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Clinical II > Lab Final > Flashcards

Lab Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are cestodes?

A

Tapeworms, dogs and cats are the definitive hosts, but they can be zoonotic

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2
Q

What are the different kinds of cestodes?

A
  • Dipylidium canium
  • Echinoccus spp
  • Taneia spp
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3
Q

How my tapeworms be transmitted to humans?

A

Children may ingest via the mouth or people who sleep with infected pets

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4
Q

What is the definitive host?

A

The reproductive cycle host

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5
Q

What is the end stage host?

A

Not a typical host and the parasite will die

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6
Q

What is the most common intermediate host of the tapeworm?

A

Ctenocephalids felis

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7
Q

What is the prepatent period?

A

Time period prior to parasitic reproduction

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8
Q

Will Dipylidium caninum eggs be visible on a fecal float?

A

Not necessarily, because the eggs are heavy; think cucumber seeds

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9
Q

What are the parts of the tapeworm body?

A
  • Scollex: head of the tapeworm

- Proglottid: segments behind the head

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10
Q

Which tapeworm is typically transmitted through infected stool?

A

Dipylidium caninum

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11
Q

What is the intermediate host of Echinococcus spp?

A

Mammal due to grass eating

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12
Q

What is the intermediate host of Taenia spp?

A

Small mammals making it the most common tapeworm of the cat

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13
Q

What is the prepatent period of Dipylidium caninum?

A

14-21 days

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14
Q

What is the prepatent period of Echinoccus spp?

A

47 days

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15
Q

What is the prepatent period of Taenia spp?

A

36-42 days

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16
Q

What are nematodes?

A

Any sphere shaped worms including hookworms, roundworms, threadworms, whipworms, and heartworms

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17
Q

Are nematodes zoonotic?

A

All except whipworms

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18
Q

Which species of hookworms only affect the dog?

A

Ancylostoma caninum

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19
Q

What species of hookworms only affect the cat?

A

Ancylostoma tubaeforme

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20
Q

What is the most common parasite of the dog?

A

Roundworms

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21
Q

How do children typically get roundworms?

A

Poor hygiene

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22
Q

What may humans develop from having hookworms?

A

Cutaneous larval migrans

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23
Q

What may humans develop from having roundworms?

A

Visceral or ocular larval migrans

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24
Q

Which nematode is the most dangerous to humans?

A

Racoon roundworms, which is why most heartworm prevenatives prevent against racoon roundworms

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25
Q

What is the prepatent period for hookworms?

A

15-18 days

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26
Q

Which parasites do puppies and kittens get dewormed for?

A

Hookworms and roundworms

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27
Q

Why are hookworms called such?

A

The adults have ventral teeth that hook onto the small intestine and suck blood

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28
Q

All endoparasites except which live in the small intestine?

A

Whipworms

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29
Q

Which stage of hookworm larvae are the infective stage?

A

The 3rd stage

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30
Q

What are the routes of transmission for hookworms?

A
  • Direct ingestion of infected feces
  • Transdermal penetration of paw pads
  • Transplacental or transmammary
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31
Q

Which roundworm has the longest prepatent period?

A

Toxascaris leonina - 74 days

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32
Q

What is the prepatent period for Toxocara canis?

A

28-35 days

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33
Q

What are the routes of transmission for Toxascaris leonina?

A

Direct or indirect ingestion

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34
Q

What are the routes of transmission for Toxascaris canis?

A
  • Direct or indirect ingestion

- Transplacental or transmammary ingestion

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35
Q

What are the routes of transmission for Toxascaris cati?

A
  • Direct or indirect ingestion

- Transmammary ingestion

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36
Q

What is the first worm an animal can transmit after being born?

A

The threadworm due to its fast prepatent period of only 5-7 days and is only seen on a Baerman sediment technique

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37
Q

Why are whipworms so difficult to see on a fecal float?

A

Because they don’t float well and usually sink and have a prepatent period of about 3 months

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38
Q

How are whipworms transmitted?

A

Eggs are shed intermediately in feces and then eggs are ingested

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39
Q

What are protozoa?

A

Giardia, Cystoisospora spp and Toxoplasma gondii

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40
Q

Which protozoa only affect the dog and cat?

A

Coccidia, Giardia and Toxoplasmosis are zoonitic

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41
Q

What is the infective stage of Giardia?

A

Cysts which are best seen with iodine, while adults are best seen on a zinc sulfate float

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42
Q

What is the common name for Giardia?

A

Beaver fever

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43
Q

How is Giardia transmitted?

A

Direct ingestion of cysts

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44
Q

What is the infective stage of Coccidia?

A

The sporulated stage, when the cell has 2 nuclei, which typically happens in a perpatent period or 3-11 days

45
Q

How is Coccidia transmitted?

A

Eggs are passed in feces, then develop into sporulates , then ingestion either directly or indirectly by an intermediate host

46
Q

What is the prepatent period of Toxoplasmosis?

A

3-24 days

47
Q

How can humans be exposed to Toxoplasmosis?

A

By ingesting undercooked meat or handling feces of feral cats

48
Q

How are cats infected with Toxoplasmosis?

A

Through both direct and indirect ingestion

49
Q

What is the most prevalent flea of all species, but most commonly effects the dog?

A

Ctenocephalides felis

50
Q

What is the rat flea called?

A

Xenopsylla cheopis which transmits the Black Plague

51
Q

What is the name of the Gram-negative, rod shaped bacteria that transmits the Black Plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

52
Q

How many stages are in the flea life cycle?

A

Larva stage, pupa stage, and adult stage

53
Q

What is the first feeding stage of the flea?

A

The larva stage, which are maggot like and covered in small hairs that feed on blood in flea feces, organic debris, flea eggshells and other flea larvae

54
Q

How are flea eggs transmitted?

A

They are deposited on the host and readily fall into the environment within a few hours, then eggs hatch in 2-10 days

55
Q

What controls the speed of development from flea larvae to pupae?

A

Temperature and humidity, usually in undisturbed protected sites such as carpets, under furniture and along baseboards; not typically outside due to sunlight exposure

56
Q

Where do flea larvae typically go through metamorphosis?

A

Cocoons can be found in soil, vegetation, in carpets, under furniture and on animal bedding

57
Q

How long after metamorphosis can adult fleas begin emerging?

A

Between 8-14 days after initial pupal development once their environment reaches 24C (745.2F) and 78% relative humidity

58
Q

How long can delayed emergence for fleas last?

A

Up to 30 weeks at 11C (51.8F) and 75% relative humidity without environmental stimuli

59
Q

What are some environmental stimuli that can trigger flea emergence?

A

Mechanical pressure or vibrations, CO2 exhaled from possible hosts or increased environmental temperatures

60
Q

When does flea egg production begin?

A

Within 20-24 hours of females taking their first blood meal and they can produce 40-50 eggs per day

61
Q

How long can fleas survive?

A

10 days at 3 C (37.4F), 5 days at 1 C (33.8), and without a host they die within 1-2 weeks

62
Q

What causes flea allergy dermatitis?

A

Hypersensitive to antigenic material from the salivary glands of fleas

63
Q

How many tick life stages are there?

A

Egg stage, larval stage, nymphal stage, and adult stage

64
Q

What is the first feeding stage of the tick?

A

In about two weeks when eggs hatch, the larval stage move into grass or shrubs in search of their first blood meal

65
Q

What is questing?

A

When a tick attaches their 3rd and 4th set of legs to a leaf or branch while its front legs wait for something to attach to

66
Q

Which tick stage has the highest change for disease transmission?

A

The nymphal stage because they are small and often go undetected; disease typically starts transmitting after 24 hours of attachment

67
Q

Which gender of the adult tick feeds on a host?

A

Females will feed, then fall off and mate and lay her eggs in a secluded place

68
Q

How do topical ectoparasiticides work?

A

They spread rapidly over the hair coat within 24-48 hours, the skin distributes the agent and it is stored in the sebaceous glands

69
Q

Which ectoparasiticides does the FDA authorize?

A

If it is taken internally or has internal actions

70
Q

Which ectoparasiticides does the EPA authorize?

A

If it is applied externally with no internal affects

71
Q

What are macrocyclic lactones?

A

Capable of killing both endo and eco parasites, it controls locomotion and feeding

72
Q

What are some examples of macrocyclic lactones?

A

Avermectins such as Selemectin and Ivermectin, and Milbemycins

73
Q

What parasites do macrocyclic lactones control?

A

Nematodes, insects and arachnids

74
Q

What are tetrahydropyrimidines?

A

They depolarize the neuromuscular blocking agents of parasites

75
Q

What is the most commonly used tetrahydropyrimidine?

A

Pyrantel

76
Q

What is benzimidazoles or probenzimidazoles?

A

It stops microtubules assembly in the parasite

77
Q

What is an example of a benzimidazole/probenzimidazole?

A

Fenbendazole or oxibendazole

78
Q

How does feces get it dark brown color?

A

From stercobilin, with out it, it can appear gray and is referred to as acholic.

79
Q

Why may feces of meat eaters be stinky?

A

Due to the typtophan in high protein meals, cats especially because of their intake of indole and skatol

80
Q

How can a potent feces be treated?

A

With more carbs and milk proteins rather than meat

81
Q

How might the feces smell of an animal with maldigestion or malabsorption?

A

Acidic or sour; nutrients are not getting absorbed so they are rotting in the GI tract

82
Q

What is malassimilation?

A

A variety of diarrheal syndromes that result from incomplete absorption of the diet

83
Q

What are the two basic mechanisms of malassimilation?

A

Maldigestion and malabsorption

84
Q

What may the feces from animals with maldigestion typically contain?

A

May contain large quantities of undigested fat, protein and starch which can be identified by appropriate

85
Q

What is maldigestion?

A

No breakdown of nutrients, therefore it is the main cause of diarrhea

86
Q

What is malabsorption?

A

Food is broken down in the body, but it is not being absorbed

87
Q

What is steatorrhea?

A

Fat in the stool

88
Q

What is creatorrhea?

A

Muscle tissue/protein in the stool

89
Q

What is amylorrhea?

A

Carbs in the stool

90
Q

Will an animal with maldigestion also have malabsorption?

A

Yes, but they may not necessarily have maldigestion if they have malabsorption

91
Q

What stain is used to test for steatorrhea?

A

Sudain stain III, direst tests for maldigestion and indirect tests for malabsorption

92
Q

Which stain is used for creatorrhea?

A

New methylene blue

93
Q

Which stain is used for amylorrhea?

A

Lugol’s Iodine 2%

94
Q

What is used to evaluate proteolytic activity?

A

Radiographic film test, geleatin tube test or a baerman test which tests for things that don’t float

95
Q

What is a culture media?

A

It is used tor grow bacteria

96
Q

What is a nutrient agar?

A

A basic culture medium used to grow certain types of bacteria

97
Q

What is a blood agar?

A

Enriched medium that supports growth of most pathogenic bacteria

98
Q

What is a MacConkey agar?

A

Selective medium containing bile used for isolation of enterobacteria and some other Gram-negative bacteria

99
Q

What is a Selenite Broth/Rappaport?

A

Used for isolation of salmonella from samples containing other Gram-negative bacteria

100
Q

What is Edwards medium?

A

A blood agar based selective medium used for the isolation and recognition of Streptococci which is found in the throat and airways

101
Q

What is Chocolate medium used for?

A

A heat treated agar which supplies special growth requirments to Factors V & X for the isolation of Hemophilius spp and Taylorella equigenitalis

102
Q

What is Brilliant Green agar?

A

Indicator medium for the presumptive identification of Salmonella which gives a bright green color for a positive reaction

103
Q

What color does Gram-positive bacteria stain?

A

They are stained blue by the crystal violet color retained in the cell wall; herbivores

104
Q

What color does Gram-negative bacteria stain?

A

They are counterstained red; carnivores

105
Q

What is Giemsa used for?

A

For finding Dermatophilis, Rickettsiae, and Borrelia, which all stain blue

106
Q

What is dilute carbol fuschin used for?

A

Stains red for Campylobacter, Brachyspira, and Fusobacterium

107
Q

What is polychrome methylene blue used for?

A

To identify anthrax is blood smears, it will stain blue with distinctive pink capsule within

108
Q

What stain is used to find TB?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen

Clinical II (11 decks)

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