, or CKD.

B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) and N-Terminal-ProBNP (NT-proBNP) are markers of cardiac stress. They are not heart failure or heart disease specific but higher values tell us its more likely heart failure when other HF symptoms are present. Another reason they may increase is kidney failure.

125
Q

Normal eosinophil count and what does it tell us

A

< 100 cell/mcL

Used when people have a history of COPD exacerbations to understand if inhaled corticosteroids will be beneficial in COPD treatment. Makes sense cause eosinophils move to inflaxmed areas and modulate inflammatory responses

126
Q

Normal total cholestrol

A

< 200 mg/dL

127
Q

Normal LDL

A

< 100 mg/dl is best

128
Q

Normal HDL

A

at least 60 mg/dL is best
but < 40 mg/dl is considered low for men

129
Q

Normal non-HDL (LDL, IDL, VLDL) aka TC - HDL = non HDL

A

< 130 mg/dL is best

130
Q

Normal Triglycerides

A

< 150 mg/dL

131
Q

How is a fasting lipid panel taken

A

Patient must be fasting 9-12 hours before the lipid blood draw

132
Q

Guidelines don’t share specific TC, HDL, or LDL goals, why?

A

They have just statin specific intensities based on goal reductions in LDL-C based on what is most likely to benefit the patient. Target values are not the same as goals for treatment, but elevated levels should be recognized (ex: some people may choose to treat LDL > 70 rather than > 100 )

133
Q

What is a lipid panel

A

Fasting lipid panel preferred - used to assess the major cholesterol types and determine the cardiovascular risk (HDL, LDL, VLDL, IDL, TG, TC)

134
Q

Normal levels for
Lipoprotein-a (Lpa)
Apolipoprotein-b (ApoB)

and what do they tell us

A

< 10 mg/dL
< 130 mg/dL

They tell us about increased risk of coagulation and CVFD

135
Q

Normal levels for
Lipoprotein-a (Lpa)
Apolipoprotein-b (ApoB)

and what do they tell us

A

< 10 mg/dL
< 130 mg/dL

They tell us about increased risk of coagulation and CVD

136
Q

CRP (C-reactive protein) normal range and what does it tell us (don’t confuse with C peptide test)

A

0 - 0.5 mg/dL
Indicator of inflammation , which can be due to infection, trauma, malignancy, etc. The higher the level the higher risk

High sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) is a great indicator for CVD

137
Q

Coronary artery calcium score normal value and the meaning

A

<300 Agatson units
< 75th percentile for age, sex, ethnicity, higher score indicates higher risk.

Tells us how much calcium build up is in the coronary arteries

138
Q

Ankle brachial index (ABI) normal value and meaning

A

1-1.4
Measurement of the ratio of the BP in the lower legs to the BP in the arms. Used to assess severity of PAD. An ABI ratio of <1 means there is some level of PAD

139
Q

Fasting plasma glucose normal

A

<126 (anything at or above 126 is positive for DM)
100-125 is prediabetes

at least 8 hrs of fasting before blood draw

140
Q

Hemoglobin A1c normal value

A

<7% (ADA), </= 6.5 (ACE)
average glucose level in the past 3 months. if BG is high, there will be increased amounts attached to sticky Hgb, which increases A1c

141
Q

eAG normal value (estimated average glucose) normal level

A

< 154 mg/dl (ADA) which is = to A1c of 7%
Used to correlate finger stick glucose to A1C value
A1c of 6% = 126 mg/dl of glucose, each additional 1% is equal to 28 mg/dl

142
Q

Normal preprandial glucose

A

80-130 mg/dl (ADA)
110 (AACE)

143
Q

Normal post prandial glucose

A

< 180 mg/dL (ADA)
< 140 mg/dl (AACE)

144
Q

C peptide (fasting) normal and what does it mean

A

0.78-1.89
Product of insulin breakdown, so it indicates the effectiveness of the beta islet cells in producing insulin and if low, its a diagnostic measure for T1DM diabetes.

145
Q

Normal value Urine albumin to creatinine ratio or albumin to creatinine ratio (UACR or ACR)
aka
Urine albumin excretion (UAE)

A

Males < 17 mg/gram
Females < 25 mg/gram

< 30 mg/24 hrs for UAE

(normally we should see a low amount in healthy kidneys because they kidneys shouldn’t have holes)

146
Q

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) normal levels
and use and reason for increase or decrease

A

0.3-3 mIU/L

Used with FT4 to diagnose hypo/hyperthyroidism and sometimes used alone with or without FT4 to monitor patients being treated

high TSH = hypothyroidism , low TSH = hyperthyroidism

Increases or decreases due to amiodarone interferons

Increased TSH (hypothyroidism) can be due to tyrosine kinase inhibitors, lithium, and carbamazepine

147
Q

Total thyroxine (T4) normal levels

A

4.5 - 10.9 mcg/dL (Used with Free Thyroxine levels for assessment of thyroid function)

148
Q

Free thyroxine levels normal

A

0.9 - 2.3 ng/dL (Used with T4 test for assessment of thyroid function)

149
Q

Normal uric acid levels and use

A

Used in diagnosis and treatment of gout

Males: 3.5 - 7.2 mg/dl
Females: 2- 6.5 mg/dl

Increase due to diuretics, niacin, low dose aspirin, pyrazinamide, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, select pancreatic enzyme products, select chemotherapy (due to tumor lysis syndrome)

150
Q

CRP (C-reactice protein) normal levels and high risk levels

A

0 - 0.5
High risk > 3 mg/dl

151
Q

Rheumatoid Factor (RF) normal

A

Negative or </= upper limit of normal (ULN) for the lab (< 20 IU/mL)

152
Q

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) normal

A

Males: </= 20 mm/hr
Females: </= 30 mm/hr

153
Q

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) normal

A

negative (titers may be provided)
if this is positive, the anti-dsDNA test will help diagnose lupus erythematosus (DILE), which can be drug induced

154
Q

Antihistone antibodies detected by ELISA

A

Negative

155
Q

What are the nonspecific tests used in autoimmune disorders, inflammation, and infections

A

C-reactive protein CRP
Rheumatoid Factor (RF)
Erythrocyte sedimentation Rate (ESR)
Antinuclear antibodies
Antihistone antibodies

156
Q

Which drugs can cause DILE - drug induced lupus erythematosus

A

Anti-TNF agents, hydralazine, isoniazid, methimazole, methyldopa, minocycline, procainimide, propylthiouracil, quinidine, terbinafine – the causative drug needs to be DCd`

157
Q

CD4 Lymphocyte count normal value

A

In an immunocompromised state, it’s < 200 cells/mm^3

CD4 levels are an indicator of immune function and help establish need for opportunistic infection prophylaxis

158
Q

HIV RNA concentration (Viral Load)

A

Undetectable, measured in copies /mL

159
Q

CD4 T cell count and the RNA Viral load concentration are used for…

A

Assess HIV and monitor treatment

160
Q

HIV antibody (Ab) normal and meaning

A

Negative/non reactive

Detecting the presence of HIV virus, but it may not become positive until several weeks after exposure

161
Q

HIV DNA PCR normal

A

Negative (useful for early detection of HIV)

162
Q

HIV P24 antigen normal

A

Undetectable (useful for early detection of HIV)

163
Q

Normal pH

A

7.35- 7.45

164
Q

Normal PCO2

A

35-45 mmHg

165
Q

pO2 normal

A

80-100 mmHg

166
Q

HCO3- normal

A

22-26 mEq/L

167
Q

O2 sat normal

A

> 95%