L9: Musculoskeletal Anatomy Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the axial skeleton?

A

Bones of the head (cranium/skull), neck and trunk

The axial skeleton supports the central axis of the body.

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2
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?

A

Bones of the limbs including the pectoral and pelvic girdles

The appendicular skeleton aids in movement and interaction with the environment.

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3
Q

How many bones do humans have?

A

Approximately 206 bones
The number of bones can change with age as some bones fuse together.

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4
Q

From which embryonic layer is the axial skeleton derived?

A

Mesoderm, specifically from somites

Somites are blocks of mesoderm that give rise to skeletal muscle, vertebrae, and dermis.

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5
Q

From which embryonic layer is the appendicular skeleton derived?

A

Lateral plate mesoderm

This layer contributes to the formation of the limbs.

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6
Q

What is cartilage?

A

Semi-rigid, more flexible, non-vascularized tissue

Cartilage provides support and cushioning at joints.

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7
Q

What are the characteristics of bones?

A

Living tissue, rigid, some elasticity

Bones are dynamic structures that undergo constant remodeling.

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8
Q

List three functions of bones.

A
  • Provide support and protection
  • Provide the mechanical basis for movement (leverage)
  • Storage of calcium and other minerals
  • Contain blood stem cells

.

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9
Q

What are the two types of bone structure?

A

Compact bone and spongy bone

Compact bone is dense and forms the outer layer, while spongy bone is lighter and contains bone marrow.

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10
Q

Fill in the blank: The skeletal system provides the mechanical basis for _______.

A

movement

This is crucial for locomotion and various physical activities.

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11
Q

What are the two main types of bone structure?

A

Compact bone and spongy bone

Compact bone is the outer layer, while spongy bone is more central.

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12
Q

What is the role of bone marrow?

A

Blood cell formation and fat storage

Bone marrow can be yellow (fatty) or red (blood cell forming).

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13
Q

What is the term for the end of a long bone closest to the head?

A

Proximal epiphysis

The proximal epiphysis is one of the two ends of a long bone.

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14
Q

What is the term for the end of a long bone furthest from the head?

A

Distal epiphysis

The distal epiphysis is opposite the proximal epiphysis.

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15
Q

What is the area of bone growth in long bones called?

A

Epiphyseal growth plate

This area is crucial for the elongation of bones.

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16
Q

What is the outer layer of bone called?

A

Compact (cortical) bone

This layer is dense and provides strength.

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17
Q

What is the inner structure of bone that contains marrow?

A

Medullary cavity

The medullary cavity houses yellow and red bone marrow.

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18
Q

What type of bone is more central and has a porous structure?

A

Spongy (trabecular) bone

This type of bone is lighter and provides support.

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19
Q

What is the function of the periosteum?

A

Provides blood supply and innervation to compact bone

The periosteum is rich in nociceptive nerves and nutrient arteries.

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20
Q

Fill in the blank: The _____ is a thin layer of tissue that covers the outer surface of bones.

A

periosteum

The periosteum plays a role in bone healing and growth.

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21
Q

True or False: Bones are vascularized and innervated.

A

True

Bones have nutrient arteries and are innervated by Sharpey’s fibers.

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22
Q

What is the term for the growth area between the epiphysis and diaphysis?

A

Metaphysis

The metaphysis is where growth occurs during childhood.

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23
Q

What type of bone marrow is primarily responsible for blood cell formation?

A

Red bone marrow

Red marrow is found in spongy bone and is crucial for hematopoiesis.

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24
Q

What type of bone is primarily fatty and found in the medullary cavity?

A

Yellow bone marrow

Yellow marrow serves as an energy reserve.

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25
Q

What structure covers the ends of bones where they articulate at joints?

A

Articular cartilage

This cartilage reduces friction and absorbs shock at the joint.

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26
Q

What are the majority type of bones classified as?

A

Long bones

Long bones are the most common type found in the human body and include bones such as the femur and humerus.

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27
Q

What shape are short bones classified as?

A

Cuboidal

Short bones are typically found in the wrist and ankle.

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28
Q

What is the primary function of flat bones?

A

Usually protective

Flat bones include the bones of the cranium, which protect the brain.

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29
Q

Give an example of irregular bones.

A

Bones of the face

Irregular bones have complex shapes and include the vertebrae and certain facial bones.

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30
Q

What are sesamoid bones?

A

Bones that develop within tendons

An example of a sesamoid bone is the patella, commonly known as the knee cap.

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31
Q

What are the elevations in superficial bone markings?

A
  • Head
  • Capitulum
  • Condyle
  • Epicondyle
  • Crest
  • Protuberance
  • Spine
  • Spinous process
  • Tubercle
  • Tuberosity

These terms refer to various projections and ridges found on bones.

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32
Q

What are the depressions and holes in superficial bone markings?

A
  • Facet
  • Fossa
  • Groove
  • Notch
  • Foramen

These terms describe various indentations and openings in bones.

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33
Q

What is the role of the epiphyseal plate in bone development?

A

It serves as the growth plate where new bone tissue is generated.

34
Q

What is the perichondrium?

A

A layer of connective tissue that surrounds cartilage.

35
Q

What happens to hypertrophic cartilage during bone development?

A

It degenerates.

36
Q

What is the fetal hyaline cartilage model?

A

A precursor to bone that develops in the fetus.

37
Q

What forms around the diaphysis during bone development?

A

A periosteal bone collar.

38
Q

What is the primary ossification center?

A

The area in the diaphysis where bone begins to replace cartilage.

39
Q

What do epiphyseal blood vessels contribute to?

A

They supply blood to the developing bone.

40
Q

What forms in the epiphyses during bone development?

A

Secondary ossification centers.

41
Q

What is formed from the ossified shaft of bone?

A

Diaphysis.

42
Q

What remains as cartilage after bone replaces it?

A
  • Articular cartilage
  • Epiphyseal plates

These structures are crucial for joint function and growth.

43
Q

What occurs when epiphyseal plates ossify?

A

They form epiphyseal lines.

44
Q

What are the two types of ossification mentioned?

A
  • Intramembranous ossification
  • Endochondral ossification

These are the processes through which bone is formed.

45
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is the area where compact bone develops.

A

Medullary cavity

46
Q

True or False: Articular cartilage is replaced by bone during development.

A

False.

47
Q

What is the significance of Alcian blue in bone development?

A

It stains cartilage.

48
Q

What does Alizarin red indicate in the context of bone development?

A

It stains calcified bone.

49
Q

Why is the timing of ossification important?

A

It helps in the determination of bone age and forensic age determination.

50
Q

What factors can affect the variability of bone development?

A

Nutritional status and diseases.

51
Q

What role do fibroblasts play in bone healing?

A

They secrete collagen that forms the collar of a callus.

52
Q

Which cells are involved in the remodeling of bone?

A

Osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

53
Q

What is the first step in the bone healing process after a fracture?

A

Formation of a hematoma.

54
Q

What follows the formation of a hematoma in bone healing?

A

Inflammation.

55
Q

True or False: Bones are static structures that do not change over time.

A

False.

56
Q

What percentage of bone mass is recycled per week?

A

5-7%.

57
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of _______ refers to the formation and remodeling of bone.

A

Bone Formation

58
Q

What is the process called when bone is continuously remodeled?

A

Bone Remodeling.

59
Q

What are the major types of joints?

A
  • Synovial joints
  • Fibrous joints
  • Cartilaginous joints

Each type has distinct characteristics and functions in the musculoskeletal system.

60
Q

What do synovial joints contain?

A

Joint capsule (fibrous layer + synovial membrane), joint cavity filled with synovial fluid

Synovial joints are the most common type and are primarily responsible for movement.

61
Q

Give two examples of fibrous joints.

A
  • Syndesmosis
  • Gomphosis (socket for roots of teeth)

These joints are typically immovable or only allow slight movement.

62
Q

What are the two types of cartilaginous joints?

A
  • Primary (developmental)
  • Secondary (e.g. intervertebral discs)

Cartilaginous joints allow for more movement than fibrous joints but less than synovial joints.

63
Q

What is Hilton’s law?

A

The nerves supplying a joint also supply the muscles that move the joint

This law highlights the relationship between joint innervation and muscle function.

64
Q

What type of joint is characterized by a rounded process of bone fitting into a bony socket, allowing rotation?

A

Pivot joint

An example of a pivot joint is the atlanto-axial joint between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) vertebrae.

65
Q

What type of movement do hinge joints permit?

A

Flexion and extension

Hinge joints are uniaxial and primarily allow movement in one plane.

66
Q

What type of joint allows movement in two different planes?

A

Saddle joint

An example is the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.

67
Q

Fill in the blank: The knee joint is an example of a _______ joint.

A

Synovial joint

Synovial joints are the primary joints of movement in the body.

68
Q

What type of joint is the hip joint classified as?

A

Ball and socket joint

Ball and socket joints permit movement on several axes.

69
Q

True or False: Plane joints permit flexion and extension.

A

False

Plane joints typically permit gliding or sliding movements.

70
Q

What type of joint permits flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction?

A

Condyloid joint

An example of a condyloid joint is the metacarpophalangeal joint.

71
Q

What is the structural composition of diploe?

A

Two layers of compact bone with spongy bone in between

Diploe is commonly found in flat bones such as the skull.

72
Q

Main features of skeletal muscle

A
  • Striated, tubular, multinucleated fibres
  • Voluntary
  • Attached to skeleton
73
Q

Define multinucleated fibres

A

Form by fusion of multiple muscular cells

74
Q

Main features of smooth muscle

A

– Non-striated, spindle-shaped & uninucleated
- Involuntary
- Covering wall of internal organs

75
Q

Main features of cardiac muscle

A
  • Striated, branched & uninucleated fibres
  • Involuntary
  • Cover walls of the heart
76
Q

How are muscles attached via?

A

Tendons

77
Q

3 types of contractions

A

1) Reflexive
2) Tonic
3) Phasic (Isotonic or Isometric)

78
Q

Define reflexive, tonic contraction

A

Reflexive: Involuntary
Tonic: Muscle constantly working except during sleep/under anaesthesia

79
Q

Define isotonic & isometric contraction

A

Isotonic: Muscle changes in length
Isometric: Length remains constant

80
Q

2 types of contraction within isotonic contraction

A

1) Concentric
2) Eccentric

81
Q

Define hypertrophy

A

Muscles growing in response to activity

82
Q
A