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KDRs Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the forces of lift, weight, thrust and drag during steady level flight

A

Lift = weight Thrust = Drag

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2
Q

What is the affect of lift and drag with an increase in weight?

A

More weight requires more lift with a higher angle of attack which means more drag and more thrust required to maintain altitude

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3
Q

How are the lift-weight and thrust-drag couples balanced?

A

Lift-weight has nose down pitching moment, thurst-drag has a smaller nose up pitching moment. The difference is balanced by horizontal stabiliser which is shaped like an upside down wing.

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4
Q

Where does lift act on the wing?

A

Center of pressure around a third of the way back during level flight and moves forward with increase in AoA.

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5
Q

Which direction does lift act?

A

Perpendicular to relative airflow

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6
Q

How do the forces act during a steady climb?

A

Lift is less than weight. Thrust is more than drag. Thrust equals drag + rear component of weight.

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7
Q

How do the forces act during a steady descent?

A

During glide descent, lift is less than weight. Weight = lift + drag

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8
Q

How do the forces act during a steady balanced turn?

A

Lift is greater than weight to maintain level flight. Horizontal component of lift is the centripedal forace that turns the aircraft.

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9
Q

What does an anhedral wing do?

A

Decreases lateral stability. Used by heavier aircraft that struggle to roll.

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10
Q

What does a dihedral wing do?

A

Increases lateral stability particularly in low wing aircraft. When in side slip, lower wing has higher AoA and exposed to more relative airflow creating lift and righting roll.

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11
Q

What does a change in aspect ratio do?

A

Longer thinner wings create less induced drag. Smaller vortices created.

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12
Q

What does a swept wing do?

A

Increases lateral stability. When in roll, lower wing exposed to more relative airflow creating lift and righting roll.

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13
Q

What do washout wings do?

A

Reduces induced drag. Lower AoA at wing tip reduces pressure difference and the resulting wing tip vortices.

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14
Q

What do wing spoilers do?

A

Rise on top of aerofoil increasing drag and decreasing lift. Used to slow down aircraft usually on landing and can be used on one side to assist roll.

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15
Q

What do vortex generators do?

A

Creates turbulence over wing, mixing with free stream velocity and delaying separation point reducing parasitic drag. More useful at higher AoA (short field) reducing stall speed.

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16
Q

What do flaps do?

A

Increases lift and drag allowing more steep AoC/AoD on take-off and landing. Also increases visibility during slow flight as it allows a lower nose attitude.

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17
Q

What do trim tabs do?

A

Relieves control load reducing pilot workload.

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18
Q

Apply bernoulli’s theorem to describe how an aerofoil produces lift.

A

As air speeds up over the top of the wing, like a venturi, an increased dynamic means decreased static pressure to maintain total constant pressure. Difference in static pressure above and below wing gives the lifting force below the wing.

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19
Q

Describe Ground Effect and its effect on aircraft performance.

A
  • Ground effect most pronounced half a wingspan above the ground but acts up to a full wingspan above the ground.
  • When close to the ground, downwash restricted by ground reducing formation of wingtip vortices induced drag.
  • Lift also increased.
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20
Q

State the effect of climb rate and angle through changes in flap

A

Increase in flap decreases AOC and ROC

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21
Q

What is the relationship between Lat and Long and positions on the Earth?

A
  • Prime Meridian 0° E/W
  • Long position is the amount of degrees E/W of line until you hit the international date line
  • Equator 0°
  • Poles 90° N/S
  • Each degree made up of 60’ which is made up of 60”
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22
Q

What is the effect of lat and long on time differences?

A
  • Earth moves 15° every hour, 1° every 4 minutes
  • 15’ = 1 minute
  • BOD: Further North, earlier BOD in winter, later in summer.
  • EOD: Further North later EOD in winter, earlier in Summer
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23
Q

What is the effect of Lat and Long on distance and direction?

A
  • 1’ = 1nm for Latitude ONLY
  • As long curved, not a reliable way to measure distances
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24
Q

What is the purpose of a wastegate?

A

To control the amount of exhaust gasses flowing to the turbine by opening and closing.

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25
Q

What is the difference between fixed, manual and automatic wastegates?

A
  • Fixed: In on position. Can overboost at low altitudes and limits ability to go to higher altitude as will never get full boost.
  • Manual: Controlled by pilot through separate lever or combined with throttle. Easy to overboost with full power or descending from altitude.
  • Automatic: Most modern aircraft. Senses air pressure to maintain correct MAP until critical altitude. Moves wastegate through pressure controller moving oil. Will go full open with oil loss to prevent overboost.
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26
Q

What does low oil pressure likely indicate?

A
  • Low oil quantity (most likely), oil pump failure, oil leak, pressure relief valve stuck open, engine problem
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27
Q

What does high oil pressure likely indicate?

A
  • High oil quantity (most likely), pressure relief valve stuck closed or set incorrectly
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28
Q

What does high oil temprature likely indicate?

A
  • Low oil quantity, extended time high CHT, high ambient temp
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29
Q

What does no RPM drop during magneto check likely indicate?

A

the other mag is not earthing correctly (most likely) or the other mag was never working at all

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30
Q

What does the engine cutting out during magneto check indicate?

A

Magneto selected not working

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31
Q

What do you do if the CHT reads high?

A
  • Increase airspeed, reduce power, open cowl flaps
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32
Q

What do you do if CHT reads low?

A
  • Decrease airspeed, add power, close cowl flaps
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33
Q

What does low or fluctuating fuel pressure likely indicate?

A

Fuel pump failure, fuel vaporisation (operate boost pump in both scenarios). Leak in fuel lines, blocked fuel vent

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34
Q

What does high fuel pressure likely indicate?

A

Blocked fuel line Acutally a decrease in fuel flow..

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35
Q

What does a higher than normal MAP likely indicate?

A

Waste gate jammed shut

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36
Q

Explain an alternator generator

A
  • Generates electricity by spinning magnet near coil.
  • Generally belt driven from propeller shaft of geared to engine accessory gearbox.
  • Can’t store power
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37
Q

Explain a voltage regulator overvoltage relay

A
  • Maintains correct voltage output from alternator. No pilot input
  • If it fails to regulate excess voltage, overvoltage relay stops excess going to busbar, warning light comes on and alternator isolated (i.e battery supplies power)
  • Can recycle alternator once. If still fails, turn alternator off, follow POH, switch off non-essential electrics and land as soon as practicable
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38
Q

What is a left centre and centre zero ammeter?

A
  • Left centre measures current flowing from the alternator. Zero reading means alternator failed or not running.
  • Centre zero measures current flowing to/from battery. Large charge during flight shows electrical fault, minus means alternator likely failed.
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39
Q

What does a voltmeter show?

A

Volts running to the busbar. Shows 28V w/ 24V battery, 14V for 12V battery

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40
Q

Explain the purpose of circuit breakers

A
  • Isolate equipment if surges threaten to damage it.
  • Rate in amps
  • Will pop and can only be reset once
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41
Q

How does battery ampere hours work?

A

30 a/h can power 30 amps for one hour

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42
Q

Explain the master Bus Bar switch

A

Allows you to turn on/off alternator and battery individually

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43
Q

Explain the starter motor relay

A
  • High current required for starting requires heavy duty wiring.
  • Rather than wiring to the ignition (fire hazard, power loss), relay connects system
  • When key turned, current solenoid creates magnetic field moves rod closing other circuit
  • High current heats starter motor quick, see manual for cranking and cooldown times
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44
Q

Explain the dual ignition distributor switch

A
  • Allows you to control magnetos separately or together
  • Selecting L earths right
  • If no RPM drop, mag not earthing properly or is faulty
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45
Q

Explain an external power receptacle, ground/flight switch

A
  • Ground Power Units provide power on ground without battery or alternator
  • Can be used for start when battery doesn’t have enough powr.
46
Q

Explain overheat - thermal switches

A
  • Activated when heat at certain level
  • Heat sensitive units connected in parallel but in series with indicator lights so only one needs to trigger
47
Q

Explain rate of temperature rise - thermocouple

A
  • Constructed of two dissimilar metals
  • Point connecting two exposed to heat called hot junction
  • Reference junction in dead space between insulation blocks
  • If temp rises rapidly, thermocouple produces voltage because of the temp difference at the two junctions
  • if both heat at same rate, no voltage produced
48
Q

Explain flame sensors

A
  • Optical (UV, IR) that picks up radiation emission from hydrocarbon flames
  • If detected, sensor mildly raises temp causing small volts to be generated which is amplified. Electronic equipment knows the wavelengths to look for ignoring false alarms from sunlight, incandescent lights
49
Q

What audio and visual will show if fire warning devices triggered?

A
  • Red light = bad
  • Sound omni directional i.e don’t need to be looking a certain direction
50
Q

What is a water extinguisher used for?

A

Combustible materials. NOT combustible liquid or electrical

51
Q

What is dry chemical extinguisher used for?

A

Combustible material, liquid fires and electrical if cleaned up afterwards.

52
Q

What is CO2 extinguisher used for?

A

Electrical and flammable liquid fires. Smothers them and deprives of oxygen

53
Q

What is BCF extinguisher used for?

A

Electrical and flammable liquid fires. Visibility reduced and semi toxic so cabin must be ventilated. Only legal for aviation.

54
Q

What are the advantages of air and electrically driven gyroscopes?

A
  • Electric spins faster providing greater rigidity and more stable reference platform
  • Air driven can function during electrical failure
55
Q

What is apparent wander/drift?

A
  • Axis of DI rigid in space and drifts out of alignment as earth rotates
56
Q

When is the min/max apparent wander?

A

Max at poles, zero at the equator

57
Q

What is transport wander?

A

Only occurs when travelling east-west, not north-south. Same as apparent wander, DI rigid in space

58
Q

What is the advantage of having DI connected to a flux valve?

A
  • Flux valve on winds alligns DI to magnetic field which eliminates need to reset every 10-15 mins
  • Turn/accelerator cutout switch cuts feed preventing misreads like normal compass
59
Q

What is the visibility in North Summer?

A

Often reduced in rain areas and thunderstorms in North and bushfires south of region

60
Q

What is the visibility in North Winter?

A

Generally good. SE stream along east coast and high terrain can form low orographic cloud

61
Q

What is the visibility in South Summer?

A

Generally unrestricted apart from dust, smoke in areas

62
Q

What is the visibility in South Winter?

A

Often reduce by bushfires and dust inland. Frequent thunderstorms in South.

63
Q

What are the prevailing winds in the North Summer?

A

Predominantly South-Easterly along East Coast. Light and variable away from the coast. North-West monsoons bring wet season. Local sea breezes.

64
Q

What are the prevailing winds in the North Winter?

A

mostly SE trade winds. Afternoon sea breezes for coastal airports

65
Q

What are the prevailing winds in the South Summer?

A

SE to NE or N. N winds can bring heat waves

66
Q

What are the prevailing winds in the South Winter?

A

Westerly during mid-late winter modified by land breezes. Standing waves E of Great Dividing Range.

67
Q

What are the typical cloud patterns and precipitation in the North Summer?

A

Cu w/ showers along East Coast. NS and rain areas in North and tropical cyclones likely Nov-Apr. Low pressure systems and troughs dominate the North.

68
Q

What are the typical cloud patterns and precipitation in the North Winter?

A

mostly Cu of low vertical extent due to SE winds. Scattered showers along east coast but generally fine

69
Q

What are the typical cloud patterns and precipitation in the South Summer?

A

Mainly Cu clouds. High probability of convective thunderstorms

70
Q

What are the typical cloud patterns and precipitation in the South Winter?

A

Scattered convective cloud in North of region but generally fine. Frequent thunderstorms w/ heavy showers and hail associated w/ cold fronts across the South

71
Q

What are the seasonal pressure and frontal systems in the North Summer?

A

Inter-tropical convergence zone active over North with persistent convergence in troughs

72
Q

What are the seasonal pressure and frontal systems in the North Winter?

A

No frontal activities. Dominated by high pressure systems

73
Q

What are the seasonal pressure and frontal systems in the South Summer?

A

High pressure systems situated South. Ridges of high pressure. Cold fronts are South of the continent and doesn’t effect weather.

74
Q

What are the seasonal pressure and frontal systems in the South Winter?

A

Ridges associated with high pressure systems dominate most of continent. Frequent cold fronts, some fast moving w/ squall lines pose risk.

75
Q

When and where are tropical cyclones likely?

A

North in the summertime between November and April.

76
Q

What is the flying weather associated with a cold front?

A
  • Colder temp
  • Reduced QNH, large clouds w/ vertical extent
  • Showers and possible thunderstorms w/ turbulence
  • NW winds which turn SW
77
Q

What is the flying weather associated with a warm front?

A
  • as front moves, clouds become thicker and lower
  • AC, AS, NS bring heavy continuous rain
  • Risk of clear ice if flying underneath approaching warm front with sub-zero temp
  • Temp rises as warm air comes in
78
Q

What is the flying weather associated with wave depressions?

A

Low pressure area forming along a front that creates a wave like appearance in the pressure field
Can develop into an organised low pressure system bringing storms, rain and severe weather depending on strength
Wind goes clockwise as low pressure system develops

79
Q

What is the flying weather associated with a occluded front?

A
  • clouds are a combination of both fronts
  • thunderstorms can be obscured by other cloud types ‘embedded thunderstorm’
  • Cold, cool, warm air pockets
80
Q

What is the flying weather associated with a tropical cyclone?

A
  • Low vis
  • Severe turbulence
  • Extremely high winds
81
Q

What is the flying weather associated with the equatorial trough?

A
  • convective conditions cause low pressure.
  • Rising air means rising clouds, thunderstorms
82
Q

What are the conditions favourable for the development of a thunderstorm?

A
  • High humidity
  • Lifting mechanism
  • Atmospheric instability
83
Q

What are the signs of a thunderstorm?

A
  • Large puffy clouds with vertical extent and maybe anvil
84
Q

What is the effect on flight characteristics of a thunderstorm?

A
  • Clear ice
  • Severe Turbulence
  • Wind Shear
  • Low Vis
  • Hail
85
Q

What actions are required to minimise the effect of a thunderstorm?

A
  • Stay away by at least 20nm
  • Stay upwind if possible
  • If multiple cells fly between
86
Q

How is surface air temperature and dew point measured?

A

Stevenson screen

87
Q

How does the temp change between above runway and stevenson screen?

A

Temp above runways higher

88
Q

What documents must be carried on all flights under Part 91?

A
  • License
  • Medical
  • Photo ID issued by state, territory or commonwealth
  • Flight manual
  • Computerised navigation equipment operating instructions
89
Q

What additional documents must be carried on flights over 50nm under Part 91 (unless within training area or route to training area)?

A
  • Authorised aeronautical information:

    Weather for route, departure aerodrome, other reasonably available weather information
GAF, Wind and temperature forecast
NOTAMS
  • Flight technical log or maintenance release
90
Q

What documents must be carried on all flights under Part 135?

A

License & Medical - unless CASA given written notice prior to flight or if not practicable within 24 hours after flight ends

91
Q

What additional documents must be carried or available immediately after on flights within 50nm, and must be carried for flights of 50nm under Part 135?

A
  • Flight notification (if required under Part 91)
  • Weight and Balance
  • NOTAMs
  • Weather forecasts for planned route and destination if required
  • If a person onboard requiring a special consideration, a statement identifying the person and their special consideration
  • Computerised navigation equipment operating instructions
92
Q

What is a journey log?

A

Must be prepared for each flight including:
- Aircraft registration or flight number
- Date of flight
- Each crew members name and duties assigned
- Place and time of departure
- Amount of fuel to be added before flight
- Amount of fuel in the tanks
- Place and time of arrival
- Duration of the flight
- Amount of fuel in the tanks when the flight ends
- Incidents and observations

93
Q

When is a journey log not needed?

A

If the information is recorded in another document kept by the operator or it is readily available to the operator from another source. Also does not apply if medical transport flight of urgent nature, will not affect safety of flight and it is completed as soon as practicable after the flight lands.

94
Q

What is a passenger list?

A

Must be prepared prior to the flight including the following:
- Aircraft registration or flight number
- Name of each passenger
- Places of departure and destination for each passenger
- Number of infants carried
- Date, estimated time of departure

95
Q

When is a passenger list not needed?

A

If information is recorded in another document kept by the operator or it is readily available to the operator from another source.

96
Q

What are the common foods that release gas in the stomach and what happens afterwards?

A
  • Common foods that could release gasses in stomach include cabbage, radishes, beans, onions
  • If gasses released in intestinal tract, unable to equalise with outside pressure
  • Large and small intestines can stretch due to pressure changes causing pain
  • More pain felt during climb as pressure reduces
97
Q

What are some factors that could affect a visual scan for traffic?

A
  • When scanning it is recommended to have a short pause while looking in the intended direction as it takes 0.3 seconds for the eye to settle. Saccadian Rhythm
  • Empty field myopia is where the eye has nothing to focus on and rests focus 1-2 meters from the eyes. Gives blurry vision at longer distances and to counteract you must look at close objects, then objects progressively further away
  • Aircraft stays small, then increases exponentially when it gets closer
98
Q

What is environmental stress and what are some causes?

A
  • caused by a stimulus in the environment.
  • excessive heat, cold, noise, vibration, low humidity, hunger and thirst, pain
99
Q

What are the effects of environmental stress?

A

Performance - max performance at moderate amounts of stress. Any more and performance decreases

Health - long term health effects include nausea, indigestion and in longer term ulcers, high blood pressure and heart disease

Behaviour - possible mood swings, anxiety and depression. Eating, drinking and smoking behaviours may also change.

Cognitive Effects - when brain overloaded with stress, it starts ‘shedding the load’. Stress makes you focus on the stressor instead of the task at hand giving you a lack of situational awareness and mental block.

100
Q

What are some decision influences?

A

Conformity - not wanting to be the odd one out

Compliance - likelihood of following a request. Increased by previously refusing an even more unreasonable request or previously accepting a more reasonable request.

Status/Obedience

Risk Shifting - Group decisions often more risky than individual decisions. Sharing blame, risk takers more vocal

101
Q

What is the difference between cockpit authority gradiants?

A

Too Steep: captain dictatorship

Too Shallow: captain and first officer share equally in decision making. In emergency no one in charge

Good: Captain in charge with input from first officer

102
Q

What are the types of communication?

A

Push - giving commands, making statements
Pull - asking questions, making proposal
Open - prompting elaboration
Closed - Yes/No, one word answers
Proposal - “What if”
Command - direct

103
Q

What are some attributes of good leadership?

A
  • Leads by example
  • Establishes task, team and individual needs
  • Advises intent before acting
  • Delegates flying and monitoring duties
  • Evaluates progress
  • Responds to crew inputs
  • Sets and keeps priorities
  • High technical competence
  • Involves crew in decision making
  • Praises good performance
104
Q

Describe how an undesired aircraft state can develop from an unmanaged threat or error.

A

If not properly recognised, a threat can develop into an error. If this error is not given the appropriate response, the aircraft can go into an undesired aircraft state.

An example of this if there is poor weather forecasted it is an expected threat. If you didn’t check the forecast, you can fly into a bad patch of weather you have committed a handling error. If not recognised and dealt with, you can put the aircraft in a Handling Undesired Aircraft State.

105
Q

Explain what resources a pilot could identify and use to avoid or manage an undesired aircraft, state such as being lost or entering adverse weather.

A
  • Countermeasures should be employed to avoid/manage undesired aircraft states.
  • For example, checking the forecast before flight (planning) and an in-built weather radar or simply out the window (execution) during the flight allows you to avoid serious weather.
  • A lost procedure and 1:60 (review) can be used if lost or off track.
106
Q

Explain the importance of ensuring that tasks are prioritised to manage an undesired aircraft state.

A
  • Aviate-Navigate-Communicate.
  • When in an undesired aircraft state, it is important to control the aircraft first to ensure that you are not going to put your safety at risk.
  • Once you have the aircraft under control, it is important to know where you are going and ensure you are not navigating into any terrain and you are heading in the right direction to get home or out of the poor situation you are in.
  • Once you have done this, then you can communicate to other people what your plan is.
  • Doing this out of order will put safety at risk.
107
Q

Describe how establishing and maintaining interpersonal relationships can promote safe flight.

A
  • Interpersonal communication is where there is a 2-way conversation with information flowing back and forth, not simply a 1-way conversation.
  • It is important for comfortable 2-way conversation as 1-way conversations does not facilitate the effective information transfer.
  • 2-way conversation allows the information to be checked and acknowledged by the receiver.
  • If there is not an effective transfer of information, safety risks will arise.
  • E.g a message is misinterpreted and the receiver is not able to confirm they heard correctly or the receiver may spot a safety issue and may feel like they can’t bring it up with the other person.
108
Q

Explain the principles of TEM and detail a process to identify and manage threats and errors during single-pilot operations.

A
  • Threats lead to errors which leads to undesired aircraft states
  • In order to identify and manage threats, it is important to employ countermeasures.
  • An example of this is pre-flighting the aircraft. Pre-flighting the aircraft will allow you to identify a threat (issue with the aircraft) before it develops into a safety issue.
109
Q

What is the equation for CP and what happens when wind is introduced?

A
  • CP = (GS Home x Total Distance) ÷ (GS Out + GS Home)
  • CP moves upwind
110
Q

What is the equation for PNR and what happens when wind is introduced?

A
  • PNR = (GS Home x Safe Endurance) ÷ (GS Out + GS Home)
  • Increase of wind bring PNR closer to the destination aerodrome
  • Distance the PNR moves closer increases with an increase of wind

CPL (9 decks)

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