L5: Axial Pt. 1 Flashcards

1
Q

contribute to homeostasis by protecting many of the body’s organs such as the brain, spinal cord, heart, and lungs. They are also important in support and calcium storage and release.

A

bones of the axial skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What would happen without bones?

A

You could not survive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What movements would you be unable to perform without bones?

A

Walking or grasping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What could happen if you received the slightest blow to your head or chest without bones?

A

It could damage your brain or heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the skeletal system form?

A

The framework of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is it important to be familiar with the names, shapes, and positions of individual bones?

A

It will help you locate and name many other anatomical features.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the radial artery named for?

A

Its closeness to the radius, the lateral bone of the forearm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the ulnar nerve named for?

A

Its proximity to the ulna, the medial bone of the forearm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where does the frontal lobe of the brain lie?

A

Deep to the frontal (forehead) bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where does the tibialis anterior muscle lie?

A

Along the anterior surface of the tibia (shin bone).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do parts of certain bones help to locate and outline?

A

Structures within the skull and the lungs, heart, and abdominal and pelvic organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do movements such as throwing a ball, biking, and walking require?

A

Interactions between bones and muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do you need to learn to understand how muscles produce different movements?

A

Where the muscles attach on individual bones and what types of joints are involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do the bones, muscles, and joints together form?

A

The musculoskeletal system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the branch of medical science concerned with the prevention or correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system called?

A

Orthopedics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many named bones does the adult human skeleton consist of?

A

206 named bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why do the skeletons of infants and children have more than 206 bones?

A

Because some of their bones fuse later in life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are examples of bones that fuse later in life?

A

The hip bones and some bones (sacrum and coccyx) of the vertebral column (backbone).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two principal divisions of the adult skeleton?

A

The axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many bones are in the axial skeleton?

A

80 bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can you remember the names of the divisions of the skeleton?

A

By thinking of the axial skeleton as consisting of the bones that lie around the axis of the human body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the bones of the axial skeleton?

A

Skull bones, auditory ossicles (ear bones), hyoid bone, ribs, sternum (breastbone), and bones of the vertebral column.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

A

The bones of the upper and lower limbs (extremities or appendages), plus the bones forming the girdles that connect the limbs to the axial skeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the functional role of the auditory ossicles in the middle ear?

A

They vibrate in response to sound waves that strike the eardrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why are the auditory ossicles grouped with the axial skeleton?

A

For convenience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is the study of the skeletal system organized?

A

Around the two divisions of the skeleton, with emphasis on how the many bones of the body are interrelated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The adult human skeleton consists of 206 bones grouped into two divisions:

A

axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The ___ of bones largely determine their functions.

A

shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Into how many main types can almost all bones of the body be classified based on shape?

A

Five main types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the five main types of bones based on shape?

A

Long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do long bones have greater than width?

A

Length.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do long bones consist of?

A

A diaphysis (body) and a variable number of extremities or epiphyses (ends).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why are long bones slightly curved?

A

For strength.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does a curved bone do to the strain of the body’s weight?

A

Absorbs it at several different points, so that it is evenly distributed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What would happen if bones were straight?

A

The weight of the body would be unevenly distributed, and the bone would fracture more easily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do long bones mostly consist of in their diaphyses?

A

Compact bone tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do long bones have considerable amounts of in their epiphyses?

A

Spongy bone tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are examples of long bones?

A

Femur (thigh bone), tibia and fibula (leg bones), humerus (arm bone), ulna and radius (forearm bones), and phalanges (finger and toe bones).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What shape are short bones?

A

Somewhat cube-shaped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How do the length and width of short bones compare?

A

They are nearly equal in length and width.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What do short bones mostly consist of?

A

Spongy bone tissue, except at the surface, which has a thin layer of compact bone tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

Most carpal (wrist) bones and most tarsal (ankle) bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How are flat bones generally shaped?

A

Thin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are flat bones composed of?

A

Two nearly parallel plates of compact bone tissue enclosing a layer of spongy bone tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What do flat bones provide?

A

Considerable protection and extensive areas for muscle attachment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

Cranial cavity bones (which protect the brain), sternum, and ribs (which protect organs in the thorax).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What kind of shapes do irregular bones have?

A

Complex shapes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why can irregular bones not be grouped into other categories?

A

Because of their complex shapes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What do irregular bones vary in?

A

The amount of spongy and compact bone present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are examples of irregular bones?

A

Vertebrae (backbones), hip bones, certain facial bones, and the calcaneus (heel bone).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are sesamoid bones shaped like?

A

A sesame seed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where do sesamoid bones develop?

A

In certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension, and physical strain, such as the palms and soles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Do sesamoid bones vary in number from person to person?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Are sesamoid bones always completely ossified?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How large are sesamoid bones typically?

A

Only a few millimeters in diameter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the notable exceptions among sesamoid bones?

A

The two patellae (kneecaps).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Where are the patellae located?

A

In the quadriceps femoris tendon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Are patellae normally present in everyone?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the function of sesamoid bones?

A

To protect tendons from excessive wear and tear and often change the direction of pull of a tendon, improving mechanical advantage at a joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What additional type of bone is classified by location rather than shape?

A

Sutural bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where are sutural bones located?

A

In sutures (joints) between certain cranial cavity bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Does the number of sutural bones vary from person to person?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What do bones have?

A

Characteristic surface markings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are characteristic surface markings?

A

Structural features adapted for specific functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Are most surface markings present at birth?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When do most surface markings develop?

A

In response to certain forces and are most prominent in the adult skeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What happens in response to tension on a bone surface from tendons, ligaments, aponeuroses, and fasciae?

A

New bone is deposited, resulting in raised or roughened areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What happens in response to compression on a bone surface?

A

A depression results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How many major types of surface markings are there?

A

Two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the two major types of surface markings?

A

Depressions and openings, and processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the function of depressions and openings?

A

They allow the passage of soft tissues (such as blood vessels, nerves, ligaments, and tendons) or form joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are processes?

A

Projections or outgrowths that either help form joints or serve as attachment points for connective tissue (such as ligaments and tendons).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Sites allowing the passage of soft tissue (nerves, blood vessels, ligaments, tendons) or formation of joints

A

depressions and openings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

projections or outgrowths on bone that form joints or attachment points for connective tissue, such as ligaments and tendons

A

processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

processes that form joints

A

condyle, facet, and head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

processes that form attachment points for connective tissue

A

crest, epicondyle, line, spinous process, trochanter, tubercle, and tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Narrow slit between adjacent parts of bones through which blood vessels or nerves pass.

A

Fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Example of fissure

A

Superior orbital fissure of sphenoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Opening through which blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments pass.

A

Foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Example of Foramen

A

Optic canal of sphenoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Shallow depression.

A

Fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Example of Fossa

A

Coronoid fossa of humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Furrow along bone surface that accommodates blood vessel, nerve, or tendon.

A

Sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Example of Sulcus

A

Intertubercular sulcus of humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Tubelike opening.

A

Meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Example of Meatus

A

External acoustic meatus of temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Large, round protuberance with a smooth articular surface at end of bone.

A

Condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Example of Condyle

A

Lateral condyle of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Smooth, flat, slightly concave or convex articular surface.

A

Facet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Example of Facet

A

Superior articular facet of vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Usually rounded articular projection supported on neck (constricted portion) of bone.

A

Head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Example of Head

A

Head of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Prominent ridge or elongated projection.

A

Crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Example of crest

A

Iliac crest of hip bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Typically roughened projection above condyle

A

Epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Example of epicondyle

A

Medial epicondyle of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Long, narrow ridge or border (less prominent than crest).

A

Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Example of line

A

Linea aspera of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Sharp, slender projection.

A

Spinous process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Example of spinous process

A

Spinous process of vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Very large projection.

A

Trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Example of trochanter

A

Greater trochanter of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Variably-sized rounded projection.

A

Tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Example of tubercle

A

Greater tubercle of humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Variably-sized projection that has a rough, bumpy surface.

A

Tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Example of tuberosity

A

Ischial tuberosity of hip bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the skull?

A

The bony framework of the head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How many bones does the skull contain (excluding the middle ear bones)?

A

22 bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Where does the skull rest?

A

On the superior end of the vertebral column (backbone).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How are the bones of the skull grouped?

A

Into two parts: cranial cavity bones and facial bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What do cranial cavity bones form?

A

The cranial cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the floor of the cranial cavity called?

A

The cranial base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How many bones form the cranial cavity?

A

8 bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the 8 bones that form the cranial cavity?

A

Frontal bone, two parietal bones, two temporal bones, occipital bone, sphenoid bone, and ethmoid bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What do facial bones form?

A

The anterior part of the skull.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What structures do facial bones surround?

A

The mouth (upper and lower jaw), nose, nasal cavity, and most of the orbits (eye sockets).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How many facial bones are there?

A

14 facial bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the 14 facial bones?

A

Two nasal bones, two maxillae, two zygomatic bones, mandible, two lacrimal bones, two palatine bones, two inferior nasal concha bones, and vomer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Besides the large cranial cavity, what other cavities does the skull contain?

A

The nasal cavity and orbits (eye sockets).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are paranasal sinuses?

A

Cavities in certain skull bones that are lined with mucous membranes and open into the nasal cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Where are the small middle-ear cavities located?

A

In the temporal bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What structures do the small middle-ear cavities house?

A

The structures involved in hearing and equilibrium (balance).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Other than the auditory ossicles, which is the only movable bone of the skull?

A

The mandible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are sutures?

A

Joints that attach most of the skull bones together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Where are sutures especially noticeable?

A

On the outer surface of the skull.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are foramina?

A

Rounded passageways in the skull through which blood vessels and nerves pass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are fissures?

A

Slitlike openings in the skull through which blood vessels and nerves pass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Besides protecting the brain, what else do the cranial cavity bones do?

A

They stabilize the positions of the brain, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves through the attachment of their inner surfaces to meninges (membranes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What do the outer surfaces of cranial cavity bones provide?

A

Large areas of attachment for muscles that move various parts of the head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What else do the bones of the skull provide attachment for?

A

Some muscles that produce facial expressions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What do facial bones form?

A

The framework of the face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What do facial bones provide support for?

A

The entrances to the digestive and respiratory systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What do the cranial cavity and facial bones protect and support?

A

The delicate special sense organs for vision, taste, smell, hearing, and equilibrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What does the frontal bone form?

A

The forehead (the anterior part of the skull), the roofs of the orbits (eye sockets), and most of the anterior part of the cranial base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What unites the left and right sides of the frontal bone soon after birth?

A

The metopic suture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

When does the metopic suture usually disappear?

A

Between the ages of six and eight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the frontal squama?

A

A scalelike plate of bone that forms the forehead of the skull.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Where does the frontal squama gradually slope from?

A

The coronal suture, on the top of the skull.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What happens to the frontal squama as it moves inferiorly?

A

It angles abruptly and becomes almost vertical above the orbits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What does the frontal bone thicken to form at the superior border of the orbits?

A

The supraorbital margin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What does the frontal bone extend posteriorly to form from the supraorbital margin?

A

The roof of the orbit, which is part of the cranial base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the supraorbital foramen?

A

A hole within the supraorbital margin, slightly medial to its midpoint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the incomplete form of the supraorbital foramen called?

A

The supraorbital notch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What lies deep to the frontal squama?

A

The frontal sinuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are sinuses, or more technically, paranasal sinuses?

A

Mucous membrane–lined cavities within certain skull bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is a black eye?

A

A bruising around the eye, commonly due to an injury to the face rather than an eye injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What happens in response to trauma in a black eye?

A

Blood and other fluids accumulate in the space around the eye, causing the swelling and dark discoloration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is one cause of a black eye?

A

A blow to the sharp ridge just superior to the supraorbital margin that fractures the frontal bone, resulting in bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is another cause of a black eye?

A

A blow to the nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What surgical procedures can result in black eyes?

A

Face lift, eyelid surgery, jaw surgery, or nasal surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What do the two parietal bones form?

A

The greater portion of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What do the internal surfaces of the parietal bones contain?

A

Many protrusions and depressions that accommodate the blood vessels supplying the dura mater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is the dura mater?

A

The superficial connective tissue (meninx) covering of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

consists of cranial cavity bones and facial bones

A

Skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

is formed by the zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the temporal process of the zygomatic bone.

A

zygomatic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

The cranial cavity bones are the

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The facial bones are the

A

nasal bones, maxillae, zygomatic bones, lacrimal bones, palatine bones, inferior nasal concha bones, mandible, and vomer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What do the paired temporal bones form?

A

The inferior lateral aspects of the cranial cavity and part of the cranial base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the temporal squama?

A

The thin, flat part of the temporal bone that forms the anterior and superior part of the temple.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What does the zygomatic process articulate with?

A

The temporal process of the zygomatic (cheek) bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What forms the zygomatic arch?

A

The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the temporal process of the zygomatic bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is the mandibular fossa?

A

A socket located on the inferior posterior surface of the zygomatic process of each temporal bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is located anterior to the mandibular fossa?

A

The articular tubercle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What do the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle articulate with?

A

The mandible (lower jawbone) to form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Where is the mastoid portion of the temporal bone located?

A

Posterior and inferior to the external acoustic meatus (ear canal).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What does the external acoustic meatus do?

A

Directs sound waves into the ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What are mastoid air cells?

A

Tiny air-filled compartments within the mastoid portion that communicate with the middle ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What can happen if a middle ear infection spreads into the mastoid air cells?

A

It can cause a painful inflammation called mastoiditis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is the mastoid process?

A

A rounded projection of the mastoid portion of the temporal bone posterior and inferior to the external acoustic meatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What is the mastoid process a point of attachment for?

A

Several neck muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What is the internal acoustic meatus?

A

The opening through which the facial (VII) nerve and vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve pass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is the styloid process?

A

A projection that extends inferiorly from the inferior surface of the temporal bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What does the styloid process serve as?

A

A point of attachment for muscles and ligaments of the tongue and neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Where is the stylomastoid foramen located?

A

Between the styloid process and the mastoid process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What passes through the stylomastoid foramen?

A

The facial (VII) nerve and stylomastoid blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Where is the petrous portion of the temporal bone located?

A

At the base of the skull between the sphenoid and occipital bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What does the petrous portion house?

A

The internal ear and middle ear, structures involved in hearing and equilibrium (balance).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What passes through the carotid canal?

A

The carotid artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Where is the jugular foramen located?

A

Posterior to the carotid canal and anterior to the occipital bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What passes through the jugular foramen?

A

The jugular vein and three cranial nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

forms most of the posterior and inferior portions of the cranial cavity.

A

occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What does the occipital bone form?

A

The posterior part of the cranial cavity and most of the cranial base.

184
Q

Where is the foramen magnum located?

A

In the inferior part of the occipital bone.

185
Q

What passes through the foramen magnum?

A

The medulla oblongata, vertebral and spinal arteries, and the accessory (XI) nerve.

186
Q

What are the occipital condyles?

A

Oval processes with convex surfaces on either side of the foramen magnum.

187
Q

What do the occipital condyles articulate with?

A

Depressions on the first cervical vertebra (atlas) to form the atlanto-occipital joint.

188
Q

What movement does the atlanto-occipital joint allow?

A

Nodding the head “yes.”

189
Q

Where is the hypoglossal canal located?

A

Superior to each occipital condyle on the inferior surface of the skull.

190
Q

What is the external occipital protuberance?

A

The most prominent midline projection on the posterior surface of the occipital bone just above the foramen magnum.

191
Q

Where can you feel the external occipital protuberance?

A

As a bump on the back of your head, just above your neck.

192
Q

What is the ligamentum nuchae?

A

A large fibrous, elastic ligament that extends from the external occipital protuberance to the seventh cervical vertebra.

193
Q

What is the function of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

To help support the head.

194
Q

What extends laterally from the external occipital protuberance?

A

Two curved ridges called the superior nuchal lines.

195
Q

What is located below the superior nuchal lines?

A

Two inferior nuchal lines.

196
Q

What is the function of the superior and inferior nuchal lines?

A

They serve as areas of muscle attachment.

197
Q

articulate with the first cervical vertebra to form the atlanto-occipital joint.

A

occipital condyles of the occipital bone

198
Q

is called the keystone of the cranial base because it articulates with all other cranial base bones, holding them together.

A

sphenoid bone

199
Q

What is the sphenoid bone also called?

A

Keystone of the cranial base

200
Q

Why is the sphenoid bone called the keystone of the cranial base?

A

Because it articulates with all the other cranial cavity bones of the cranial base, holding them together.

201
Q

With which bones does the sphenoid bone join anteriorly?

A

Frontal and ethmoid bones

202
Q

With which bones does the sphenoid bone join laterally?

A

Temporal bones

203
Q

With which bone does the sphenoid bone join posteriorly?

A

Occipital bone

204
Q

Where does the sphenoid bone lie in relation to the nasal cavity?

A

Posterior and slightly superior

205
Q

What parts of the orbit does the sphenoid bone form?

A

Part of the floor, side walls, and rear wall

206
Q

What shape does the sphenoid bone resemble?

A

A butterfly with outstretched wings

207
Q

What is the hollowed cubelike medial portion of the sphenoid bone called?

A

Body of the sphenoid

208
Q

Between which bones is the body of the sphenoid located?

A

Ethmoid and occipital bones

209
Q

What is the space inside the body of the sphenoid called?

A

Sphenoidal sinus

210
Q

Where does the sphenoidal sinus drain into?

A

Nasal cavity

211
Q

What is the sella turcica?

A

A bony saddle-shaped structure on the superior surface of the body of the sphenoid

212
Q

What is the anterior part of the sella turcica called?

A

Tuberculum sellae

213
Q

What is the seat of the saddle in the sella turcica?

A

Hypophyseal fossa

214
Q

What does the hypophyseal fossa contain?

A

Pituitary gland

215
Q

What is the posterior part of the sella turcica called?

A

Dorsum sellae

216
Q

What projects laterally from the body of the sphenoid?

A

Greater wings

217
Q

What do the greater wings form?

A

Anterolateral cranial base, part of the lateral wall of the cranial cavity, and orbit just anterior to the temporal bone

218
Q

Where can the greater wings be viewed?

A

Externally

219
Q

What forms a ridge of bone anterior and superior to the greater wings?

A

Lesser wings

220
Q

What do the lesser wings form?

A

Part of the cranial base and the posterior part of the orbit of the eye

221
Q

What is located between the body and lesser wing, just anterior to the sella turcica?

A

Optic canal (foramen)

222
Q

What passes through the optic canal?

A

Optic (II) nerve and ophthalmic blood vessels

223
Q

What is the triangular slit lateral to the body between the greater and lesser wings?

A

Superior orbital fissure

224
Q

What passes through the superior orbital fissure?

A

Blood vessels and cranial nerves

225
Q

What projects inferiorly from the points where the body and greater wings of the sphenoid unite?

A

Pterygoid processes

226
Q

What do the pterygoid processes form?

A

Lateral posterior region of the nasal cavity

227
Q

What attaches to the pterygoid processes?

A

Some muscles that move the mandible

228
Q

What is located at the base of the lateral pterygoid process in the greater wing?

A

Foramen ovale

229
Q

What does the foramen lacerum transmit?

A

A branch of the ascending pharyngeal artery

230
Q

What bones bound the foramen lacerum anteriorly?

A

Sphenoid bone

231
Q

What bones bound the foramen lacerum medially?

A

Sphenoid and occipital bones

232
Q

What foramen is located at the junction of the anterior and medial parts of the sphenoid bone?

A

Foramen rotundum

233
Q

What passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

Maxillary division of the trigeminal (V) nerve

234
Q

forms part of the anterior portion of the cranial base, the medial wall of the orbits, the superior portions of the nasal septum, and most of the side walls of the nasal cavity.

A

ethmoid bone

235
Q

What is the ethmoid bone?

A

A delicate bone located in the anterior part of the cranial base medial to the orbits and is spongelike in appearance

236
Q

Where is the ethmoid bone located?

A

In the anterior part of the cranial base medial to the orbits

237
Q

What is the appearance of the ethmoid bone?

A

Spongelike

238
Q

What bones are anterior and posterior to the ethmoid bone?

A

Anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones

239
Q

What does the ethmoid bone form?

A

Part of the anterior portion of the cranial base, the medial wall of the orbits, the superior portion of the nasal septum, and most of the superior sidewalls of the nasal cavity

240
Q

What is the major superior supporting structure of the nasal cavity?

A

Ethmoid bone

241
Q

What does the ethmoid bone form in the nasal cavity?

A

An extensive surface area

242
Q

Into what portions is the ethmoid bone divided?

A

A horizontal portion (cribriform plate), a median perpendicular plate, and two lateral portions (ethmoidal labyrinths)

243
Q

What is the cribriform plate?

A

A horizontal portion of the ethmoid bone that forms part of the cranial base

244
Q

What does the cribriform plate form?

A

The roof of the nasal cavity

245
Q

What does the cribriform plate contain?

A

Cribriform foramina

246
Q

What passes through the cribriform foramina?

A

Olfactory (I) nerves

247
Q

What is the triangular process projecting superiorly from the cribriform plate?

A

Crista galli

248
Q

What is the function of the crista galli?

A

It serves as a point of attachment for the falx cerebri

249
Q

What is the falx cerebri?

A

The membrane that separates the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain

250
Q

What does the median perpendicular plate form?

A

The superior portion of the nasal septum

251
Q

What are the ethmoidal labyrinths?

A

Two lateral masses on either side of the perpendicular plate

252
Q

What do the ethmoidal labyrinths compose?

A

Most of the wall between the nasal cavity and orbits

253
Q

What do the ethmoidal labyrinths contain?

A

3–18 air sinus spaces called ethmoidal cells

254
Q

What are the lateral surfaces of the ethmoidal labyrinths called?

A

Orbital plates

255
Q

What do the orbital plates help form?

A

The medial walls of the orbits

256
Q

What are the two thin, scroll-shaped projections lateral to the nasal septum called?

A

Superior nasal concha and middle nasal concha

257
Q

What is the plural form of concha?

A

Nasal conchae

258
Q

What is the third pair of conchae that are separate bones called?

A

Inferior nasal conchae

259
Q

What do the conchae increase in the nasal cavity?

A

The vascular and mucous membrane surface area

260
Q

What is the function of the conchae?

A

To warm and moisten (humidify) inhaled air before it passes into the lungs

261
Q

What does the swirling effect of the conchae do?

A

Traps many inhaled particles in the mucus that lines the nasal cavity

262
Q

What is the function of the conchae in relation to inhaled air?

A

They help cleanse inhaled air before it passes into the respiratory passageways

263
Q

Where are the superior nasal conchae located?

A

Near the cribriform foramina of the cribriform plate

264
Q

Where do the sensory receptors for olfaction terminate?

A

In the mucous membrane of the superior nasal conchae

265
Q

What is the function of the superior nasal conchae in relation to smell?

A

They increase the surface area for the sense of smell

266
Q

When does the shape of the face change dramatically?

A

During the first two years after birth

267
Q

What expands during the first two years after birth?

A

The brain and skull bones

268
Q

What forms and erupts during the first two years after birth?

A

The first set of teeth

269
Q

What increases in size during the first two years after birth?

A

The paranasal sinuses

270
Q

When does the growth of the face cease?

A

At about 16 years of age

271
Q

How many facial bones are there?

272
Q

What are the 14 facial bones?

A

Two nasal bones, two maxillae (or maxillas), two zygomatic bones, the mandible, two lacrimal bones, two palatine bones, two inferior nasal concha bones, and the vomer

273
Q

What shape are the paired nasal bones?

A

Small, flattened, rectangular-shaped

274
Q

What do the paired nasal bones form?

A

The bridge of the nose

275
Q

What do the small nasal bones protect?

A

The upper entry to the nasal cavity

276
Q

What do the paired nasal bones provide attachment for?

A

A couple of thin muscles of facial expression

277
Q

What bones form the resting place for the bridge of glasses?

A

Nasal bones

278
Q

What does the major structural portion of the nose consist of?

279
Q

What are the paired lacrimal bones?

A

Thin and roughly resemble a fingernail in size and shape

280
Q

What are the smallest facial bones?

A

Lacrimal bones

281
Q

Where are the lacrimal bones located?

A

Posterior and lateral to the nasal bones

282
Q

What part of the orbit do the lacrimal bones form?

A

Part of the medial wall of each orbit

283
Q

What does each lacrimal bone contain?

A

A lacrimal fossa

284
Q

What is the lacrimal fossa?

A

A vertical tunnel formed with the maxilla

285
Q

What does the lacrimal fossa house?

A

The lacrimal sac

286
Q

What is the function of the lacrimal sac?

A

To gather tears and pass them into the nasal cavity

287
Q

What do the two L-shaped palatine bones form?

A

The posterior portion of the hard palate, part of the floor and posterolateral wall of the nasal cavity, and a small portion of the floors of the orbits

288
Q

What forms the posterior portion of the hard palate?

A

The horizontal plates of the palatine bones

289
Q

What are the two inferior nasal concha bones also called?

A

Turbinates

290
Q

Where are the inferior nasal concha bones located?

A

Inferior to the middle nasal conchae of the ethmoid bone

291
Q

Are the inferior nasal concha bones part of the ethmoid bone?

A

No, they are separate bones

292
Q

What do the scroll-like inferior nasal concha bones form?

A

A part of the inferior lateral wall of the nasal cavity

293
Q

Where do the inferior nasal concha bones project?

A

Into the nasal cavity

294
Q

What do all three pairs of nasal conchae increase?

A

The surface area of the nasal cavity

295
Q

What do all three pairs of nasal conchae help do?

A

Swirl and filter air before it passes into the lungs

296
Q

Which nasal conchae are covered by the olfactory epithelium and involved in the sense of smell?

A

Superior nasal conchae of the ethmoid bone

297
Q

When do the palatine processes of the maxillary bones usually unite during embryonic development?

A

During weeks 10 to 12

298
Q

What can result from the failure of the palatine processes of the maxillary bones to unite?

A

One type of cleft palate

299
Q

What may also involve incomplete fusion of the horizontal plates of the palatine bones?

A

Cleft palate

300
Q

What is another form of this condition that involves a split in the upper lip?

301
Q

What conditions often occur together?

A

Cleft lip and cleft palate

302
Q

What may be affected depending on the extent and position of the cleft?

A

Speech and swallowing

303
Q

What do children with cleft palate tend to have?

A

Many ear infections

304
Q

What can frequent ear infections in children with cleft palate lead to?

A

Hearing loss

305
Q

When do facial and oral surgeons recommend closure of cleft lip?

A

During the first few weeks following birth

306
Q

How are the surgical results for cleft lip repair?

307
Q

When is the repair of cleft palate typically completed?

A

Between 12 and 18 months of age

308
Q

Why is cleft palate ideally repaired before the child begins to talk?

A

Because the palate is important for pronouncing consonants

309
Q

What therapy may be required after cleft palate repair?

A

Speech therapy

310
Q

What therapy may be needed to align the teeth?

A

Orthodontic therapy

311
Q

What has recent research strongly suggested decreases the incidence of cleft palate and cleft lip?

A

Supplementation with folic acid

312
Q

What is folic acid?

A

One of the B vitamins

313
Q

Is the mechanism behind folic acid’s effect on cleft palate and cleft lip understood?

A

No, it is not yet understood

314
Q

What is the vomer?

A

A roughly triangular bone

315
Q

What does the vomer form?

A

The inferior part of the nasal septum

316
Q

With what does the vomer articulate superiorly?

A

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone

317
Q

With what does the vomer articulate inferiorly?

A

Both the maxillae and palatine bones along the midline

318
Q

What do the paired maxillae unite to form?

A

The upper jawbone

319
Q

With which facial bone do the maxillae not articulate?

A

The mandible (lower jawbone)

320
Q

What parts of the skull do the maxillae form?

A

Part of the floors of the orbits, part of the lateral walls and floor of the nasal cavity, and most of the hard palate

321
Q

What is the hard palate?

A

The bony roof of the mouth

322
Q

What forms the hard palate?

A

The palatine processes of the maxillae and horizontal plates of the palatine bones

323
Q

What does the hard palate separate?

A

The nasal cavity from the oral cavity

324
Q

What does each maxilla contain?

A

A large maxillary sinus

325
Q

Where does the maxillary sinus empty?

A

Into the nasal cavity

326
Q

What is the alveolar process of the maxilla?

A

A ridgelike arch that contains the dental alveoli (sockets) for the maxillary (upper) teeth

327
Q

What is the palatine process of the maxilla?

A

A horizontal projection of the maxilla that forms the anterior three-quarters of the hard palate

328
Q

When is the union and fusion of the maxillary bones normally completed?

A

Before birth

329
Q

What condition results if the maxillary bones fail to fuse?

A

Cleft palate

330
Q

What is the infraorbital foramen?

A

An opening in the maxilla inferior to the orbit

331
Q

What passes through the infraorbital foramen?

A

The infraorbital blood vessels and nerve, a branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal (V) nerve

332
Q

What is the incisive foramen?

A

A foramen in the maxilla just posterior to the incisor teeth

333
Q

What does the incisive foramen transmit?

A

Branches of the greater palatine blood vessels and nasopalatine nerve

334
Q

Where is the inferior orbital fissure located?

A

Between the greater wing of the sphenoid and the maxilla

335
Q

What are the two zygomatic bones commonly called?

A

Cheekbones

336
Q

What do the zygomatic bones form?

A

The prominences of the cheeks and part of the lateral wall and floor of each orbit

337
Q

With which bones do the zygomatic bones articulate?

A

The frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, and temporal bones

338
Q

What does the temporal process of the zygomatic bone do?

A

Projects posteriorly and articulates with the zygomatic process of the temporal bone

339
Q

What is formed by the articulation of the temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone?

A

The zygomatic arch

340
Q

is the largest and strongest facial bone.

341
Q

What is the mandible also called?

A

Lower jawbone

342
Q

What is the largest, strongest facial bone?

343
Q

What is the only movable skull bone (other than the auditory ossicles)?

344
Q

What are the parts of the mandible?

A

A curved, horizontal portion (body) and two perpendicular portions (rami)

345
Q

What is the angle of the mandible?

A

The area where each ramus meets the body

346
Q

What is the posterior condylar process of the mandible?

A

A structure that articulates with the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

347
Q

What is the anterior coronoid process of the mandible?

A

A structure to which the temporalis muscle attaches

348
Q

What is the mandibular notch?

A

The depression between the coronoid and condylar processes

349
Q

What is the alveolar process of the mandible?

A

The ridgelike arch containing the dental alveoli (sockets) for the mandibular (lower) teeth

350
Q

Where is the mental foramen located?

A

Approximately inferior to the second premolar tooth

351
Q

Why do dentists inject anesthetics near the mental foramen?

A

To reach the mental nerve

352
Q

Where is the mandibular foramen located?

A

On the medial surface of each ramus

353
Q

Why do dentists inject anesthetics near the mandibular foramen?

A

It is a common site for injecting anesthetics

354
Q

What is the mandibular canal?

A

A canal that runs obliquely in the ramus and anteriorly to the body

355
Q

What passes through the mandibular canal?

A

Inferior alveolar nerves and blood vessels

356
Q

Where are the inferior alveolar nerves and blood vessels distributed?

A

To the mandibular teeth

357
Q

hat is temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dysfunction also called?

A

TMJ syndrome and TMJ disorder

358
Q

What are the symptoms of TMJ syndrome?

A

Dull pain around the ear, tenderness of the jaw muscles, a clicking or popping noise when opening or closing the mouth, limited or abnormal opening of the mouth, headache, tooth sensitivity, and abnormal wearing of the teeth

359
Q

What can cause TMJ syndrome?

A

Improperly aligned teeth, grinding or clenching the teeth, trauma to the head and neck, or arthritis

360
Q

What treatments are available for TMJ syndrome?

A

Application of moist heat or ice, limiting the diet to soft foods, administration of pain relievers such as aspirin, muscle retraining, use of a splint or bite plate to reduce clenching and teeth grinding (especially when worn at night), adjustment or reshaping of the teeth (orthodontic treatment), and surgery

361
Q

In addition to the bones of the skull, the skull also contains oth er components:

A

the nasal septum, orbits, foramina, sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

362
Q

What is the nasal cavity?

A

A space inside the skull that is divided into right and left sides by a vertical partition called the nasal septum

363
Q

What does the nasal septum consist of?

A

Bone and cartilage

364
Q

What are the three components of the nasal septum?

A

The vomer, septal nasal cartilage, and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

365
Q

What does the anterior border of the vomer articulate with?

A

The septal nasal cartilage

366
Q

What type of cartilage is the septal nasal cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage

367
Q

What does the superior border of the vomer articulate with?

A

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

368
Q

What does the articulation of the superior border of the vomer and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone form?

A

The remainder of the nasal septum

369
Q

What does the term “broken nose” usually refer to?

A

Damage to the septal nasal cartilage rather than the nasal bones themselves

370
Q

The structures that form the nasal septum are the

A

perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, the vomer, and septal nasal cartilage.

371
Q

What is a deviated nasal septum?

A

One that does not run along the midline of the nasal cavity and deviates (bends) to one side

372
Q

What can easily damage or break the nasal septum?

A

A blow to the nose

373
Q

What happens when a broken nasal septum heals?

A

The bones and cartilage deviate to one side or the other

374
Q

What can a deviated septum cause?

A

Block airflow into the constricted side of the nose, making it difficult to breathe through that half of the nasal cavity

375
Q

Where does the deviation usually occur?

A

At the junction of the vomer bone with the septal nasal cartilage

376
Q

What other cause, besides injury, can lead to a deviated septum?

A

Developmental abnormality

377
Q

What can happen if the deviation is severe?

A

It may block the nasal passageway entirely

378
Q

What can even a partial blockage lead to?

379
Q

What can occur if inflammation happens due to a deviated septum?

A

Nasal congestion, blockage of the paranasal sinus openings, chronic sinusitis, headache, and nosebleeds

380
Q

How can a deviated septum be treated?

A

It can usually be corrected or improved surgically

381
Q

How many bones of the skull join to form each orbit (eye socket)?

382
Q

What does the orbital cavity contain?

A

The eyeball and associated structures

383
Q

What are the bones of the orbit?

A

Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, palatine, zygomatic, lacrimal, and maxilla

384
Q

What shape does each orbit have?

A

Pyramid-shaped

385
Q

What bones comprise the roof of the orbit?

A

Parts of the frontal and sphenoid bones

386
Q

What bones form the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

Parts of the zygomatic and sphenoid bones

387
Q

What bones make up the floor of the orbit?

A

Parts of the maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine bones

388
Q

What bones form the medial wall of the orbit?

A

Parts of the maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones

389
Q

How many major openings are associated with each orbit?

390
Q

Where is the optic canal located?

A

At the junction of the roof and medial wall

391
Q

Where is the superior orbital fissure located?

A

At the superior lateral angle of the apex

392
Q

Where is the inferior orbital fissure located?

A

At the junction of the lateral wall and floor

393
Q

Where is the supraorbital foramen located?

A

On the medial side of the supraorbital margin of the frontal bone

394
Q

Where is the lacrimal fossa located?

A

In the lacrimal bone

395
Q

What are foramina?

A

Openings for blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments

396
Q

What is the singular form of foramina?

397
Q

Where were most of the foramina and canals of the skull mentioned?

A

In the descriptions of the cranial cavity and facial bones

398
Q

What systems of the body are important for studying foramina and canals?

A

Nervous and cardiovascular systems

399
Q

The skull exhibits several unique features not seen in other bones of the body. These include

A

sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

400
Q

is a pyramid-shaped structure that contains the eyeball and associated structures.

401
Q

What is a suture?

A

An immovable fibrous joint (in most cases in an adult skull) that holds most skull bones together

402
Q

Are sutures movable in infants and children?

A

Yes, they are often movable and function as important growth centers in the developing skull

403
Q

What do the names of many sutures reflect?

A

The bones they unite

404
Q

Where is the frontozygomatic suture located?

A

Between the frontal bone and the zygomatic bone

405
Q

Where is the sphenoparietal suture located?

A

Between the sphenoid bone and the parietal bone

406
Q

What does the coronal suture unite?

A

The frontal bone and both parietal bones

407
Q

What does the sagittal suture unite?

A

The two parietal bones on the superior midline of the skull

408
Q

Why is the sagittal suture named as such?

A

Because in the infant, before the bones of the skull are firmly united, the suture and the fontanels (soft spots) associated with it resemble an arrow

409
Q

What does the lambdoid suture unite?

A

The two parietal bones to the occipital bone

410
Q

Why is the lambdoid suture named as such?

A

Because of its resemblance to the capital Greek letter lambda (Λ)

411
Q

Where may sutural bones occur?

A

Within the sagittal and lambdoid sutures

412
Q

What do the two squamous sutures unite?

A

The parietal and temporal bones on the lateral aspects of the skull

413
Q

Why is the squamous suture named as such?

A

Because “squam-“ means flat, like the flat overlapping scales of a snake

414
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses?

A

Cavities within certain skull bones near the nasal cavity

415
Q

Where are the paranasal sinuses most evident?

A

In a sagittal section of the skull

416
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses lined with?

A

Mucous membranes that are continuous with the lining of the nasal cavity

417
Q

Where do secretions produced by the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses drain?

A

Into the lateral wall of the nasal cavity

418
Q

Are paranasal sinuses present at birth?

A

They are quite small or absent at birth

419
Q

When do the paranasal sinuses increase in size?

A

During the eruption of the teeth and at the onset of puberty

420
Q

How do the paranasal sinuses arise?

A

As outgrowths of the nasal mucosa that project into the surrounding bones

421
Q

are mucous membrane–lined spaces in the frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary bones that connect to the nasal cavity.

A

Paranasal sinuses

422
Q

Which skull bones contain the paranasal sinuses?

A

The frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillae

423
Q

How do the paranasal sinuses affect skull size?

A

They allow the skull to increase in size without a change in the mass (weight) of the bone

424
Q

How do the paranasal sinuses affect nasal mucosa?

A

They increase the surface area of the nasal mucosa, thus increasing the production of mucus to help moisten and cleanse inhaled air

425
Q

How do the paranasal sinuses affect sound?

A

They serve as resonating (echo) chambers within the skull that intensify and prolong sounds, enhancing the quality of the voice

426
Q

How does a cold affect the paranasal sinuses?

A

The passageways through which sound travels into and out of the paranasal sinuses become blocked by excess mucus production, changing the quality of the voice

427
Q

Where is the carotid canal located?

A

Petrous portion of temporal bone

428
Q

What structures pass through the carotid canal?

A

Internal carotid artery, sympathetic nerves for eyes

429
Q

Where is the hypoglossal canal located?

A

Superior to base of occipital condyles

430
Q

What structures pass through the hypoglossal canal?

A

Hypoglossal (XII) nerve, branch of ascending pharyngeal blood vessel

431
Q

Where is the infraorbital foramen located?

A

Inferior to orbit in maxilla

432
Q

What structures pass through the infraorbital foramen?

A

Infraorbital nerve and blood vessels, branch of maxillary branch of trigeminal (V) nerve

433
Q

Where is the jugular foramen located?

A

Posterior to carotid canal between petrous portion of temporal bone and occipital bone

434
Q

What structures pass through the jugular foramen?

A

Internal jugular vein; glossopharyngeal (IX), vagus (X), and accessory (XI) nerves

435
Q

Where is the foramen lacerum located?

A

Bounded anteriorly by sphenoid bone, posteriorly by petrous portion of temporal bone, medially by sphenoid and occipital bones

436
Q

What structure passes through the foramen lacerum?

A

Branch of ascending pharyngeal artery

437
Q

Where is the foramen magnum located?

A

Occipital bone

438
Q

What structures pass through the foramen magnum?

A

Medulla oblongata and its membranes (meninges), accessory (XI) nerve, vertebral and spinal arteries

439
Q

Where is the mandibular foramen located?

A

Medial surface of ramus of mandible

440
Q

What structures pass through the mandibular foramen?

A

Inferior alveolar nerve and blood vessels

441
Q

Where is the mastoid foramen located?

A

Posterior border of mastoid process of temporal bone

442
Q

What structures pass through the mastoid foramen?

A

Emissary vein to transverse sinus, branch of occipital artery to dura mater

443
Q

Where is the mental foramen located?

A

Inferior to second premolar tooth in mandible

444
Q

What structures pass through the mental foramen?

A

Mental nerve and vessels

445
Q

Where is the cribriform foramen located?

A

Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone

446
Q

What structure passes through the cribriform foramen?

A

Olfactory (I) nerve

447
Q

Where is the optic canal located?

A

Between superior and inferior portions of small wing of sphenoid bone

448
Q

What structures pass through the optic canal?

A

Optic (II) nerve, ophthalmic blood vessels

449
Q

Where is the foramen ovale located?

A

Greater wing of sphenoid bone

450
Q

What structure passes through the foramen ovale?

A

Mandibular division of trigeminal (V) nerve

451
Q

Where is the foramen rotundum located?

A

Junction of anterior and medial parts of sphenoid bone

452
Q

What structure passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

Maxillary division of trigeminal (V) nerve

453
Q

Where is the stylomastoid foramen located?

A

Between styloid and mastoid processes of temporal bone

454
Q

What structures pass through the stylomastoid foramen?

A

Facial (VII) nerve, stylomastoid blood vessels

455
Q

Where is the supraorbital foramen located?

A

Supraorbital margin of orbit in frontal bone

456
Q

What structures pass through the supraorbital foramen?

A

Supraorbital nerve and blood vessels