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KDRs Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the forces of lift, weight, thrust and drag during steady level flight

A

Lift = weight Thrust = Drag

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2
Q

What is the affect of lift and drag with an increase in weight?

A

More weight requires more lift with a higher angle of attack which means more drag and more thrust required to maintain altitude

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3
Q

How are the lift-weight and thrust-drag couples balanced?

A

Lift-weight has nose down pitching moment, thurst-drag has a smaller nose up pitching moment. The difference is balanced by horizontal stabiliser which is shaped like an upside down wing.

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4
Q

Where does lift act on the wing?

A

Center of pressure around a third of the way back during level flight and moves forward with increase in AoA.

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5
Q

Which direction does lift act?

A

Perpendicular to relative airflow

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6
Q

What does an anhedral wing do?

A

Decreases lateral stability. Used by heavier aircraft that struggle to roll.

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7
Q

What does a dihedral wing do?

A

Increases lateral stability particularly in low wing aircraft. When in side slip, lower wing has higher AoA and exposed to more relative airflow creating lift and righting roll.

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8
Q

What does a change in aspect ratio do?

A

Longer thinner wings create less induced drag. Smaller vortices created.

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9
Q

What does a swept wing do?

A

Increases lateral stability. When in roll, lower wing exposed to more relative airflow creating lift and righting roll.

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10
Q

What do washout wings do?

A

Reduces induced drag. Lower AoA at wing tip reduces pressure difference and the resulting wing tip vortices.

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11
Q

Apply bernoulli’s theorem to describe how an aerofoil produces lift.

A

As air speeds up over the top of the wing, like a venturi, an increased dynamic means decreased static pressure to maintain total constant pressure. Difference in static pressure above and below wing gives the lifting force below the wing.

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12
Q

Describe Ground Effect and its effect on aircraft performance.

A
  • Ground effect most pronounced half a wingspan above the ground but acts up to a full wingspan above the ground.
  • When close to the ground, downwash restricted by ground reducing formation of wingtip vortices induced drag.
  • Lift also increased.
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13
Q

State the effect of climb rate and angle through changes in flap

A

Increase in flap increases AOD and ROD

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14
Q

What is the relationship between Lat and Long and positions on the Earth?

A
  • Prime Meridian 0° E/W
  • Long position is the amount of degrees E/W of line until you hit the international date line
  • Equator 0°
  • Poles 90° N/S
  • Each degree made up of 60’ which is made up of 60”
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15
Q

What is the effect of lat and long on time differences?

A
  • Earth moves 15° every hour, 1° every 4 minutes
  • 15’ = 1 minute
  • BOD: Further North, earlier BOD in winter, later in summer.
  • EOD: Further North later EOD in winter, earlier in Summer
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16
Q

What is the effect of Lat and Long on distance and direction?

A
  • 1’ = 1nm for Latitude ONLY
  • As long curved, not a reliable way to measure distances
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17
Q

What is the purpose of a wastegate?

A

To control the amount of exhaust gasses flowing to the turbine by opening and closing.

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18
Q

What is the difference between fixed, manual and automatic wastegates?

A
  • Fixed: In on position. Can overboost at low altitudes and limits ability to go to higher altitude as will never get full boost.
  • Manual: Controlled by pilot through separate lever or combined with throttle. Easy to overboost with full power or descending from altitude.
  • Automatic: Most modern aircraft. Senses air pressure to maintain correct MAP until critical altitude. Moves wastegate through pressure controller moving oil. Will go full open with oil loss to prevent overboost.
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19
Q

What does low oil pressure likely indicate?

A
  • Low oil quantity (most likely), oil pump failure, oil leak, pressure relief valve stuck open, engine problem
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20
Q

What does high oil pressure likely indicate?

A
  • High oil quantity (most likely), pressure relief valve stuck closed or set incorrectly
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21
Q

What does high oil temprature likely indicate?

A
  • Low oil quantity, extended time high CHT, high ambient temp
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22
Q

What does no RPM drop during magneto check likely indicate?

A

the other mag is not earthing correctly (most likely) or the other mag was never working at all

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23
Q

What does the engine cutting out during magneto check indicate?

A

Magneto selected not working

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24
Q

What do you do if the CHT reads high?

A
  • Increase airspeed, reduce power, open cowl flaps
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25
Q

What do you do if CHT reads low?

A
  • Decrease airspeed, add power, close cowl flaps
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26
Q

What does low or fluctuating fuel pressure likely indicate?

A

Fuel pump failure, fuel vaporisation (operate boost pump in both scenarios). Leak in fuel lines, blocked fuel vent

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27
Q

What does high fuel pressure likely indicate?

A

Blocked fuel line Acutally a decrease in fuel flow..

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28
Q

What does a higher than normal MAP likely indicate?

A

Waste gate jammed shut

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29
Q

Explain an alternator generator

A
  • Generates electricity by spinning magnet near coil.
  • Generally belt driven from propeller shaft of geared to engine accessory gearbox.
  • Can’t store power
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30
Q

Explain a voltage regulator overvoltage realy

A
  • Maintains correct voltage output from alternator. No pilot input
  • If it fails to regulate excess voltage, overvoltage relay stops excess going to busbar, warning light comes on and alternator isolated (i.e battery supplies power)
  • Can recycle alternator once. If still fails, turn alternator off, follow POH, switch off non-essential electrics and land as soon as practicable
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31
Q

What is a left centre and centre zero ammeter?

A
  • Left centre measures current flowing from the alternator. Zero reading means alternator failed or not running.
  • Centre zero measures current flowing to/from battery. Large charge during flight shows electrical fault, minus means alternator likely failed.
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32
Q

What does a voltmeter show?

A

Volts running to the busbar. Shows 28V w/ 24V battery, 14V for 12V battery

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33
Q

Explain the purpose of circuit breakers

A
  • Isolate equipment if surges threaten to damage it.
  • Rate in amps
  • Will pop and can only be reset once
34
Q

How does battery ampere hours work?

A

30 a/h can power 30 amps for one hour

35
Q

Explain the master Bus Bar switch

A

Allows you to turn on/off alternator and battery individually

36
Q

Explain the starter motor relay

A
  • High current required for starting requires heavy duty wiring.
  • Rather than wiring to the ignition (fire hazard, power loss), relay connects system
  • When key turned, current solenoid creates magnetic field moves rod closing other circuit
  • High current heats starter motor quick, see manual for cranking and cooldown times
37
Q

Explain the dual ignition distributor switch

A
  • Allows you to control magnetos separately or together
  • Selecting L earths right
  • If no RPM drop, mag not earthing properly or is faulty
38
Q

Explain an external power receptacle, ground/flight switch

A
  • Ground Power Units provide power on ground without battery or alternator
  • Can be used for start when battery doesn’t have enough powr.
39
Q

Explain overheat - thermal switches

A
  • Activated when heat at certain level
  • Heat sensitive units connected in parallel but in series with indicator lights so only one needs to trigger
40
Q

Explain rate of temperature rise - thermocouple

A
  • Constructed of two dissimilar metals
  • Point connecting two exposed to heat called hot junction
  • Reference junction in dead space between insulation blocks
  • If temp rises rapidly, thermocouple produces voltage because of the temp difference at the two junctions
  • if both heat at same rate, no voltage produced
41
Q

Explain flame sensors

A
  • Optical (UV, IR) that picks up radiation emission from hydrocarbon flames
  • If detected, sensor mildly raises temp causing small volts to be generated which is amplified. Electronic equipment knows the wavelengths to look for ignoring false alarms from sunlight, incandescent lights
42
Q

What audio and visual will show if fire warning devices triggered?

A
  • Red light = bad
  • Sound omni directional i.e don’t need to be looking a certain direction
43
Q

What is a water extinguisher used for?

A

Combustible materials. NOT combustible liquid or electrical

44
Q

What is dry chemical extinguisher used for?

A

Combustible material, liquid fires and electrical if cleaned up afterwards.

45
Q

What is CO2 extinguisher used for?

A

Electrical and flammable liquid fires. Smothers them and deprives of oxygen

46
Q

What is BCF extinguisher used for?

A

Electrical and flammable liquid fires. Visibility reduced and semi toxic so cabin must be ventilated. Only legal for aviation.

47
Q

What are the advantages of air and electrically driven gyroscopes?

A
  • Electric spins faster providing greater rigidity and more stable reference platform
  • Air driven can function during electrical failure
48
Q

What is apparent wander/drift?

A
  • Axis of DI rigid in space and drifts out of alignment as earth rotates
49
Q

When is the min/max apparent wander?

A

Max at poles, zero at the equator

50
Q

What is transport wander?

A

Only occurs when travelling east-west, not north-south. Same as apparent wander, DI rigid in space

51
Q

What is the advantage of having DI connected to a flux valve?

A
  • Flux valve on winds alligns DI to magnetic field which eliminates need to reset every 10-15 mins
  • Turn/accelerator cutout switch cuts feed preventing misreads like normal compass
52
Q

What is the visibility in North Summer?

A

Often reduced in rain areas and thunderstorms in North and bushfires south of region

53
Q

What is the visibility in North Winter?

A

Generally good. SE stream along east coast and high terrain can form low orographic cloud

54
Q

What is the visibility in South Summer?

A

Generally unrestricted apart from dust, smoke in areas

55
Q

What is the visibility in South Winter?

A

Often reduce by bushfires and dust inland. Frequent thunderstorms in South.

56
Q

What are the prevailing winds in the North Summer?

A

Predominantly South-Easterly along East Coast. Light and variable away from the coast. North-West monsoons bring wet season. Local sea breezes.

57
Q

What are the prevailing winds in the North Winter?

A

mostly SE trade winds. Afternoon sea breezes for coastal airports

58
Q

What are the prevailing winds in the South Summer?

A

SE to NE or N. N winds can bring heat waves

59
Q

What are the prevailing winds in the South Winter?

A

Westerly during mid-late winter modified by land breezes. Standing waves E of Great Dividing Range.

60
Q

What are the typical cloud patterns and precipitation in the North Summer?

A

Cu w/ showers along East Coast. NS and rain areas in North and tropical cyclones likely Nov-Apr. Low pressure systems and troughs dominate the North.

61
Q

What are the typical cloud patterns and precipitation in the North Winter?

A

mostly Cu of low vertical extent due to SE winds. Scattered showers along east coast but generally fine

62
Q

What are the typical cloud patterns and precipitation in the South Summer?

A

Mainly Cu clouds. High probability of convective thunderstorms

63
Q

What are the typical cloud patterns and precipitation in the South Winter?

A

Scattered convective cloud in North of region but generally fine. Frequent thunderstorms w/ heavy showers and hail associated w/ cold fronts across the South

64
Q

What are the seasonal pressure and frontal systems in the North Summer?

A

Inter-tropical convergence zone active over North with persistent convergence in troughs

65
Q

What are the seasonal pressure and frontal systems in the North Winter?

A

No frontal activities. Dominated by high pressure systems

66
Q

What are the seasonal pressure and frontal systems in the South Summer?

A

High pressure systems situated South. Ridges of high pressure. Cold fronts are South of the continent and doesn’t effect weather.

67
Q

What are the seasonal pressure and frontal systems in the South Winter?

A

Ridges associated with high pressure systems dominate most of continent. Frequent cold fronts, some fast moving w/ squall lines pose risk.

68
Q

When and where are tropical cyclones likely?

A

North in the summertime between November and April.

69
Q

What is the flying weather associated with a cold front?

A
  • Colder temp
  • Reduced QNH, large clouds w/ vertical extent
  • Showers and possible thunderstorms w/ turbulence
  • NW winds which turn SW
70
Q

What is the flying weather associated with a warm front?

A
  • as front moves, clouds become thicker and lower
  • AC, AS, NS bring heavy continuous rain
  • Risk of clear ice if flying underneath approaching warm front with sub-zero temp
  • Temp rises as warm air comes in
71
Q

What is the flying weather associated with wave depressions?

A
72
Q

What is the flying weather associated with a occluded front?

A
  • clouds are a combination of both fronts
  • thunderstorms can be obscured by other cloud types ‘embedded thunderstorm’
  • Cold, cool, warm air pockets
73
Q

What is the flying weather associated with a tropical cyclone?

A
  • Low vis
  • Severe turbulence
  • Extremely high winds
74
Q

What is the flying weather associated with the equatorial trough?

A
  • convective conditions cause low pressure.
  • Rising air means rising clouds, thunderstorms
75
Q

What are the conditions favourable for the development of a thunderstorm?

A
  • High humidity
  • Lifting mechanism
  • Atmospheric instability
76
Q

What are the signs of a thunderstorm?

A
  • Large puffy clouds with vertical extent and maybe anvil
77
Q

What is the effect on flight characteristics of a thunderstorm?

A
  • Clear ice
  • Severe Turbulence
  • Wind Shear
  • Low Vis
  • Hail
78
Q

What actions are required to minimise the effect of a thunderstorm?

A
  • Stay away by at least 20nm
  • Stay upwind if possible
  • If multiple cells fly between
79
Q

How is surface air temperature and dew point measured?

A

Stevenson screen

80
Q

How does the temp change between above runway and stevenson screen?

A

Temp above runways higher

CPL (4 decks)

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