L3: Cells Flashcards

1
Q

The basic, living, structural, and functional units of the body.

A

Cells

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2
Q

The scientific study of cells

A

cell biology or cytology

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3
Q

Forms the cell’s flexible outer surface, separating the cell’s internal environment (everything inside the cell) from the external environment (everything outside the cell)

A

plasma membrane (plasmalemma)

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4
Q

It is a selective barrier that regulates the flow of materials into and out of a cell.

A

plasma membrane (plasmalemma)

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5
Q

It consists of all the cellular contents between the plasma membrane and the nucleus.

A

cytoplasm

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6
Q

The fluid portion of cytoplasm, also called intracellular fluid, contains water, dissolved solutes, and suspended particles.

A

Cytosol

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7
Q

Within the cytosol are several different types of? (little organs)

A

organelles

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8
Q

A large organelle that houses most of a cell’s DNA

A

nucleus

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9
Q

Within the nucleus, each ______, a single molecule of DNA associated with several proteins contains thousands of hereditary units called ____ that control most aspects of cellular structure and function.

A

chromosome, genes

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10
Q

The plasma membrane, a flexible yet sturdy barrier that surrounds and contains the cytoplasm of a cell, is best described by using a structural model called the ______.

A

fluid mosaic model

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11
Q

According to this model, the molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane resembles a continually moving sea of fluid lipids that contains a mosaic of many different proteins

A

fluid mosaic model

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12
Q

The basic structural framework of the plasma membrane is the _______, two back-to-back layers made up of three types of lipid molecules—________, ________, and ______.

A

Lipid bilayer; phospholipids, cholesterol, and glycolipids

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13
Q

About 75% of the membrane lipids are ______, lipids that contain phosphorus.

A

phospholipids

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14
Q

Present in smaller amounts are ______ (about 20%), a steroid with an attached ⏤OH (hydroxyl) group,

A

cholesterol

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15
Q

(about 5%), lipids with attached carbohydrate groups

A

glycolipids

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16
Q

The bilayer arrangement occurs because the lipids are _______ molecules, which means that they have both polar and nonpolar parts.

A

amphiphatic

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17
Q

the polar part is the phosphate-containing “head,” which is _____; water-loving

A

hydrophilic

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18
Q

The nonpolar parts are the two long fatty acid “tails,” which are _____ hydrocarbon chains; water fearing

A

hydrophobic

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19
Q

T or F: Membranes are fluid structures because the lipids and many of the proteins are free to rotate and move sideways in their own half of the bilayer.

A

t

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20
Q

What are the functions of the plasma membrane?

A
  1. Acts as a barrier separating inside and outside of the cell.
  2. Controls the flow of substances into and out of the cell.
  3. Helps identify the cell to other cells (e.g.,
    immune cells).
  4. Participates in intercellular signaling.
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21
Q

T or F: Membrane proteins are classified as integral or peripheral according to whether they are firmly embedded in the membrane.

A

t

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22
Q

Proteins that extend into or through the lipid bilayer and are firmly embedded in it.

A

Integral proteins

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23
Q

Most integral proteins are ______, which means that they span the entire lipid bilayer and protrude into both the cytosol and extracellular fluid.

A

transmembrane proteins

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24
Q

Proteins that are not as firmly embedded in the membrane. They are attached to the polar heads of membrane lipids or to integral proteins at the inner or outer surface of the membrane.

A

Peripheral proteins

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25
Q

Many integral proteins are_____, proteins with carbohydrate groups attached to the ends that protrude into the extracellular fluid.

A

glycoproteins

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26
Q

The carbohydrates are ____, chains of 2 to 60 monosaccharides that may be straight or branched.

A

oligosaccharides (oligo- = few; -saccharides = sugars)

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27
Q

The carbohydrate portions of glycolipids and glycoproteins form an extensive sugary coat called the

A

glycocalyx

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28
Q

The ____ acts like a molecular “signature” that enables cells to recognize one another.

A

glycocalyx

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29
Q

Some integral proteins form _____, pores or holes that specific ions, such as potassium ions (K+), can flow through to get into or out of the cell.

A

ion channels

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30
Q

Other integral proteins act as ____, selectively moving a polar substance or ion from one side of the membrane to the other. Carriers are also known as _____.

A

carriers; transporters

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31
Q

Integral proteins called ______ serve as cellular recognition sites. Each type of this recognizes and binds a specific type of molecule.

A

receptors

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32
Q

A specific molecule that binds to a receptor is called a ____ of that receptor.

A

ligand

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33
Q

Integral proteins may also serve as _____ that anchor proteins in the plasma membranes of neighboring cells to one another or to protein filaments inside and outside the cell. Peripheral proteins also serve as enzymes and linkers.

A

linkers

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34
Q

Membrane glycoproteins and glycolipids often serve as ______. They may enable a cell to (1) recognize other cells of the same kind during tissue formation or (2) recognize and respond to potentially dangerous foreign cells.

A

cell-identity markers

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35
Q

Forms a pore through which a specific ion can flow to get across membrane. Most plasma membranes include specific channels for several common ions.

A

Ion channel (integral)

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36
Q

Transports a specific substance across membrane by undergoing a change in shape. For example, amino acids, needed to synthesize new proteins, enter body cells via carriers.

A

Carrier

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37
Q

Carrier proteins are also known as _____.

A

Transporters

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38
Q

Recognizes specific ligand and alters cell’s function insome way. For example, antidiuretic hormone binds to receptors in the kidneys and changes the water permeability of certain plasma membranes.

A

Receptor (integral)

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39
Q

Catalyzes reaction inside or outside cell (depending on which direction the active site faces). For example, lactase protruding from epithelial cells lining your small intestine splits the disaccharide lactose in the milk you drink

A

Enzyme (integral & peripheral)

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40
Q

Anchors filaments inside and outside the plasma membrane, providing structural stability and shape for the cell. May also participate in movement of the cell or link two cells together.

A

Linker (integral and peripheral)

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41
Q

Distinguishes your cells from anyone else’s (unless you are an identical twin). An important class of such markers is the major histocompatibility (MHC) proteins.

A

Cell identity marker

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42
Q

The term ______ means that a structure permits the passage of substances through it, while _____ means that a structure does not permit the passage of substances through it.

A

permeable; impermeable

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43
Q

The permeability of the plasma membrane to different substances varies. Plasma membranes permit some substances to pass more readily than others. This property of membranes is termed _________.

A

selective permeability

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44
Q

A difference in the concentration of a chemical from one place to another, such as from the inside to the outside of the plasma membrane.

A

Concentration gradient

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45
Q

A difference in electrical charges between two regions constitutes an ______. Because it occurs across the plasma membrane, this charge difference is termed the ______.

A

electrical gradient; membrane potential

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46
Q

The combined influence of the concentration gradient and the electrical gradient on movement of a particular ion is referred to as its _____.

A

electrochemical gradient

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47
Q

Substances generally move across cellular membranes via transport processes that can be classified as ____ or ____, depending on whether they require cellular energy.

A

passive or active

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48
Q

A substance moves down its concentration or electrical gradient to cross the membrane using only its own kinetic energy (energy of motion).

A

Passive processes

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49
Q

Cellular energy is used to drive the substance “uphill” against its concentration or electrical gradient.

A

Active processes

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50
Q

The cellular energy used is usually in the form of

A

ATP

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51
Q

A passive process in which the random mixing of particles in a solution occurs because of the particles’ kinetic energy.

A
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52
Q

T or F: If a particular solute is present in high concentration in one area of a solution and in low concentration in another area, solute molecules will diffuse toward the area of lower concentration—they move down their concentration gradient.

A

t

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53
Q

The greater the difference in concentration between the two sides of the membrane, the higher the rate of diffusion. When charged particles are diffusing, the steepness of the electrochemical gradient determines the diffusion rate across the membrane.

A

Steepness of the concentration gradient.

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54
Q

The higher the _____, the faster the rate of diffusion. All of the body’s diffusion processes occur more rapidly in a person with a fever

A

temperature

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55
Q

The larger the mass of the diffusing particle, the slower its diffusion rate. Smaller molecules diffuse more rapidly than larger ones.

A

Mass of the diffusing substance

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56
Q

The larger the membrane surface area available for diffusion, the faster the diffusion rate.

A

Surface area

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57
Q

The greater the distance over which diffusion must occur, the longer it takes.

A

Diffusion distance

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58
Q

A passive process in which substances move freely through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membranes of cells without the help of membrane transport proteins

A

Simple diffusion

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59
Q

Nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules move across the lipid bilayer through the process of

A

Simple diffusion

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60
Q

Solutes that are too polar or highly charged to move through the lipid bilayer by simple diffusion can cross the plasma membrane by a passive process called

A

Facilitated diffusion

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61
Q

In this process, an integral membrane protein assists a specific substance across the membrane. The integral membrane proteins can either form a channel or function as a carrier.

A

Facilitated diffusion

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62
Q

Small, uncharged polar molecules such as water, urea, and small alcohols also pass through the lipid bilayer by

A

Simple diffusion

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63
Q

A solute moves down its concentration gradient across the lipid bilayer through a membrane channel

A

Channel-Mediated Facilitated Diffusion

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64
Q

A substance moves across the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane without the help of membrane transport proteins.

A

Simple diffusion

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65
Q

A substance moves across the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane without the help of membrane transport proteins.

A

Facilitated diffusion

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66
Q

Are integral membrane proteins that allow specific, small, inorganic ions to pass across the membrane by facilitated diffusion.

A

Channels

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67
Q

A carrier (also called a transporter) moves a solute down its concentration gradient across the plasma membrane

A

carriermediated facilitated diffusion

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68
Q

The number of carriers available in a plasma membrane places an upper limit, called the _______, on the rate at which facilitated diffusion can occur.

A

transport maximum

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69
Q

The body’s preferred energy source for making ATP, enters many body cells by carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion

A

Glucose

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70
Q

An inability to produce or utilize insulin

A

diabetes mellitus

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71
Q

A type of diffusion in which there is net movement of a solvent through a selectively permeable membrane.

A

Osmosis

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72
Q

In living systems, the solvent is _____, which moves by ____ across plasma membranes from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration.

A

water; osmosis

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73
Q

Integral membrane proteins that function as water channels.

A

Aquaporins

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74
Q

Pressure exerted in this way by a liquid, known as _________, forces water molecules to move back into the left arm.

A

hydrostatic pressure

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75
Q

The solution with the impermeable solute also exerts a force, called the ________. The _______ of a solution is proportional to the concentration of the solute particles that cannot cross the membrane—the higher the solute concentration, the higher the solution’s osmotic pressure.

A

Osmotic pressure

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76
Q

A measure of the solution’s ability to change the volume of cells by altering their water content.

A

Tonicity

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77
Q

The rupture of RBCs is called _______; the rupture of other types of cells due to placement in a hypotonic solution is referred to simply as ___.

A

hemolysis (hē-MOL-i-sis; hemo- = blood; -lysis = to loosen or split apart);
lysis

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78
Q

shrinkage of cells is called ____.

A

crenation

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79
Q

T or F: Red blood cells placed in an isotonic solution maintain their shape because there is no net water movement into or out of the cells.

A

t

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80
Q

Any solution in which a cell—for example, a red blood cell (RBC)—maintains its normal shape and volume is an

A

Isotonic solution

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81
Q

(Ex. RBC) A different situation results if RBCs are placed in a ________, a solution that has a lower concentration of solutes than the cytosol inside the RBCs

A

hypotonic solution (hī′-pō-TON-ik; hypo- = less than)

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82
Q

A ______ has a higher concentration of solutes than does the cytosol inside RBCs

A

hypertonic solution (hī′-per-TON-ik; hyper- = greater than)

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83
Q

an active process because energy is required for carrier proteins to move solutes across the membrane against a concentration gradient.

A

Active transport

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84
Q

the source in primary active transport

A

Energy obtained from hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

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85
Q

the source in secondary active transport.

A

energy stored in an ionic concentration gradient

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86
Q

energy derived from hydrolysis of ATP changes the shape of a carrier protein, which “pumps” a substance across a plasma membrane against its concentration gradient.

A

Primary active transport

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87
Q

carrier proteins that mediate primary active transport are often called ___.

A

pumps

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88
Q

the energy stored in a Na+ or H+ concentration gradient is used to drive other substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients.

A

Secondary active transport

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89
Q

If the transporters move two substances in the same direction they are called ____

A

symporters

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90
Q

If transporters move two substances in opposite directions across the membrane, it is called ____.

A

antiporters

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91
Q

a small, spherical sac

A

Vesicle

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92
Q

materials move into a cell in a vesicle formed from the plasma membrane.

A

Endocytosis

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93
Q

materials move out of a cell by the fusion with the plasma membrane of vesicles formed inside the cell.

A

Exocytosis

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94
Q

Three types of endocytosis:

A

receptor-mediated endocytosis, phagocytosis, and bulkphase endocytosis.

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95
Q

a highly selective type of endocytosis by which cells take up specific ligands.

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

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96
Q

A vesicle forms after a receptor protein in the plasma membrane recognizes and binds to a particular particle in the extracellular fluid.

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

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97
Q

Process of receptor-mediated endocytosis of LDL particle:

A
  1. Binding
  2. Vesicle formation
  3. Uncoating
  4. Fusion with endosome
  5. Recycling of receptors to plasma membrane
  6. Degradation in lysosomes
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98
Q

“cell eating” is a form of endocytosis in which the cell engulfs large solid particles, such as worn-out cells, whole bacteria, or viruses.

A

Phagocytosis

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99
Q

Body cells that carry out phagocytosis

A

Phagocytes

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100
Q

Two main types of phagocytes:

A

Macrophages and neutrophils

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101
Q

Phagocytosis begins when the particle binds to a plasma membrane receptor on the phagocyte, causing it to extend _____, , projections of its plasma membrane and cytoplasm.

A

pseudopods

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102
Q

any undigested materials in the phagosome remain indefinitely in a vesicle called a _____

A

residual body

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103
Q

“cell drinking,” a form of endocytosis in which tiny droplets of extracellular fluid are taken up

A

bulk-phase endocytosis or pinocytosis

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104
Q

No receptor proteins are involved; all solutes dissolved in the extracellular fluid are brought into the cell.

A

bulk-phase endocytosis or pinocytosis

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105
Q

It releases materials from a cell. It is especially important in two types of cells: (1) secretory cells that liberate digestive enzymes, hormones, mucus, or other secretions and (2) nerve cells that release substances called neurotransmitters

A

Exocytosis

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106
Q

During exocytosis, membrane-enclosed vesicles called _______ form inside the cell, fuse with the plasma membrane, and release their contents into the extracellular fluid

A

secretory vesicles

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107
Q

In this active process, vesicles undergo endocytosis on one side of a cell, move across the cell, and then undergo exocytosis on the opposite side.

A

Transcytosis

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108
Q

consists of all the cellular contents between the plasma membrane and the nucleus, and has two components: (1) the cytosol and (2) organelles, tiny structures that perform various functions in the cell

A

Cytoplasm

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109
Q

tiny structures that perform various functions in the cell

A

Organelles

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110
Q

The fluid portion of the cytoplasm that surrounds organelles and constitutes about 55% of total cell volume.

A

Cytosol / intracellular fluid

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111
Q

The site of many chemical reactions required for a cell’s existence.

A

Cytosol / intracellular fluid

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112
Q

A network of protein filaments that extends throughout the cytosol

A

Cytoskeleton

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113
Q

Three types of filaments contribute to the cytoskeleton’s structure. What are they?

A

Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules

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114
Q

are the thinnest elements of the cytoskeleton.

A

Microfilaments

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115
Q

Microfilaments are composed of the proteins ____ and ____ and are most prevalent at the edge of a cell

A

actin and myosin

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116
Q

____ have two general functions: They help generate movement and provide mechanical support.

A

Microfilaments

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117
Q

Microfilaments also provide mechanical support for cell extensions called ______, nonmotile, microscopic fingerlike projections of the plasma membrane.

A

microvilli (micro- =
small; -villi = tufts of hair; singular is microvillus)

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118
Q

_____ are thicker than microfilaments but thinner than microtubules.

A

intermediate filaments

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119
Q

The largest of the cytoskeletal components, are long, unbranched hollow tubes composed mainly of the protein tubulin.

A

Microtubules

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120
Q

____ help determine cell shape. They also function in the movement of organelles such as secretory vesicles, of chromosomes during cell division, and of specialized cell projections, such as cilia and flagella.

A

Microtubules

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121
Q

The _____ is a network of three types of protein filaments—microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules—that extend throughout the cytoplasm.

A

cytoskeleton

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122
Q

____ are specialized structures within the cell that have characteristic shapes, and they perform specific functions in cellular growth, maintenance, and reproduction.

A

Organelles

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123
Q

The _____ , or microtubule organizing center, located near the nucleus, consists of two components: a pair of centrioles and the pericentriolar matrix

A

centrosome

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124
Q

The two _____ of a centrosome are cylindrical structures, each composed of nine clusters of microtubular triplets arranged in a circular pattern

A

centrioles

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125
Q

Surrounding the centrioles is the _______, which contains hundreds of ring-shaped complexes composed of the protein tubulin.

A

pericentriolar matrix

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126
Q

____ are numerous, short, hairlike projections that extend from the surface of the cell

A

Cilia

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127
Q

Each cilium contains a core of __ microtubules surrounded by plasma membrane

A

20

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128
Q

Located near the nucleus, the centrosome consists of a pair of centrioles and the pericentriolar matrix.

A

Centrosome

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129
Q

T or F: The centrioles of the centrosome forms the mitotic spindle during cell division.

A

False - Pericentriolar matrix

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130
Q

A ___ contains a core of microtubules with one pair in the center surrounded by nine clusters of doublet microtubules.

A

cilium / cilia

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131
Q

_____ are similar in structure to cilia but are typically much longer. ____ usually move an entire cell. A ____ generates forward motion along its axis by rapidly wiggling in a wavelike pattern

A

Flagella / Flagellum

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132
Q

The only example of a flagellum in the human body is a ____, which propels the sperm toward the oocyte in the uterine tube

A

sperm’s tail

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133
Q

The sites of protein synthesis

A

Ribosomes

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134
Q

A network of membranes in the form of flattened sacs or tubules

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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135
Q

The _____ extends from the nuclear envelope (membrane around the nucleus), to which it is connected and projects throughout the cytoplasm.

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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136
Q

The ER that is continuous with the nuclear membrane and usually is folded into a series of flattened sacs. The outer surface of this is studded with ribosomes.

A

ROUGH endoplasmic reticulum

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137
Q

ER that does not have ribosomes on the outer surfaces of its membrane. However, smooth ER contains unique enzymes. It doesn’t synthesize proteins, it synthesize fatty acids and steroids

A

SMOOTH endoplasmic reticulum

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138
Q

The ____ is a network of membrane-enclosed sacs or tubules that extend throughout the cytoplasm and connect to the nuclear envelope.

A

endoplasmic reticulum

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139
Q

It consists of 3 to 20 saccules, small, flattened membranous sacs with bulging edges.

A

Golgi complex

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140
Q

The convex ______ is a saccule that faces the rough ER.

A

entry (cis) face

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141
Q

The concave ____ is a saccule that faces the plasma membrane.

A

exit (trans) face

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142
Q

Sacs between the entry and exit faces are called ______.

A

intermediate saccules

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143
Q

It is an organelle that modifies, sorts, packages, and transports proteins received from the rough ER.

A

Golgi complex

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144
Q

Some of the processed proteins leave the exit face and are stored in _____. These vesicles deliver the proteins to the plasma membrane, where they are discharged by exocytosis into the extracellular fluid.

A

secretory vesicles

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145
Q

The word lyso- means

A

dissolving

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146
Q

The word -somes means

A

bodies

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147
Q

are membrane-enclosed vesicles that form from the Golgi complex

A

Lysosomes

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148
Q

They can contain as many as 60 kinds of powerful digestive and hydrolytic enzymes that can break down a wide variety of molecules once it fuse with vesicles formed during endocytosis.

A

Lysosomes

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149
Q

Because lysosomal enzymes work best at an ___, the lysosomal membrane includes active transport pumps that import hydrogen ions (H+)

A

acidic pH

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150
Q

Thus, the lysosomal interior has a pH of ___, which is 100 times more acidic than the pH of the cytosol (pH 7)

A

5

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151
Q

also includes transporters that move the final products of digestion, such as glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids, into the cytosol.

A

lysosomal membrane

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152
Q

also help recycle worn-out cell structures.

A

lysosomal enzymes

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153
Q

can engulf another organelle, digest it, and return the digested components to the cytosol for reuse. In this way, old organelles are continually replaced.

A

lysosome

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154
Q

The process by which entire worn-out organelles are digested is called

A

autophagy

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155
Q

The word -auto means

A

self

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156
Q

The word -phagy means

A

eating

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157
Q

In autophagy, the organelle to be digested is enclosed by a membrane derived from the ER to create a vesicle called an ___, the vesicle then fuses with a lysosome.

A

autophagosome

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158
Q

is also involved in cellular differentiation, control of growth, tissue remodeling, adaptation to adverse environments, and cell defense.

A

autophagy

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159
Q

Lysosomal enzymes may also destroy the entire cell that contains them, a process known as

A

autolysis

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160
Q

occurs in some pathological conditions and also is responsible for the tissue deterioration that occurs immediately after death.

A

Autolysis

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161
Q

TRUE or FALSE. Most lysosomal enzymes act within a cell. However, some operate in extracellular digestion.

A

t

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162
Q

One example that operates in extracellular digestion occurs during fertilization. The head of a sperm releases lysosomal enzymes that aid its penetration of the oocyte by dissolving its protective coating in a process called the ___

A

acrosomal reaction

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163
Q

contain several types of powerful digestive enzymes.

A

Lysosomes

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164
Q

What are the functions of lysosomes?

A
  1. Digest substances that enter a cell via endocytosis and transport final products of digestion into cytosol.
  2. Carry out autophagy, the digestion of worn-out organelles.
  3. Implement autolysis, the digestion of an entire cell.
  4. Accomplish extracellular digestion.
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165
Q

most often affects children of Ashkenazi (Eastern European Jewish) descent, is an inherited condition characterized by the absence of a single lysosomal enzyme called Hex A.

A

Tay-Sachs disease or gangliosidosis

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166
Q

typically experience seizures and muscle rigidity. They gradually become blind, demented, and uncoordinated and usually die before the age of 5.

A

Tay-Sachs disease or gangliosidosis

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167
Q

Another group of organelles similar in structure to lysosomes, but smaller, are the

A

Peroxisomes

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168
Q

The word peroxi- means

A

peroxide

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169
Q

The word -somes means

A

bodies

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170
Q

contain several oxidases, enzymes that can oxidize (remove hydrogen atoms from) various organic substances.

A

Peroxisomes or microbodies

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171
Q

___ and ___ are oxidized in peroxisomes as part of normal metabolism.

A

amino acids; fatty acids

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172
Q

enzymes in peroxisomes oxidize toxic substances, such as ___

A

alcohol

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173
Q

abundant in the liver, where detoxification of alcohol and other damaging substances occurs.

A

peroxisomes

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174
Q

A byproduct of the oxidation reactions is ___, a potentially toxic compound, and associated free radicals such as superoxide.

A

hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

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175
Q

peroxisomes also contain the enzyme ___, which decomposes H2O2

A

catalase

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176
Q

also contain enzymes that destroy superoxide. Without it, byproducts of metabolism could accumulate inside a cell and result in cellular death.

A

peroxisomes

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177
Q

TRUE or FALSE. Peroxisomes can not self-replicate.

A

FALSE (it can)

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178
Q

Continuous destruction of unneeded, damaged, or faulty proteins is the function of tiny barrel-shaped structures consisting of four stacked rings of proteins around a central core called

A

Proteosomes

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179
Q

Proteosomes means

A

protein bodies

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180
Q

A typical body cell contains many thousands of proteasomes, in both the ___ and the ___.

A

cytosol; nucleus

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181
Q

Proteasomes were so named because they contain myriad ___, enzymes that cut proteins into small peptides.

A

proteases

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182
Q

clumps of misfolded proteins accumulate in brain cells of people with

A

Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease

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183
Q

Because they generate most of the ATP through aerobic (oxygen-requiring) respiration, they are also referred to as the “powerhouses” of the cell.

A

Mitochondria

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184
Q

Active cells that use ATP at a high rate—such as those found in the ___, ___, and ___ have a large number of mitochondria

A

muscles, liver and kidneys

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185
Q

are usually located within the fiber where oxygen enters the cell or where the ATP is used, for example, among the contractile proteins in muscle cells.

A

Mitochondria

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186
Q

A mitochondrion consists of an ___ and ___ with a small fluid-filled space between them

A

external mitochondrial membrane; internal mitochondrial membrane

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187
Q

The word mito- means

A

thread

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188
Q

The word -chondria means

A

granules

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189
Q

The internal mito chondrial membrane contains a series of folds called

A

mitochondrial cristae

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190
Q

The word Kris-te means

A

ridges

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191
Q

The central fluid-filled cavity of a mitochondrion, enclosed by the internal mitochondrial membrane, is the

A

mitochondrial matrix

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192
Q

The elaborate folds of the cristae provide an enormous surface area for the chemical reactions that are part of the aerobic phase of ___, the reactions that produce most of a cell’s ATP

A

cellular respiration

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193
Q

Mitochondria also play an important and early role in ___, the orderly, genetically programmed death of a cell.

A

Apoptosis

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194
Q

Apoptosis means

A

falling off

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195
Q

One of the chemicals released into the cytosol of the cell is ___, which while inside the mitochondria is involved in aerobic cellular respiration.

A

cytochrome c

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196
Q

mitochondria ___, a process that occurs during times of increased cellular energy demand or before cell division.

A

self-replicate

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197
Q

Synthesis of some of the proteins needed for mitochondrial functions occurs on the ___ that are present in the mitochondrial matrix

A

ribosomes

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198
Q

Mitochondria even have their own DNA, in the form of multiple copies of a circular DNA molecule that contains ___ genes. These mitochondrial genes control the synthesis of 2 ribosomal RNAs, 22 transfer RNAs, and 13 proteins that build mitochondrial components.

A

37

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199
Q

mitochondrial genes are inherited only from your

A

mother

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200
Q

Within mitochondria, chemical reactions of aerobic cellular respiration generate

A

ATP

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201
Q

Functions of mitochondria

A
  1. Generate ATP through reactions of aerobic cellular respiration.
  2. Play an important early role in apoptosis.
202
Q

is a spherical or oval-shaped structure that usually is the most prominent feature of a cell

203
Q

A double membrane called the ___ separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm.

A

nuclear envelope

204
Q

Both layers of the nuclear envelope are ____ similar to the plasma membrane.

A

lipid bilayers

205
Q

The outer layer of the nuclear envelope is continuous with ___ and resembles it in structure.

206
Q

Many openings called ___ extend through the nuclear envelope.

A

nuclear pores

207
Q

control the movement of substances between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

A

Nuclear pores

208
Q

Small molecules and ions move through the pores passively by

209
Q

Most large molecules, such as RNAs and proteins, cannot pass through the nuclear pores by diffusion. Instead, their passage involves an ___ process in which the molecules are recognized and selectively transported through the nuclear pore into or out of the nucleus.

A

active transport

210
Q

Inside the nucleus are one or more spherical bodies called ___ that function in producing ribosomes. Each nucleolus is simply a cluster of protein, DNA, and RNA; it is not enclosed by a membrane.

211
Q

are the sites of synthesis of rRNA and assembly of rRNA and proteins into ribosomal subunits.They are quite prominent in cells that synthesize large amounts of protein, such as muscle and liver cells.

212
Q

Within the nucleus are most of the cell’s hereditary units, called ___, which control cellular structure and direct cellular activities.

213
Q

Genes are arranged along

A

chromosomes

214
Q

Human somatic (body) cells have ___ chromosomes, 23 inherited from each parent.

215
Q

Each chromosome is a long molecule of ___ that is coiled together with several proteins

216
Q

This complex of DNA, proteins, and some RNA is called

217
Q

The total genetic information carried in a cell or an organism is its

218
Q

Electron micrographs reveal that chromatin has a beads-on-a-string structure. Each bead is a ___ that consists of double-stranded DNA wrapped twice around a core of eight proteins called ___, which help organize the coiling and foiling of DNA

A

nucleosome; histones

219
Q

The string between the beads is called ___, which holds adjacent nucleosomes together.

A

linker DNA

220
Q

In cells that are not dividing, another histone promotes coiling of nucleosomes into a larger-diameter ___, which then folds into large loops.

A

chromatin fiber

221
Q

Just before cell division takes place, however, the DNA replicates (duplicates) and the loops condense even more, forming a pair of

A

chromatids

222
Q

contains most of the cell’s genes, which are located on chromosomes.

223
Q

Functions of the nucleus

A
  1. Controls cellular structure.
  2. Directs cellular activities.
  3. Produces ribosomes in nucleoli.
224
Q

the study of the relationships between the genome and the biological functions of an organism

225
Q

When packing is complete, two identical DNA molecules and their histones form a pair of chromatids, which are held together by a

A

centromere

226
Q

is a highly coiled and folded DNA molecule that is combined with protein molecules.

A

chromosome

227
Q

Fluid mosaic lipid bilayer (phospholipids, cholesterol, and glycolipids) studded with proteins; surrounds cytoplasm.

A

Plasma Membrane

228
Q

Protects cellular contents; makes contact with other cells; contains channels, transporters, receptors, enzymes, cell identity markers, and linker proteins; mediates entry and exit of substances.

A

Plasma Membrane

229
Q

Cellular contents between plasma membrane and nucleus—cytosol and organelles.

230
Q

Site of all intracellular activities except those occurring in the nucleus.

231
Q

Composed of water, solutes, suspended particles, lipid droplets, and glycogen granules.

232
Q

Fluid in which many of cell’s metabolic reactions occur.

233
Q

is a network in the cytoplasm composed of three protein filaments: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules.

A

Cytoskeleton

234
Q

maintains shape and general organization of cellular contents; responsible for cell movements

A

Cytoskeleton

235
Q

Specialized structures with characteristic shapes.

A

Organelles

236
Q

Pair of centrioles plus pericentriolar matrix.

A

Centrosome

237
Q

The pericentriolar matrix contains tubulins, which are used for growth of the mitotic spindle and microtubule formation.

A

Centrosome

238
Q

Motile cell surface projections that contain 20 microtubules and a basal body.

A

Cilia and Flagella

239
Q

move fluids over cell’s surface

240
Q

move entire cell

241
Q

Composed of two subunits containing ribosomal RNA and proteins; may be free in cytosol or attached to rough ER.

242
Q

Protein synthesis.

243
Q

Membranous network of flattened sacs or tubules

A

Endoplasmic Reticulum

244
Q

is covered by ribosomes and is attached to the nuclear envelope

245
Q

lacks ribosomes

246
Q

synthesizes glycoproteins and phospholipids that are transferred to cellular organelles, inserted into plasma membrane, or secreted during exocytosis

247
Q

synthesizes fatty acids and steroids, inactivates or detoxifies drugs, removes phosphate group from glucose-6-phosphate, and stores and releases calcium ions in muscle cells.

248
Q

Consists of 3–20 flattened membranous sacs called saccules; structurally and functionally divided into entry (cis) face, medial saccules, and exit (trans) face.

A

Golgi complex

249
Q

Entry (cis) face accepts proteins from rough ER; medial saccules form glycoproteins, glycolipids, and lipoproteins; exit (trans) face modifies molecules further, then sorts and packages them for transport to their destinations.

A

Golgi complex

250
Q

Vesicle formed from Golgi complex; contains digestive enzymes.

251
Q

Fuses with and digests contents of endosomes, phagosomes, and vesicles formed during bulk-phase endocytosis and transports final products of digestion into cytosol; digests worn-out organelles (autophagy), entire cells (autolysis), and extracellular materials.

252
Q

Vesicle containing oxidases (oxidative enzymes) and catalase (decomposes hydrogen peroxide); new peroxisomes bud from preexisting ones.

A

Peroxisome

253
Q

Oxidizes amino acids and fatty acids; detoxifies harmful substances, such as hydrogen peroxide and associated free radicals.

A

Peroxisome

254
Q

Tiny barrel-shaped structure that contains proteases (proteolytic enzymes).

A

Proteosome

255
Q

Degrades unneeded, damaged, or faulty proteins by cutting them into small peptides

A

Proteosome

256
Q

Consists of an external and an internal mitochondrial membrane, mitochondrial cristae, and mitochondrial matrix; new mitochondria form from preexisting ones.

A

Mitochondrion

257
Q

Site of aerobic cellular respiration reactions that produce most of a cell’s ATP. Plays an important early role in apoptosis.

A

Mitochondrion

258
Q

Consists of a nuclear envelope with pores, nucleoli, and chromosomes, which exist as a tangled mass of chromatin in interphase cells.

259
Q

Nuclear pores control the movement of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm, nucleoli produce ribosomes, and chromosomes consist of genes that control cellular structure and direct cellular functions.

260
Q

Just as genome means all of the genes in an organism, ___ refers to all of an organism’s proteins

261
Q

In the process called ___, a gene’s DNA is used as a template for synthesis of a specific protein. First, in a process aptly named ___, the information encoded in a specific region of DNA is transcribed (copied) to produce a specific molecule of RNA (ribonucleic acid). In a second process, referred to as ___, the RNA attaches to a ribosome,where the information contained in RNA is translated into a corresponding sequence of amino acids to form a new protein molecule

A

gene expression; transcription; translation

262
Q

Transcription occurs in the ___; translation occurs in the ___.

A

nucleus; cytoplasm

263
Q

DNA and RNA store genetic information as sets of three nucleotides. A sequence of three such nucleotides in DNA is called a

A

base triplet

264
Q

Each DNA base triplet is transcribed as a complementary sequence of three nucleotides, called a

265
Q

A given codon specifies a particular

A

amino acid

266
Q

is the set of rules that relate the base triplet sequence of DNA to the corresponding codons of RNA and the amino acids they specify

A

genetic code

267
Q

occurs in the nucleus, the genetic information represented by the sequence of base triplets in DNA serves as a template for copying the information into a complementary sequence of codons.

A

transcription

268
Q

Three types of RNA are made from the DNA template:

A

Messenger RNA (mRNA), Ribosomal RNA (rRNA), and Transfer RNA (tRNA)

269
Q

directs the synthesis of a protein.

A

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

270
Q

joins with ribosomal proteins to make ribosomes

A

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

271
Q

binds to an amino acid and holds it in place on a ribosome until it is incorporated into a protein during translation.

A

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

272
Q

One end of the tRNA carries a specific amino acid, and the opposite end consists of a triplet of nucleotides called an

273
Q

By pairing between complementary bases, the tRNA anticodon attaches to the

A

mRNA codon

274
Q

catalyzes transcription of DNA.

A

RNA polymerase

275
Q

The segment of DNA where transcription begins, a special nucleotide sequence called a ___, is located near the beginning of a gene. This is where RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA.

276
Q

The bases cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T) in the DNA template pair with guanine, cytosine, and adenine (A), respectively, in the RNA strand. However, adenine in the DNA template pairs with ___, not thymine, in RNA

A

uracil (U)

277
Q

Transcription of the DNA strand ends at another special nucleotide sequence called a ___, which specifies the end of the gene. When RNA polymerase reaches it, the enzyme detaches from the transcribed RNA molecule and the DNA strand.

A

terminator

278
Q

Regions within a gene called ___ do not code for parts of proteins. They are located between regions called ___ that do code for segments of a protein

A

introns; extrons

279
Q

Immediately after transcription, the transcript includes information from both introns and exons and is called

280
Q

The introns are removed from pre-mRNA by

A

small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs)

281
Q

are enzymes that cut out the introns and splice together the exons. The resulting product is a functional mRNA molecule that passes through a pore in the nuclear envelope to reach the cytoplasm, where translation takes place.

282
Q

a process in which the pre-mRNA transcribed from a gene is spliced in different ways to produce several different mRNAs. The different mRNAs are then translated into different proteins.

A

alternative splicing of mRNA

283
Q

During transcription, the genetic information in DNA is copied to ___.

284
Q

the nucleotide sequence in an mRNA molecule specifies the amino acid sequence of a protein.

A

translation

285
Q

carry out translation in the cytoplasm

286
Q

The small subunit of a ribosome has a binding site for mRNA; the larger subunit has three binding sites for tRNA molecules:

A

P site, A site, and E site

287
Q

binds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain

A

P (peptidyl) site

288
Q

binds the tRNA carrying the next amino acid to be added to the growing polypeptide.

A

A (aminoacyl) site

289
Q

binds tRNA just before it is released from the ribosome

A

E (exit) site

290
Q

During protein synthesis, the small and large ribosomal subunits join to form a ___. When the process is complete, they separate

A

functional ribosome

291
Q

Translation occurs in the following way, arrange the following: 1. Next, the large ribosomal subunit attaches to the small ribosomal subunit–mRNA complex, creating a functional ribosome. The initiator tRNA, with its amino acid (methionine), fits into the P site of the ribosome.

  1. A component of the large ribosomal subunit catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond between methionine and the amino acid carried by the tRNA at the A site.
  2. After peptide bond formation, the ribosome shifts the mRNA strand by one codon. The tRNA in the P site enters the E site and is subsequently released from the ribosome. The tRNA in the A site bearing the two-peptide protein shifts into the P site, allowing another tRNA with its amino acid to bind to a newly exposed codon at the A site. Steps 3 through 6 occur repeatedly, and the protein lengthens progressively.
  3. Protein synthesis ends when the ribosome reaches a stop codon at the A site, which causes the completed protein to detach from the final tRNA. In addition, tRNA vacates the P site and the ribosome splits into its large and small subunits.
  4. Following the formation of the peptide bond, the resulting two-peptide protein becomes attached to the tRNA at the A site.
  5. An mRNA molecule binds to the small ribosomal subunit at the mRNA binding site. A special tRNA, called initiator tRNA, binds to the start codon (AUG) on mRNA, where translation begins. The tRNA anticodon (UAC) attaches to the mRNA codon (AUG) by pairing between the complementary bases. Besides being the start codon, AUG is also the codon for the amino acid methionine. Thus, methionine is always the first amino acid in a growing polypeptide.
  6. The anticodon of another tRNA with its attached amino acid pairs with the second mRNA codon at the A site of the ribosome.
A

2, 4, 6, 7, 5, 1, 3

292
Q

Protein synthesis progresses at a rate of about __ peptide bonds per second.

293
Q

Several ribosomes attached to the same mRNA constitute a

A

polyribosome

294
Q

Organisms so altered are called ____, and their DNA– a combination of DNA from different sources—is called

A

recombinant DNA

295
Q

The technology that has arisen from the manipulation of genetic material is referred to as

A

genetic engineering

296
Q

required for normal growth and metabolism

A

Growth Hormone (GH)

297
Q

a hormone that helps regulate blood glucose level and is used by diabetics

298
Q

an antiviral (and possibly anticancer) substance

A

interferon (IFN)

299
Q

a hormone that stimulates production of red blood cells.

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

300
Q

the process by which cells reproduce themselves

A

cell division

301
Q

The two types of cell division

A

somatic cell division and reproductive cell division

302
Q

The word soma means

303
Q

is any cell of the body other than a germ cell

A

somatic cell

304
Q

is a gamete (sperm or oocyte) or any precursor cell destined to become a gamete.

305
Q

In somatic cell division, a cell undergoes a nuclear division called ___ and a cytoplasmic division called ___ to produce two identical cells, each with the same number and kind of chromosomes as the original cell

A

mitosis; cytokinesis

306
Q

The word mitos means

307
Q

The word cyto- means

308
Q

The word -kinesis means

309
Q

replaces dead or injured cells and adds new ones during tissue growth

A

Somatic cell division

310
Q

is the mechanism that produces gametes, the cells needed to form the next generation of sexually reproducing organisms.

A

Reproductive cell division

311
Q

The process of reproductive cell division consists of a special two-step division called ___, in which the number of chromosomes in the nucleus is reduced by half

312
Q

is an orderly sequence of events in which a somatic cell duplicates its contents and divides in two. Some cells divide more than others.

A

Cell cycle

313
Q

The two chromosomes that make up each pair are called ___. They contain similar genes arranged in the same (or almost the same) order

A

Homologous chromosomes or homologs

314
Q

one pair of chromosomes called the ___, designated X and Y.

A

sex chromosomes

315
Q

Because somatic cells contain two sets of chromosomes, they are called

A

diploid (2n) cells

316
Q

The word homo- means

317
Q

The word dipl- means

318
Q

The word -oid means

319
Q

The cell cycle consists of two major periods:

A

interphase and mitotic phase

320
Q

Period of cell cycle where a cell is not dividing

A

Interphase

321
Q

Period of cell cycle where a cell is dividing

A

Mitotic (M) phase

322
Q

the cell replicates its DNA through this process. It also produces additional organelles and cytosolic components in anticipation of cell division.

A

Interphase

323
Q

is a state of high metabolic activity; it is during this time that the cell does most of its growing.

A

Interphase

324
Q

Interphase consists of three phases:

A

G1, S (synthesis) and G2 Phase

325
Q

This is the division of the cytoplasm which usually occurs during late anaphase of the mitotic phase

A

Cytokinesis

326
Q

Because the G phases are periods when there is no activity related to DNA duplication, they are thought of as ___ or interruptions in DNA duplication

327
Q

is the interval between the mitotic phase and the S phase.

328
Q

the cell is metabolically active; it replicates most of its organelles and cytosolic components but not its DNA. Replication of centrosomes also begins in this phase

329
Q

For a cell with a total cell cycle time of 24 hours, G1 lasts

A

8-10 hours

330
Q

Cells that remain in G1 for a very long time, perhaps destined never to divide again, are said to be in the

331
Q

Most nerve cells are in the

332
Q

the interval between G1 and G2, lasts about 8 hours.

333
Q

During this phase, DNA replication occurs. As a result of DNA replication, the two identical cells formed during cell division later in the cell cycle will have the same genetic material.

334
Q

is the interval between the S phase and the mitotic phase. It lasts 4 to 6 hours.

335
Q

cell growth continues, enzymes and other proteins are synthesized in preparation for cell division, and replication of centrosomes is completed.

336
Q

results in the formation of two identical cells, consists of a nuclear division (mitosis) and a cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis) to form two identical cells.

A

Mitotic (M) phase

337
Q

is the distribution of two sets of chromosomes into two separate nuclei. The process results in the exact partitioning of genetic information.

338
Q

Wha are the 4 stages of mitosis?

A

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase

339
Q

the chromatin fibers condense and shorten into chromosomes. The condensation process may prevent entangling of the long DNA strands as they move during mitosis.

340
Q

Because longitudinal DNA replication took place during the S phase of interphase, each prophase chromosome consists of a pair of identical strands called

A

Chromatids

341
Q

A constricted region called a ___ holds the chromatid pair together.

A

Centromere

342
Q

At the outside of each centromere is a protein complex known as the

A

Kinetochore

343
Q

Later in prophase, tubulins in the pericentriolar material of the centrosomes start to form the ___, a football-shaped assembly of microtubules that attach to the kinetochore

A

Mitotic spindle

344
Q

is responsible for the separation of chromatids to opposite poles of the cell.

A

Mitotic spindle

345
Q

the microtubules of the mitotic spindle align the centromeres of the chromatid pairs at the exact center of the mitotic spindle

346
Q

The plane alignment of the centromeres at the exact center is called the

A

Metaphase plate (equatorial plane)

347
Q

the centromeres split, separating the two members of each chromatid pair, which move toward opposite poles of the cell

348
Q

Once separated, the chromatids are termed

A

chromosomes

349
Q

As the chromosomes are pulled by the microtubules of the mitotic spindle during this phase, they appear V-shaped because the centromeres lead the way, dragging the trailing arms of the chromosomes toward the pole

350
Q

The final stage of mitosis begins after chromosomal movement stops

351
Q

The identical sets of chromosomes, now at opposite poles of the cell, uncoil and revert to the threadlike chromatin form. A nuclear envelope forms around each chromatin mass, nucleoli reappear in the identical nuclei, and the mitotic spindle breaks up.

352
Q

The two strands of the double helix separate by breaking the ___ between nucleotides

A

hydrogen bonds

353
Q

doubles the amount of DNA.

A

Replication

354
Q

division of a cell’s cytoplasm and organelles into two identical cells is called

A

Cytokinesis

355
Q

The process of cytokinesis usually begins in late anaphase with the formation of a ___, a slight indentation of the plasma membrane, and is completed after telophase.

A

Cleavage furrow

356
Q

usually appears midway between the centrosomes and extends around the periphery of the cell

A

Cleavage furrow

357
Q

Actin microfilaments that lie just inside the plasma membrane form a ___ that pulls the plasma membrane progressively inward. The ring constricts the center of the cell, like tightening a belt around the waist, and ultimately pinches it in two.

A

contractile ring

358
Q

When cytokinesis is complete,___ begins

A

Interphase

359
Q

What is the sequence of event of the cell cycle in somatic cells?

A

G1 –> S phase –> G2 –> Mitosis –> Cytokinesis

360
Q

What are the 3 possible destinies of a cell?

A

(1) to remain alive and functioning without dividing,(2) to grow and divide, or (3) to die.

361
Q

Homeostasis is maintained when there is a balance between ___ and ___

A

cell proliferation; cell death

362
Q

In somatic cell division, a single starting cell divides to produce two identical ___ cells.

363
Q

One of the distinguishing features of cancer cells is uncontrolled division, which results in the formation of a mass of cells called a

A

neoplasm or tumor

364
Q

One of the ways to treat cancer is by ____, the use of anticancer drugs.

A

Chemotheraphy

365
Q

Some of these drugs stop cell division by inhibiting the formation of the

A

Mitotic spindle

366
Q

Period between cell divisions; chromosomes not visible under light microscope.

A

Interphase

367
Q

Metabolically active cell duplicates most of its organelles and cytosolic components; replication of chromosomes begins (Cells that remain in the G1 phase for a very long time, and possibly never divide again, are said to be in the G0 phase.)

368
Q

Replication of DNA and centrosomes.

369
Q

Cell growth, enzyme and protein synthesis continue; replication of centrosomes complete.

370
Q

Parent cell produces identical cells with identical chromosomes; chromosomes visible under light microscope.

A

Mitotic Phase

371
Q

Nuclear division; distribution of two sets of chromosomes into separate nuclei.

372
Q

Chromatin fibers condense into paired chromatids; nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear; each centrosome moves to an opposite pole of the cell.

373
Q

Centromeres of chromatid pairs line up at metaphase plate.

374
Q

Centromeres split; identical sets of chromosomes move to opposite poles of cell.

375
Q

Nuclear envelopes and nucleoli reappear; chromosomes resume chromatin form; mitotic spindle disappears.

376
Q

Cytoplasmic division; contractile ring forms cleavage furrow around center of cell, dividing cytoplasm into separate and equal portions.

A

Cytokinesis

377
Q

can transfer a phosphate group from ATP to a protein to activate the protein; other enzymes can remove the phosphate group from the protein to deactivate it.

A

Cyclin-dependent protein kinases (Cdk’s)

378
Q

Switching the Cdk’s on and off is the responsibility of cellular proteins called ___, so named because their levels rise and fall during the cell cycle.

379
Q

Destruction of this cyclin is by

A

proteosomes

380
Q

an orderly, genetically programmed death

381
Q

In apoptosis, a triggering agent from either outside or inside the cell causes ___ genes to produce enzymes that damage the cell in several ways, including disruption of its cytoskeleton and nucleus.

A

cell-suicide

382
Q

removes unneeded cells during fetal development, such as the webbing between digits. It continues to occur after birth to regulate the number of cells in a tissue and eliminate potentially dangerous cells such as cancer cells.

383
Q

is a normal type of cell death

384
Q

is a pathological type of cell death that results from tissue injury

385
Q

The word necrosis means

386
Q

In ___, many adjacent cells swell, burst, and spill their cytoplasm into the interstitial fluid. The cellular debris usually stimulates an inflammatory response by the immune system, a process that does not occur in apoptosis.

387
Q

each new organism is the result of the union of two different gametes, one produced by each parent

A

Sexual reproduction

388
Q

The word mei- means

389
Q

The word -osis means

A

condition of

390
Q

the reproductive cell division that occurs in the gonads (ovaries and testes), produces gametes in which the number of chromosomes is reduced by half.

391
Q

gametes contain a single set of 23 chromosomes and thus are

A

haploid (n) cells

392
Q

The word hapl- means

393
Q

restores the diploid number of chromosomes.

A

Fertilization

394
Q

occurs in two successive stages

395
Q

The 2 stages of meiosis are

A

Meiosis I and Meiosis II

396
Q

begins once chromosomal replication is complete, consists of four phases: prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, and telophase I

397
Q

is an extended phase in which the chromosomes shorten and thicken, the nuclear envelope and nucleoli disappear, and the mitotic spindle forms.

A

Prophase I

398
Q

Two events that are not seen in mitotic prophase occur during prophase I of meiosis are

A

Synapsis and crossing over

399
Q

the two sister chromatids of each pair of homologous chromosomes pair off, an event called

400
Q

The resulting four chromatids form a structure called a

401
Q

The word tetra means

402
Q

parts of the chromatids of two homologous chromosomes may be exchanged with one another. Such an exchange between parts of nonsister (genetically different) chromatids is called ___. This process, among others, permits an exchange of genes between chromatids of homologous chromosomes

A

crossing over

403
Q

Crossing-over results in ___, —that is, the formation of new combinations of genes—and accounts for part of the great genetic variation among humans and other organisms that form gametes via meiosis.

A

genetic recombination

404
Q

the tetrads formed by the homologous pairs of chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate of the cell, with homologous chromosomes side by side

A

Metaphase I

405
Q

the members of each homologous pair of chromosomes separate as they are pulled to opposite poles of the cell by the microtubules attached to the centromeres. The paired chromatids, held by a centromere, remain together.

A

Anaphase I

406
Q

The net effect of ___ is that each resulting cell contains the haploid number of chromosomes because it contains only one member of each pair of the homologous chromosomes present in the starting cell.

407
Q

The second stage of meiosis, also consists of four phases: prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, and telophase II

A

Meiosis II

408
Q

begins with a diploid starting cell and ends with two cells, each with the haploid number of chromosomes.

409
Q

each of the two haploid cells formed during meiosis I divides; the net result is four haploid gametes that are genetically different from the original diploid starting cell.

A

Meiosis II

410
Q

In ___, a single diploid starting cell undergoes meiosis I and meiosis II to produce four haploid gametes that are genetically different from the starting cell that produced them.

A

Reproductive cell division

411
Q

The sizes of cells are measured in units called

A

micrometers

412
Q

TRUE or FALSE. One micrometer (μm) is equal to 1 one-millionth of a meter, or 10−6 m (1/25,000 of an inch).

413
Q

The largest cell, ___, has a diameter of about 140 μm and is barely visible to the unaided eye.

A

single oocyte

414
Q

has a diameter of 8 μm

A

red blood cells

415
Q

an average hair from the top of your head is approximately ___ in diameter

416
Q

TRUE or FALSE. The shapes of cells also vary considerably, they may be round, oval, flat, cube-shaped, column-shaped, elongated, star-shaped, cylindrical, or disc-shaped. A cell’s shape is related to its function in the body.

417
Q

has a long whiplike tail (flagellum) that it uses for locomotion.

418
Q

The disc shape of a ___ gives it a large surface area that enhances its ability to pass oxygen to other cells.

A

red blood cells

419
Q

The long, spindle shape of a relaxed ____ shortens as it contracts

A

Smooth muscle fiber (cell)

420
Q

are common in the epithelial cells that line the small intestine, where the large surface area speeds the absorption of digested food.

A

Microvilli

421
Q

have long extensions that permit them to conduct nerve impulses over great distances.

A

Nerve cells

422
Q

The nearly 100 trillion cells in an average adult human can be classified into about ___ different cell types.

423
Q

is a normal process accompanied by a progressive alteration of the body’s homeostatic adaptive responses. It produces observable changes in structure and function and increases vulnerability to environmental stress and disease.

424
Q

The specialized branch of medicine that deals with the medical problems and care of elderly persons is

425
Q

The word ger- means

426
Q

The word -iatrics means

427
Q

is the scientific study of the process and problems associated with aging.

A

Gerontology

428
Q

specific DNA sequences found only at the tips of each chromosome. These pieces of DNA protect the tips of chromosomes from erosion and from sticking to one another.

429
Q

the most abundant sugar in the body, plays a role in the aging process. It is haphazardly added to proteins inside and outside cells, forming irreversible cross-links between adjacent protein molecules. With advancing age, more cross-links form, which contributes to the stiffening and loss of elasticity that occur in aging tissues.

430
Q

the immune system may start to attack the body’s own cells. This ___ might be caused by changes in cell-identity markers at the surface of cells that cause antibodies to attach to and mark the cell for destruction.

A

autoimmune response

431
Q

produce oxidative damage in lipids, proteins, or nucleic acids by “stealing” an electron to accompany their unpaired electrons. Some effects are wrinkled skin, stiff joints, and hardened arteries.

A

Free radicals

432
Q

Certain dietary substances, such as vitamin E, vitamin C, beta-carotene, zinc, and selenium, are referred to as because they inhibit the formation of free radicals.

A

antioxidants

433
Q

is a group of diseases characterized by uncontrolled or abnormal cell division.

434
Q

When cells in a part of the body divide without control, the excess tissue that develops is called

A

tumor or neoplasm

435
Q

The word neo- means

436
Q

The study of tumors is called

437
Q

The word onco- means

A

swelling or mass

438
Q

A cancerous neoplasm is called a

A

Malignant tumor or malignancy

439
Q

One property of most malignant tumors is their ability to undergo ___, the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body

A

Metastasis

440
Q

is a neoplasm that does not metastasize. An example is a wart.

A

benign tumor

441
Q

Most ___ may be removed surgically if they interfere with normal body function or become disfiguring. Some can be inoperable and perhaps fatal.

A

benign tumor

442
Q

Most human cancers are ___, malignant tumors that arise from epithelial cells.

A

carcinomas

443
Q

The word carcin means

444
Q

The word -omas means

445
Q

are cancerous growths of melanocytes, skin epithelial cells that produce the pigment melanin.

446
Q

The word melan- means

447
Q

is a general term for any cancer arising from muscle fibers or connective tissues.

448
Q

The word sarc- means

449
Q

the most frequent type of childhood cancer, destroys normal bone tissue

A

Osteogenic sarcoma

450
Q

The word osteo- means

451
Q

The word -genic means

452
Q

is a cancer of blood-forming organs characterized by rapid growth of abnormal leukocytes

453
Q

The word leuk- means

454
Q

The word -emia means

455
Q

is a malignant disease of lymphatic tissue—for example, of lymph nodes.

456
Q

As malignant cells invade surrounding tissues, they often trigger ___, the growth of new networks of blood vessels.

A

angiogenesis

457
Q

Proteins that stimulate angiogenesis in tumors are called

A

Tumor angiogenesis factors (TAFs)

458
Q

What are the factors that may trigger cancer?

A

Carcinogens, Oncogenes, and Oncogenic Viruses

459
Q

A chemical agent or radiation that produces cancer is called a

A

Carcinogen

460
Q

are associated with 60–90% of all human cancers

A

Carcinogen

461
Q

Examples of carcinogens are

A

hydrocarbons found in cigarette tar, radon gas from the earth, and ultraviolet (UV) radiation in sunlight.

462
Q

cancer-causing genes

463
Q

derive from normal genes called proto-oncogenes that regulate growth and development. The proto-oncogene undergoes some change that causes it (1) to be expressed inappropriately, (2) to make its products in excessive amounts, or (3) to make its products at the wrong time.

464
Q

are tiny packages of nucleic acids, either RNA or DNA, that can reproduce only while inside the cells they infect.

465
Q

Viruses that cause cancer by stimulating abnormal proliferation of cells. For instance, the human papillomavirus (HPV) causes virtually all cervical cancers in women.

A

Oncogenic Viruses

466
Q

is a defensive response to tissue damage

A

Inflammation

467
Q

stimulates the proliferation of mutated cells and enhances their survival, promotes angiogenesis, and contributes to invasion and metastasis of cancer cells.

A

Chronic Inflammation

468
Q

inflammation of the stomach lining

A

Chronic Gastritis

469
Q

inflammation of the liver

A

Chronic Hepatitis

470
Q

is also an underlying contributor to rheumatoid arthritis, Alzheimer’s disease, depression, schizophrenia, cardiovascular disease, and diabetes.

A

Chronic Inflammation

471
Q

may be a causative factor in 60–90% of stomach cancers

A

Chronic gastritis and peptic ulcers

472
Q

are believed to be respon sible for about 80% of liver cancers.

A

Chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis of the liver

473
Q

is 10 times more likely to occur in patients with chronic inflamma tory diseases of the colon, such as ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease

A

Colorectal cancer

474
Q

two chronic lung inflammatory conditions

A

asbestosis and silicosis

475
Q

is a multistep process of cancer development in which as many as 10 distinct mutations may have to accumulate in a cell before it becomes cancerous.

A

Carcinogenesis

476
Q

the tumor begins as an area of increased cell proliferation that results from one mutation. This growth then progresses to abnormal, but noncancerous, growths called adenomas. After two or three additional mutations, a mutation of the tumor suppressor gene p53 occurs and a carcinoma develops.

A

Colon cancer

477
Q

Traditional cancer treatment involve

A

surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation

478
Q

involves administering drugs that cause the death of cancerous cells by altering or destroying their DNA

A

Chemotherapy

479
Q

breaks chromosomes, thus blocking cell division

A

Radiation therapy

480
Q

the use of various procedures that modify and stimulate immune responses to fight cancer

A

Immunotherapy

481
Q

the use of drugs that target specific genes and proteins found in cancer cells to stop cancer cells from growing and dividing or cutting off their blood supply

A

Targeted therapy

482
Q

the transplantation of stem cells to restore blood-forming cells in people whose red bone marrow has been destroyed by high doses of radiation and chemotherapy used to treat their cancer

A

Stem cells transplants

483
Q

using various levels of hormones to slow or stop the growth of cancer cells in tissues that are sensitive to hormonal growth control, such as the breasts and prostate

A

Hormone therapy

484
Q

the use of remedies that lie outside of traditional medical procedures such as herbal, vitamin, and nutritional supplements; exercise, relaxation techniques, massage, prayer, hypnotherapy, and acupuncture

A

Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) therapy

485
Q

is one that affects one part or a limited area of the body

A

local disease

486
Q

affects the entire body or several parts.

A

systemic disease

487
Q

The loss of tissue differentiation and function that is characteristic of most malignancies

488
Q

The word ana means

489
Q

The word -plasia means

490
Q

A decrease in the size of cells, with a subsequent decrease in the size of the affected tissue or organ; wasting away.

491
Q

The prefix a- means

492
Q

The word -trophy means

A

nourishment

493
Q

Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of cells due to chronic irritation or inflam mation; may progress to neoplasia (tumor formation, usually malignant) or revert to normal if the irritation is removed.

494
Q

The word dys- means

495
Q

Increase in the number of cells of a tissue due to an increase in the frequency of cell division.

A

Hyperplasia

496
Q

The word hyper- means

497
Q

Increase in the size of cells without cell division.

A

Hypertrophy

498
Q

The transformation of one type of cell into another.

A

Metaplasia

499
Q

The word meta- means

500
Q

Offspring or descendants.