L7: CNS of Mood Disorders and Psych Disorders Flashcards
*The major transmitter system affected by most anti-anxiety drugs is
a. Glutamate
b. GABA
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin
e. Norepinephrine
b. GABA
*What type of drugs are used most often to treat schizophrenia?
a. GABA antagonists
b. Benzodiazepines that potentiate GABA action
c. Serotonin uptake inhibitors
d. Dopamine D2 receptor antagonists
e. None of these answers are correct
d. Dopamine D2 receptor antagonists
*Based on the types of drugs that are used to treat it, depression seems to involve
a. A lack of adrenergic or serotonergic tone in the CNS leading to the monoamine theory of depression
b. A lack of GABAergic tone in the CNS leading to the GABAergic theory of depression
c. Too much dopaminergic tone in the CNS leading to the dopamine theory of depression
d. Too little cholinergic tone in the CNS leading to the cholinergic theory of depression
e. None of these answers are correct
a. A lack of adrenergic or serotonergic tone in the CNS leading to the monoamine theory of depression
*An important side effect of classical antipsychotic drugs is:
a. Insomnia
b. Cardiac arrhythmias
c. Hyperactivity
d. Stereotyped behaviors
e. Movement disorders
e. Movement disorders
Benzodiazepines are used to treat anxiety and insomnia. How do they work?
A. They block dopamine receptors
B. They block uptake of norepinephrine
C. They potentiate the action of glutamate in the CNS
D. They potentiate the action of GABA in the CNS.
E. none of the above
D. They potentiate the action of GABA in the CNS.
Based on the types of drugs that are used to treat it, depression seems to involve?
A. a lack of adrenergic or serotonergic tone in the CNS leading to monoamine theory of depression
B. a lack of GABAergic tone in the CNS leading to the GABAergic theory of depression
C. too much dopaminergic tone in the CNS leading to the dopamine theory of depression
D. too little cholinergic tone in the CNS leading to the cholinergic theory of depression
E. none of the above
A. a lack of adrenergic or serotonergic tone in the CNS leading to monoamine theory of depression
Why are SSRIs usually used to treat depression initially instead of older TCAs?
A. They are more effective than TCAs
B. They block serotonin uptake instead of norepinephrine uptake
C. They are safer
D. All of the above.
E. none of the above
C. They are safer
*NOT more effective
What type of drugs are most often to treat schizophrenia?
A. GABA antagonists
B. Benzodiazepines that potentiate GABA action
C. Serotonin uptake inhibitors
D. Dopamine D2 receptor antagonists
E. None of the above
D. Dopamine D2 receptor antagonists
Benzodiazepines are used to treat anxiety and insomnia. How do they work?
A. They block dopamine receptors
B. They block uptake of norepinephrine
C. They potentiate the action of glutamate in the CNS
D. They potentiate the action of GABA in the CNS.
E. none of the above
D. They potentiate the action of GABA in the CNS.
Why are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors safer than a tricyclic antidepressant?
a. SSRIs have the same efficacy as TCAs but a greater potency
b. SSRIs take longer to exert an effect
c. SSRIs are only effective on mild to moderate depression, which is easier to treat.
d. TCAs can severely decrease the amount of norepinephrine reuptake which can detrimentally increase the amount of norepinephrine left in the synaptic cleft.
e. SSRIs treat symptoms rather than the cause of depression.
d. TCAs can severely decrease the amount of norepinephrine reuptake which can detrimentally increase the amount of norepinephrine left in the synaptic cleft.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of ketamine?
a. Ketamine is an antagonist of NMDA receptors
b. Ketamine increases the release of norepinephrine by binding to alpha 2 receptors
c. Ketamine is an agonist of NMDA receptors
d. Ketamine reduces the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands
e. None of the above
a. Ketamine is an antagonist of NMDA receptors
In accordance with the dopamine theory and the glutamate theory, antipsychotic drugs are ______.
(Hint: Excitatory or Inhibitory)
EXCITATORY
In accordance with the dopamine theory and the glutamate theory, antipsychotic drugs are excitatory.
Explain the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines for clinical anxiety.
Benzodiazepines = allosteric modulator of GABA A receptors to open channel
→ influx of Cl- hyperpolarizes cell
→ decreases neuronal activity
