KV ERJ Approach (19) Flashcards

1
Q

Give at least three requirements of a stabilized approach.

A

A) 1,500 ft AGL RA/ or FAF, whichever occurs first

1) Landing gear down
2) Airspeed no greater than 180 kts.

B) 1,000 ft AGL RA:

1) Final landing configuration
2) BEFORE LANDING CHECKLIST complete
3) Airspeed within +15 and -5 kts of target speed
4) On lateral profile
5) On vertical profile or correcting with minor bracketing maneuvers

C) 500 ft AGL RA:

1) Airspeed within speed bug
2) Thrust setting above idle (SOPM 4-11.7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

On a two-engine approach with Flaps 1, how many hydraulic pumps are running?

A

Five hydraulic pumps are running.

1) EDP 1 - 2,
2) ACMP 1-2,
3) ACMP 3A.

(AOM V2 14-11-10.2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the single engine approach and landing flap configuration?

A

Flaps 5.

QRH NAP 1-34) (SOPM 4-11.34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 3?

A

200 kts. (SOPM 2-3.3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

On an RNAV approach, what is the minimum autopilot altitude?

A

MDA

SOPM 2-4.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When will the pilot receive windshear escape guidance on the PFD?

A

1) Windshear warning or caution is detected and TOGA is pressed
2) Windshear warning is detected and thrust lever set to TO/GA position
3) Automatically when windshear warning is detected and the FD mode is in TO or GA

(AOM V2 14-03-10.22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the PM callouts during a windshear escape maneuver?

A

1) PM states “CLIMBING” or “DESCENDING” based upon VSI indication.
2) When the RA less than 1,000 ft AGL and the airplane is descending, the PM calls “DESCENDING (___)” based upon the RA value observed.
3) Wind Shear Warning Gone

(SOPM 4-7.14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Should the PF reference the aircraft symbol or FD during windshear escape guidance?

A

Flight Director guidance.

SOPM 4-7.14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During a windshear escape maneuver, what configuration changes should we make?

A

1) Do not change flaps or landing gear configuration until out of the windshear condition,
2) at least 1,500 ft AGL
3) and terrain clearance is assured.

(SOPM 4-7.14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The windshear vertical mode can be a threat in itself once clear of windshear, why?

A

1) The windshear escape guidance mode does not automatically revert to any other flight guidance mode.
2) The pilot can manually select another mode in order to exit windshear escape guidance.
3) TOGA button will repopulate FMA

(SOPM 4-7.14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When does the airplane have to be fully configured and on speed for landing?

A

1) Fully configured by 1,000 ft AGL RA
2) and Airspeed within the confines of the speed bug by 500 ft AGL RA.

(SOPM 4-11.8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When would we use Stall Protect Ice Speeds for landing?

A

1) STALL PROTECT ICE SPEEDS advisory message displayed

2) or CATII approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between Stall Protect Ice speeds and CATII approach speeds.

A

Nothing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do we ensure all required equipment is functioning for a CATII approach?

A

Complete CATII APPROACH checklist.

SOPM 4-11.20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When does the APPR 2 logic first try to activate?

A

1,500 ft. RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What factors affect APPR 2 logic?

A

1) No valid RA displayed
2) Flaps greater than 5 below 800 ft
3) EICAS message SLAT-FLAP LEVER DISAG displayed
4) Either minimums selected readout change from RA to BARO
5) LOC frequency or inbound course mismatch (SOPM 4-11.20)

17
Q

What are the lowest RW RVR visibility minimums for a CAT II Approach (SkyWest)?

A

RVR
TDZ 1200ft./ MID 600 ft./ Rollout 300ft.
(OpsSpec C059-2)

18
Q

Is the approach lighting system a required part of a CAT II approach?

A

Yes. Either an ALSF-1 or ALSF-2 is required to conduct a CATII approach. The sequenced flashing lights may be inoperative.

(OpsSpec C059-2)

19
Q

What is the maximum cross-wind for a CATII approach?

A

1) 12 kts
2) or the crosswind limitation of the landing runway
2. a (ex: runway with ice – 12 kts),

whichever is more restrictive.

(OpsSpec C059-3)(SOPM 2-3.4)