L.4 Antigen/Antibody Reaction Flashcards

1
Q

What are allogenic antigens?

A

Nonself antigens.

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2
Q

What are autologous antigens?

A

Self-antigens.

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3
Q

Define haptens.

A

Partial antigens that require a carrier molecule to elicit an immune response.

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4
Q

What are antigenic determinants also known as?

A

Epitopes.

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5
Q

What are antibodies made of?

A

Glycoproteins made of 4 polypeptide chains joined by disulfide bonds.

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6
Q

How many heavy and light chains do antibodies include?

A

2 heavy chains and 2 light chains (2 kappa or 2 lambda chains).

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7
Q

What determines the antibody class?

A

The constant region consisting of heavy chains (Fc region).

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8
Q

List the classes of antibodies.

A
  • IgG
  • IgA
  • IgM
  • IgD
  • IgE
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9
Q

What is the function of the variable region of antibodies?

A

Binds the antigen.

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10
Q

Where are antibodies found in the body?

A

Tears, saliva, breast milk, plasma/serum.

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11
Q

What are antibodies also known as?

A

Immunoglobulins.

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12
Q

Which antibodies are the most important in transfusion?

A

IgM and IgG.

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13
Q

What type of cells process antigens?

A

APCs specifically B cells.

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14
Q

What do B cells present antigens to?

A

T cells via TCR-MHC complex.

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15
Q

What do T cells produce to activate B cells?

A

Cytokines.

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16
Q

What do activated B cells convert to?

A

Plasma cells or memory B cells.

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17
Q

What do plasma cells secrete?

A

Immunoglobulins with a specificity for the stimulating antigen.

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18
Q

Where do memory B cells reside?

A

In lymphoid organs.

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19
Q

What happens to memory B cells after re-exposure to an antigen?

A

They can rapidly produce antibodies.

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20
Q

What is intravascular haemolysis?

A

Direct lysis of RBCs in the circulation, resulting in release of haemoglobin into plasma.

Free haemoglobin can lead to uncontrolled clotting, hypotension, and organ failure due to poor perfusion.

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21
Q

What commonly causes intravascular haemolysis?

A

Most often caused by IgM antibodies that are capable of activating the complement system.

These antibodies lead to the lysis of red blood cells in the circulation.

22
Q

What occurs during extravascular haemolysis?

A

RBCs are coated with antibodies and removed from circulation by macrophages in the spleen or liver.

Haemoglobin is not released into circulation, making this process typically less dramatic than intravascular haemolysis.

23
Q

What characterizes the primary antibody response?

A

Initial responses tend to be slow, with low titre IgM antibodies.

This response occurs upon the first exposure to an antigen.

24
Q

What happens during the secondary antibody response?

A

Rapid rise in titre with the destructive capabilities of IgG class antibodies.

This occurs upon subsequent exposures to the same antigen.

25
What are the two steps involved in antigen-antibody reactions detected by agglutination?
* Sensitization * Lattice formation ## Footnote Sensitization involves antibody binding to antigen without visible agglutination; lattice formation involves cross-linking of antibody-coated cells.
26
What is zeta-potential in relation to RBCs?
Zeta-potential keeps RBCs apart, making them less likely to be agglutinated by IgG antibodies. ## Footnote IgM antibodies are more likely to cause direct agglutination.
27
What are monoclonal antibodies?
Antibodies produced by a single clone of B cells with one specificity. ## Footnote They are used in various therapeutic and diagnostic applications.
28
What are polyclonal antibodies?
Antibodies produced by multiple clones of B cells with different specificities. ## Footnote They are often used in research and diagnostics due to their ability to recognize multiple epitopes.
29
What is the first step in monoclonal antibody production?
Mice are immunized with antigen.
30
What is harvested from mice after immunization in monoclonal antibody production?
The spleens are harvested for immune cells.
31
What process involves fusing antibody-forming cells with tumor cells in monoclonal antibody production?
Fusion.
32
What are the cells formed by the fusion of antibody-forming cells and tumor cells called?
Hybridomas.
33
What is done to hybridomas in monoclonal antibody production?
The hybridomas are screened for the production of desired antibody.
34
Each hybridoma is descended from what type of cell?
A single B-cell clone.
35
What does the hybridoma cell line produce?
The same antibody molecule.
36
What are autoantibodies?
Antibody made against your own antigens.
37
In which diseases are autoantibodies commonly seen?
Autoimmune diseases e.g. SLE.
38
What causes the formation of autoantibodies?
A break in immune tolerance.
39
What are alloantibodies?
Antibodies made against foreign antigens from another person.
40
When do alloantibodies typically occur?
In cases of blood transfusions, pregnancy, or organ transplants.
41
What test detects alloantibodies?
Antibody screen test.
42
What is the function of the complement system?
Helps destroy RBCs either within blood vessels or by making RBCs easier for macrophages to destroy.
43
What is intravascular hemolysis?
Destruction of RBCs inside blood vessels.
44
What is extravascular hemolysis?
Destruction of RBCs by macrophages outside blood vessels.
45
What type of antibody primarily binds to antigens on RBC surfaces in the complement system?
IgM.
46
What triggers the classical pathway of the complement system?
Antibodies binding to antigens.
47
What is the role of C3 in the complement cascade?
C3 splits into C3a and C3b; C3b binds to RBC surface and marks it for destruction.
48
What forms the membrane attack complex (MAC)?
A later stage in the complement cascade.
49
What happens to RBCs if MAC forms?
The RBC is ruptured inside the blood vessel.
50
What is necessary for macrophages to recognize RBCs during extravascular hemolysis?
C3b deposition.
51
What activates the alternative pathway of the complement system?
Foreign cell surface constituents e.g. bacteria.