Flight Test Theory Flashcards
1
Q
What are the recency requirements of a CPL holder?
A
- At least 3 take-offs and landings within the previous 90 days in an aircraft of that category or an approved flight simulator.
- If at night must have done 3 night take-off and landings in the last 90 days.
- This does not apply if you have passed a flight test or relevant check or review in the last 90 days.
2
Q
What are the privileges of a CPL?
A
- Pilot in command any aircraft in any operation, other than Multi-crew aircraft in air transport operation
- Less than 750 hours and an aircraft certified take-off weight more than 5700kg in air transport operation.
3
Q
What are the requirements to gain a CPL?
A
- Must be at least 18 years of age
- Passed the aeronautical knowledge examination for commercial pilot license
- Completed the flight training and passed the associated flight test in an aircraft (does not apply if you get an air transport license)
- Completed Hour requirements
- The cross country flight time required must include a flight of at least 300nm with a full stop landing at two aerodromes not within the flight training area from which the flight began
4
Q
What are the CPL hour requirements?
A
- At least 150 hours of aeronautical experience
- At least 140 hours flight time as pilot of an aeroplane
- At least 70 hours of flight time as pilot in command of an aeroplane
- At least 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command of an aeroplane
- At least 10 hours of instrument time
- At least 5 hours of instrument flight time in an aeroplane
- Any of the required aeronautical experience that is not completed as flight time as a pilot must be completed in an approved simulator
5
Q
How long is a flight review valid for and what must it be completed in?
A
- The end of the 24th month after which the holder completes the flight review
- If you complete a flight review and the validity of the previous flight review is due to expire within 3 months, at the end of the 24th month after the validity of the previous flight review expires.
- Flight review must be in an aircraft of the class covered by the rating or an approved flight simulator
6
Q
What does a flight review include?
A
- Flight test for the rating
- Flight test for an operational rating in an aircraft covered by the aircraft class rating
- Completion of flight training for a design feature endorsement in an aircraft of the class covered by the aircraft class rating
- Flight review for a pilot type rating in an aircraft of a type for the class rating
- Operator proficiency check that covers operations in the class
- Proficiency check in an aircraft of the class or flight simulator
7
Q
What is included in a proficiency check?
A
- Instrument Proficiency check
- Night vision imaging proficiency check
- Aerial application proficiency check
- Instructor proficiency check
- Examiner proficiency check
8
Q
When can you exercise a class rating?
A
- Completed flight training
- Completed a flight review in an aircraft or approved simulator
9
Q
What does Part 61 cover?
A
Flight crew licensing
10
Q
What does part 91 cover?
A
General Operating and Flight Rules
11
Q
What does part 119 cover?
A
Air Transport Operators - Certification and Management
12
Q
What does Part 121 cover?
A
Air Transport Operations - Larger Aeroplanes
13
Q
What does Part 131 cover?
A
Balloons and Large Airships
14
Q
What does Part 133 cover?
A
Air Transport Operations - Rotorcraft
15
Q
What does Part 135 cover?
A
Air Transport Operations - Smaller Aeroplanes
16
Q
When is an operation classed as Part 135?
A
- Air transport operation with an aeroplane of seat configuration of 9 or below and an MTOW of 8618kg and less
17
Q
What does Part 137 cover?
A
Arial Application Operations - Other than Rotorcraft
18
Q
When is an operation classed as Part 137?
A
- A flight that is carried out by an aeroplane to apply application material
- Inspection of a work area;
- Pilot training or checking relating to a flight mentioned in paragraph(a);
- Training of a crew member other than the pilot;
- Travel from a landing area to a work area and back;
- The carriage of a passenger specified in Part 137
- Preparation for any activities mentioned above
19
Q
What does Part 138 cover?
A
Arial Work Operations
20
Q
When is an operation classed as Part 138?
A
- Arial work is defined as a flight that can be put in one of the below categories:
- dispensing operations: a flight where an object has been dropped/released from the aircraft, including training flights. E.g dropping baits
- external load operations: a flight where an external object is carried or towed, including training. E.g Banner towing
- task specialist operations: a flight involving a specialised activity using an aircraft, including training. E.g low level survey
Does not apply to:
- police, customs, national security and - search and rescue operations conducted by a search and rescue body and it is reasonable in the circumstances that the provisions don’t apply.
- Medical transport
- Winching people if it conducted as an air transport operation
- Glider towing
- Person undertaking parachute descent
- Arial work to disperse fire retardants, oil, chemicals if the person hold authority under Part 137
- Any other arial application operation
21
Q
What does Part 141 cover?
A
Recreational, Private and Commercial Pilot Flight Training, Other Than Integrated Courses
22
Q
When is an operation classed as Part 141?
A
- Private and commercial flight training on a non-integrated course
- Recreational flight training
- Training of a type rating
23
Q
What does Part 142 Cover?
A
Integrated and Multi-Crew Flight Training, Contracted Training and Contracted Checking
24
Q
What are the general items that must be in an operations manual?
A
- Operators Name (Including Trading Name
- Address of operators HQ and operating bases
- Description of organisational structure (if corporate corporate structure
- For key personnel:
- Qualifications and experience
required - Responsibilities of each position
- Name of the person appointed
- Name of people to carry out
responsibilities when person in the
position is away and how the
operator will manage responsibilities
- Qualifications and experience
- CEO responsibilities
25
What additional items must be in a part 138 operations manual?
- Arial work operations to be conducted under the AOC
- Plans, processes, procedures on how operator will safely manage air work operations
- For each aircraft aircraft operated under the AOC, the type of aircraft and nationality if foreign
- Arrangement on managing continuing airworthiness of each aircraft
- Description of the operator’s safety policy
- Process to making changes
- Any other matter required to be in the manual under Part 138
26
What additional items must be in a Part 141 operations manual?
- Name of each instructor appointed by HOO to have responsibility
- Program for training Human Factors and non-technical skills
- Details of operators personnel other than key personnel
- Authorised flight training under Part 141 conducted by the operator including training plans, syllabus
- Procedures for conducting and managing flight training including supervision of instructors and students
- If low flying training conducted:
- Determining suitable flight training
area
- How the operator will identify and
address deficiencies
- Description and processes for each simulator
- How operator manages risk of fatigue
- Facilities used by the operator
- Operations other than training
- Dangerous goods manual
- Process for making changes
- Any other matter listed in Part 141
27
What Flight Duty Limit Appendix does RACWA operate under?
Appendix 1 and 4
28
How much sleep opportunity is required under Appendix 1?
- Away from home base, at least 8 consecutive hours of sleep opportunity within 10 hours immediately before
- At home base, at least 8 consecutive hours of sleep opportunity within the 12 hours immediately before
29
What are the FDP and flight time limits under Appendix 1?
- May only be assigned an FDP between the earlier of the beginning of morning civil twilight and 0700 local time and 0100 local time where the FDP commenced the following day.
- FDP must not be longer than 9 hours
- If FDP commences before 0600 or at or after 1400 local, must not be longer than 8 hours
- Can only have no more than 3 consecutive finishes after 2200 local in any consecutive 168 hour period (week).
- Flight training must be within the first 7 hours of FDP
30
What extensions are available under Appendix 1?
- FDP may be extended by up to one hour if FDP has commenced, unforeseen operational circumstances arise, the extension is operationally necessary and FCM is fit for extension
- Flight training up to 30 minutes may be after 7 hours if unforeseen operational circumstances arise after commencement of the FDP, it is operationally necessary to complete the duty and the FCM considers themselves fit to complete the duty.
31
What are the Off-Duty limits under Appendix 1?
- Minimum 12 consecutive hour our off duty period during any 24-hours period
- Before beginning of FDP, must have had at least 36 consecutive hours off duty including 2 local nights in the 168 before the projected end time of the assigned FDP. At least 6 days off duty in the 28 consecutive days before the FDP commences.
- If switching to another Appendix after FDP, must have 12 consecutive hours off duty before commencing new appendix
32
What are the cumulative flight time limits under Appendix 1?
- Must not exceed 100 hours in 28 day period
- Must not exceed 1000 hours in 365 day period
33
What are the drugs and alcohol regulations?
- Period of 8 hours must be between consumption of alcohol and when the flight begins
- 0.02% BAC
- Zero tolerance when it comes to drugs
- CASA has a list of approved medication on their website
34
What are the Part 91 minimum required instruments?
- Airspeed Indicator
- Pressure Altitude:
- Adjustable datum scale calibrated in
millibars or hPa
- Be calibrated in ft, unless overseas
or it is fitted with a meters to feet
conversion placard
- Timepiece:
- Display accurate time in hours,
minutes and seconds
- Be fitted to the aircraft or worn by or
immediately accessible to the pilot
for the duration of the flight
- Magnetic Heading:
- Direct reading magnetic compass or
- Both remote indicating compass and
a standby direct reading magnetic
compass
- Mach number (for aircraft with limitations expressed as mach number)
- Turn and Slip (for aircraft conducting arial work)
- Outside Air Temperature (for aircraft conducting arial work from an aerodrome at which ambient air temperature is not available from ground-based instruments)
35
What are the minimum required instruments under Part 135?
- Airspeed Indicator
- Pressure Altitude
- Adjustable datum scale calibrated in
millibars or hPa
- Be calibrated in ft, unless overseas
or it is fitted with a meters to feet
conversion placard
- Timepiece
- Display accurate time in hours,
minutes and seconds
- Be fitted to the aircraft or worn by
or immediately accessible to the
pilot for the duration of the flight
- Magnetic Heading
- Direct reading magnetic compass or
- Both remote indicating compass
and a standby direct reading
magnetic compass
- Mach number (for aircraft with
limitations expressed as mach number)
- Turn and Slip
- Outside Air Temperature
- If 2 pilots are required, must be fitted with equipment seperate and independent from the above information displaying:
- Indicated Airspeed
- Pressure Altitude
- Mach number (for aircraft with
limitations expressed as mach
number)
- Turn and Slip
- Radio:
- At least 2 independent radio
communication systems capable of
communicating to a ground station,
receiving meteorological
information, at least with 2-way
voice communication at least one
to provide communication on
121.5Hz
- At least 1 VHF and in case of being
outside VHF range another radio
system able to make 2-way
communication with ATS or
operator, or a system cable of
sending a notification to the
operator when activated in an
emergency
36
What are the additional instruments required for the Cessna 182T?
- Main Ammeter
- Flap position indicator
- Elevator trim indicator
- Rudder trim indicator
- Fuel gauge (left and right tank)
- Stall warning system
- System annunciator and warning
displays
- Manifold Pressure Indicator
- Fuel Flow indicator
- Tachometer
- CHT Indicator
- Oil pressure indicator
- Oil temperature indicator
37
When is supplemental oxygen required for flight crew under Part 91?
- Period exceeding 30 mins when cabin pressure altitude is continuously between FL125 and FL140
- For any flight above FL140 there must be oxygen for the entire period
- When a pressurised aircraft is flown above FL250, there must be at least 10 minutes supply even if the flight is less than 10 minutes
38
When is supplemental oxygen required for passengers under Part 91?
- For any period above FL150, there must be supply for the entire period
- When a pressurised aircraft is flown above FL250, there must be at least 10 minutes supply even if the flight is less than 10 minutes
39
When is an ELT not required under Part 91?
- Single seat aircraft
- The flight is related to aircraft manufacture, preparation or delivery following purchase or transfer
- Positioning of Australian aircraft from outside Australia and will be registered with AMSA
- The aircraft is flown within 50nm of place of departure
40
How many ELTs must be carried under Part 91 when more than one life raft is required?
An automatic and survival ELT or carry at least 2 survival ELTs
41
Does an aircraft need to carry a survival ELT if outside of glide range of a suitable landing area over water?
Yes, unless:
- Single seat aircraft
- The flight is related to aircraft manufacture, preparation or delivery following purchase or transfer
- Positioning of Australian aircraft from outside Australia and will be registered with AMSA
- The aircraft has a radio or other means of continuous communication to someone on the ground and is capable of alerting someone in the event of an emergency
42
Where must a survival ELT be placed if required to be carried?
- With a crew member
- In or adjacent to a life raft
- Adjacent to emergency exit
43
When must an aircraft carry handheld fire extinguishers under Part 91 and where must they be put?
- Over 5700kg
- 1 in flight crew compartment
- 1 in or readily accessible for each galley
- 1 accessible for cargo compartments
- Passenger compartment (see table)
- With pax sharing same compartment as flight crew less than 10 pax, 1 available to PIC. 10 or more pax 1 for PIC 1 for Pax
44
When are life jackets required and what are the requirements under Part 91?
- Single engine aircraft flown over water outside of gliding range from a suitable landing area unless take-off or descending for landing at an aerodrome and is flown with a normal navigation procedure for the aerodrome
- For infants, life jacket or equivalent flotation device that may have a whistle
- For each other person they must have a life jacket and whistle
- The life jacket must be worn if at or below 2000ft
45
When is a life raft required and how many are needed under Part 91?
- For single engine aircraft it is the shortest distance of 30 minutes in a cruise or 100nm.
- Must carry rafts for room for each person
46
When is survival equipment required and how much must be carried under Part 91?
During flights over remote areas, the flight must carry survival equipment for sustaining life, appropriate to remote area flown.
47
When is supplemental oxygen required for flight crew under Part 135?
- For flights between 10’000ft and 13’000ft for more than 30 minutes, there must be supply for the period after the first 30 minutes
- There must be supply for the full period above 13’000ft
48
When is supplemental oxygen required for passengers under Part 135?
- For flights between 10’000ft and 13’000ft for more than 30 minutes, there must be supply for at least 10% of the passengers for the period after 30 minutes
- There must be supply for the full period above 13’000ft
49
When is an automatic ELT required to be carried under Part 135?
All flights unless:
- The flight is shorter than 50nm and is carrying a survival ELT or
- The ELT is unserviceable and the flight is for the purpose of taking the aircraft for repair, a survivable ELT is carried and there are no passengers carried on the flight.
50
How many fire extinguishers are required under Part 135?
- 1 in the flight crew compartment
- For seat configuration of 7 or more, 1 in the passenger compartment
- Cargo or luggage compartment that is accessible in flight and not fixed with fire extinguishing system, at least 1 fire extinguisher
- Seating capacity of not more than 9, in which the flight crew and passengers occupy the same compartment, 1 readily available to the pilot in command.
51
What are the first aid kit requirements under Part 135?
- First aid kit with enough supplies for the persons on board must be carried
- It must also be readily recognisable and readily accessible by each crew member and adult passenger
52
What are the life jacket requirements under Part 135?
- If during an emergency while take-off and landing it is likely to land in water, over water outside of glide range from a suitable landing area life jackets must be carried
- For infants, life jacket or equivalent flotation device that may have a whistle
- For each other person they must have a life jacket and whistle
- Life jackets must be worn at all times unless taking off/landing from aerodrome in accordance with normal navigation procedure or flying above 2000ft above the water.
53
What are the life raft requirements under Part 135?
- In a single engine aeroplane outside of gliding range of suitable landing area, a life raft must be carried
- A raft must provide a place for each person on the aeroplane, be equipped with a survival light and survival ELT, stowed in a manner that it can be readily deployed
- If stowed in a compartment or container, must be conspicuously marked as containing a life raft
- If taking off or landing at an aerodrome using normal navigational procedures life raft not needed
- If the total over water is 5 minutes at normal cruise speed and gliding distance from a suitable forced landing area, and the operator’s exposition includes measures to mitigate risk to passengers from a forced somewhere that is not a suitable landing area.
54
What must the PIC take into account when it comes to landing areas under Part 91?
- LDA
- Runway surface material and condition
- Pressure altitude and temperature
- Gradient of the runway
- Wind direction, speed and characteristics
- Landing weather forecast
- Obstacles in approach path and missed approach path
55
What must the PIC take into consideration for take-off/landing under Part 135?
- Take-off/Landing configuration
- Pressure Altitude and temperature
- Runway surface material and condition
- Runway slope
- Not more than 50% of headwind component and not less then 150% of tailwind component
- Obstacles in the vicinity of the flight path
56
What is the separation minima for take-off at non-controlled aerodrome?
- Preceding aircraft crossed the upwind end of the runway or commenced a turn
- Runway longer than 1800m and aircraft is airborne and at least 1800m past proposed lift-off of your aircraft
- Both aircraft have MTOW below 2,000kg and other aircraft airborne at least 600m beyond proposed liftoff point
- Landing aircraft has vacated the runway
- Landing aircraft crossed or stop short of cross runway
57
What is the separation minima for landing at non-controlled aerodrome?
- Preceding aircraft airborne and commenced turn
- Taking off aircraft beyond the point you expect to complete landing roll
- Landing aircraft vacated or taxiing away from runway
- Landing aircraft stopped short or crossed cross runway
58
What fuel is required under Part 91 and 138?
- Taxi: As REQ
- Trip Fuel
- Final Reserve: 30 min
- Alternate, Holding, Additional fuel: If
Req
59
What fuel is required under Part 135?
- Taxi - As req
- Trip Fuel
- Contingency - 10% or 5 min whichever is more
- Final Reserve: 45 minutes
- Alternate, Holding, Additional fuel: If
Req
60
What is the alternate minima?
- Cloud: More than scattered below 1500ft. Few plus Few = SCT, Few+SCT= BKN, SCT+SCT=BKN or OVC
- Visibility: Less than 8km or at least 30% probability of fog, mist, dust etc reducing vis below 8km.
- At least 30% Probability of thunderstorm or associated severe turbulence
- Wind: Crosswind or tailwind component more than maximum for the aircraft
- No active forecast for destination
61
When is holding fuel required?
- 30 minutes for an INTER, 60 minutes for a TEMP
- When there are multiple INTER and TEMP, you must choose the most limiting requirement and the INTER and TEMPO are not cumulative
62
What holding fuel is required for FM or BECMG?
- In the event of FM or BECMG creating an operation requirement, the operational requirement is effective 30 minutes before start of FM or BECMG time
- In the event of FM or BECMG removing an operational requirement, the operational requirement is effective 30 minutes after the end of the BECMG or FM period.
- The above is relevant from period 30 minutes before and after validity of the forecast
63
When does a TAF 3 remove holding requirements?
- The holding/alternate fuel for FM or BECMG buffers, the PROB30+ reduction in visibility and PROB30+ for thunderstorms don’t apply for a TAF3 forecast in the first 3 hours of the TAF3 validity.
64
What is the minimum distance for a fire hazard when refuelling?
15m
65
How many fire extinguishers must be available when refuelling?
At least 2 fire extinguishers capable of fighting fuel and electrical fires and meets Australian standards between 6m and 15m from the aircraft during refuelling
66
Which electrical equipment can be within 15m when refuelling?
No electrical equipment can be operated within 15m of a critical fuelling point unless:
- Part of the fuelling equipment
- Designed for use during fuelling operations
- Performs an aircraft servicing function and is safe for use
- Complies with an industry standard
- An auxiliary power unit that starts before the refuelling starts and the flight manual permits
- The device is only hazardous because it produces radio emissions and is operated at least 6m from each critical refuelling point.
67
Which aircraft can be hotfuelled?
Only turbine aircraft
68
Can passengers be on board during refuelling?
A person who is not a crew member can not board, disembark or be in the aircraft during refuelling.
69
When must a safety brief be given under Part 91?
A passenger must be given a safety briefing unless they have previously been on the aircraft, received the brief and it is not necessary to give the same safety briefing and instructions.
70
When must seatbelts be worn under Part 91?
Must be briefed to wear seatbelt and have an upright setback during take-off, landing and taxi and when the pilot directs
71
What are the seatbelt exceptions under Part 91?
- An infant is restrained if carried in the arms or lap of an adult occupying the seat, the adults seatbelt is not around the infant and the infant is restrained by an effective restraining device.
- If the person suffers a detriment by being restrained by a seatbelt and the PIC agrees they are otherwise safely restrained.
- If there person is ill or incapacitated, the PIC agrees to the passenger not adjusting their seat and they are otherwise safely restrained and will not affect the safety of other passengers
72
What are the cargo limitations under Part 91?
- Cargo must not be carried where it will damage, obstruct or cause failure of, control, electrical wiring, pipeline or any other equipment that is essential to the safe operation of the aircraft.
- Cargo must not exceed the load limitations of the floor structure set out in flight manual or a placard
- Cargo (other than passenger service equipment or temporarily used galley equipment) must not obstruct an aisle
- Cargo must not obstruct or restrict access to an emergency exit unless they hold a permit from CASA
- If carried on a seat, cargo can not exceed 77kg per seat unless permitted by the manufacturer and must not interfere with the safe operation of the aircraft.
- The PIC must give permission to a passenger to carry an animal and take reasonable steps to ensure the animal does not have an adverse effect on the safety of the aircraft.
- If more than one flight crew member is required, cargo is in a baggage compartment, the compartment will need to be accessed in the case of a fire, cargo can not be placed in a manner where all parts of the compartment can’t be reached with a fire extinguisher
73
What safety briefing is required under Part 135?
- Safety briefing, instruction and demonstration must be given to a passenger before an aircraft takes flight
- Specific briefing to person with reduced mobility and anyone accompanying must be given with instructions on what to do in an emergency evacuation and be given to a form appropriate to passenger and accompanying person
- Passenger responsible for infants must be given a specific brief on when and how the infant must be restrained and the location of infant life jackets
- Before landing at which the passenger could be reasonably expected to remember the instructions before the flight ends, seatbelts, setbacks, seat attachments stowed.
74
What is the limitation for carry-on baggage under Part 135?
Operator’s exposition must include procedures on storing carry-on, determining the maximum weight and size, determining the location where carry on can be stowed and giving instructions to passengers about securely stowing carry-on baggage at take-off, landing and any time the pilot directs.
75
What are the restrictions for the emergency exits under Part 135?
- Emergency exits can’t be obstructed during taxiing, take-off, landing and anytime the pilot directs.
- An emergency exit is not obstructed if a seat adjacent is occupied by a passenger.
- This does not apply if it is medical transport and the exit is blocked by a stretcher fit-out that is identified in a supplemental type certificate.
- Each person occupying a seat adjacent to an emergency exit must be suitable or accompanied by someone who is suitable, they must agree to assist
76
When is a safety briefing card required and what must it contain under Part 135?
- If a flight has more than 2 rows, a safety briefing card must be available to each passenger
- The card must include information involved in Part135 and any relevant information to do with the aircraft or relevant to the safety of the aircraft and it’s passenger.
77
Name 4 items under schedule 8 CAR?
1. Removal or installation of landing gear tyres, if the it does not involve the complete jacking of
the aircraft.
2. Repair of pneumatic tubes of landing gear tyres.
3. Servicing of landing gear wheel bearings.
4. Replacement of defective safety wiring or split pins, but not including wiring or pins in control
systems.
5. Removal or refitting of a door, but only if:
(a) no disassembly of the primary structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved; and
(b) if the aircraft is to be operated with the door removed—the aircraft has a flight manual and
the manual indicates that the aircraft may be operated with the door removed.
6. Replacement of side windows in an unpressurised aircraft.
7. Replacement of seats, but only if the replacement does not involve disassembly of any part of
the primary structure of the aircraft.
8. Repairs to the upholstery or decorative furnishings of the interior of the cabin or cockpit.
9. Replacement of seat belts or harnesses.
10. Replacement or repair of signs and markings.
11. Replacement of bulbs, reflectors, glasses, lenses or lights.
12. Replacement, cleaning, or setting gaps of, spark plugs.
13. Replacement of batteries.
14. Changing oil filters or air filters.
15. Changing or replenishing engine oil or fuel.
16. Lubrication not requiring disassembly or requiring only the removal of non‑structural parts, or
of cover plates, cowlings and fairings.
17. Replenishment of hydraulic fluid.
18. Application of preservative or protective materials, but only if no disassembly of the primary
structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved.
19. Removal or replacement of equipment used for agricultural purposes.
20. Removal or replacement of glider tow hooks.
21. Carrying out of an inspection under regulation 42G of a flight control system that has been
assembled, adjusted, repaired, modified or replaced.
22. Carrying out of a daily inspection of an aircraft.
23. Connection and disconnection of optional dual control in an aircraft without the use of any
tools for the purpose of transitioning the aircraft from single to dual, or dual to single, pilot
operation.
24. Inspections or checks set out in the following documents in circumstances where the
document clearly states that the maintenance may be carried out by the pilot of the aircraft
and the maintenance does not require the use of any tools or equipment:
(a) the aircraft’s approved maintenance data;
(b) the aircraft’s flight manual or an equivalent document;
(c) any instructions issued by the NAA that approved the type certificate for the aircraft.
25. For an aircraft that is installed with an oxygen system for the exclusive use of ill or injured
persons on an aircraft used to perform ambulance functions—replenishing the oxygen system
installed on the aircraft.
78
What is Vy?
80kts
79
What are the power settings to obtain max rate climb?
Full power, 2400RPM
80
What is Vx?
65kts
81
What power settings are required to obtain max angle climb?
Full power 2400RPM
82
What is Vne?
175kts
83
What is Vno?
140kts
84
What is Vs?
0° - 51kts
10° - 44kts
30° - 41kts
85
What is best glide speed?
3100lbs - 76kts
2600lbs - 70kts
2100lbs - 59kts
86
What is Va?
3100lbs - 110kts
2600lbs - 101kts
2100lbs - 91kts
87
What is Vb?
Same as Va
88
What is Vfe?
10° - 140kts
20° - 120kts
30° - 100kts
89
What is max window open speed?
175kts
90
What is a normal climb speed?
85-95kts
91
What is the max crosswind?
15kts
92
What is the red arc?
20-41kts
93
What is the white arc?
41-100kts
94
What is the green arc?
51-140kts
95
What is the yellow arc?
140-175kts
96
What is the MTOW?
1406kg
97
What is the engine?
Lycoming IO-540-AB1A5
98
How much power does the engine have?
230BHP @ 2400RPM
99
What is the engine type?
Normally aspirated, direct drive, air cooled, horizontally opposed, fuel injected, six cylinder, 540 cubic inches displacement
100
What is the propeller type?
McCauley 79 inch tri-blade
Constant speed and hydraulically actuated.
101
What is the total fuel, useable and type
Total - 348L (92 US Gallons)
Useable - 329L (87 US Gallons)
Type - 100, 100LL AVGAS
102
What is the oil requirements?
Max total - 9 quartz
Max in sump - 8 quartz
Minimum for flight - 4 quartz
103
What are the max weights?
Ramp - 1410kg (3110 lbs)
Take-off - 1406kg (3100lbs)
Landing - 1338kg (2950lbs)
104
What is the basic empty weight?
913.7kg
105
What is the max baggage?
Area A - 54kg
Area B - 36kg
Area C - 36kg
Total - 90kg
106
What are the manoeuvre limits?
- This airplane is certificated in the normal category which is applicable to non aerobatic operations.
- These include any manoeuvres incidental to normal flying, stalls (except whip stalls), lazy eights, chandelles, and turns in which the angle of bank is not more than 60°.
- Aerobatic manoeuvres, including spins, are not approved.
107
What are the load factor limits?
Flaps up: +3.6 -1.52G
Flaps down: +2.0G
108
What are the engine failure after take-off speeds?
Flaps up - 75kts
Flaps down - 70kts
109
What is the recommended starter cycle?
- Operate the starter motor for 10 seconds followed by a 20 second cool down period.
- This cycle can be repeated two additional times, followed by a ten minute cool down period before resuming cranking.
- After cool down, operate the starter motor again, three cycles of 10 seconds followed by 20 seconds of cool down.
- If the engine still does not start, try to find the cause
110
What speed does the stall horn sound?
5-10 kts above stall
111
What brakes does the 182 have?
Hydraulically actuated disk brakes
112
What type of lubrication system does the 182 have?
Wet sump using aviation grade oil with the oil returning to sump by gravity
113
How does the fuel injection system work?
- Fuel delivered by engine driven pump
- The fuel/air control unit correctly proportions the fuel flow to the induction air flow
- Induction air is delivered to the cylinders through the intake manifold tubes and metered fuel is delivered to a fuel manifold
- The fuel manifold, evenly distributes the fuel to an air-bleed type injector nozzle in the intake valve chamber of each cylinder
114
When do you use the auxilary fuel pump?
Mainly priming but also if vapourisation suspected
115
How many volts is the electrical system?
28V with a 24V battery
116
Where is the battery?
Tailcone
117
What is the purpose of the standby battery and where is it located?
Supplies power to the essential bus in the event of alternator and main battery failure.
Located between the firewall and instrument panel
118
Where does the alt static take pressure from?
Inside the cabin and needs to be calibrated
119
What types of flaps does the 182 have?
Single slot fowler flap. Flaps slide backwards on rails increasing surface area and camber.
120
What types of ailerons does the 182 have?
Frise ailerons. Bottom of up going flap protrudes into airflow reducing adverse yaw.
121
What is the max service ceiling?
18,000ft
122
What are the auto pilot engage speeds?
70-165kts
123
Which magneto controls which spark plugs?
The left magneto fires the upper left and lower right spark plugs
The right magneto fires the lower left and upper right spark plugs.
124
What is the fuel injection system type?
Fuel injected using an engine driven fuel pump. Fuel/air control unit proportions fuel flow.
125
What is the fuel system?
Gravity flow from tanks through selector valve, auxiliary fuel pump, fuel strainer, the engine driven pump.
Vents protrude from bottom surface of the wing. In case these vents are blocked, fuel filler cap vents will open
126
How much fuel does the bottom of the fuel filler indicator and the holes in the fuel filler indicator represent?
Bottom - 32 gallons each tank
Holes - 37 gallons each tank
127
What brake system is on the aircraft and what are some signs of impending failure?
Single disk hydraulically actuated brake on each main wheel.
Soft spongey brakes, increased travel, noisy or dragging brakes.
128
What system recognises pressure altitude, airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and outside air temperature?
Air Data Computer
129
What system recognises attitude and flight characteristics?
Attitude and Heading reference system. A magnetometer prevents the need to align heading indicator with the compass.
130
What are the benefits of a fuel injected system?
- Far less prone to icing
- Fuel distributed more evenly to each cylinder, therefore more even power and temperature at each cylinder
131
What documents must be on board for a part 91 flight?
License
Medical
Photo ID for each crew member
Flight manual
Operating instructions for computer navigation equipment
Unless performing aerobatics and and carriage of documents present a risk to safety
If longer than 50nm require authorised aeronautical information and maintenance release or flight technical log
132
What are the minimum height requirements of a populated area?
1000ft above the highest object in a horizontal radius of 600m
133
What are the minimum height requirements over an unpopulated area?
500ft above the highest feature within a horizontal radius of 300m
134
When can a person not smoke on an aircraft?
During take-off and landing
When the pilot directs
A no smoking sign is shown
135
What are the special VFR visibility requirements?
1.6km vis
Clear of cloud
By day
136
What does a steady green light mean?
In flight - authorised to land if clear
On ground - authorised to take-off if clear
137
What does a steady red light mean?
In flight - Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
On ground - Stop
138
What does green flashing light mean?
In flight - Return for landing
On ground - Authorised to taxi if clear
139
What does red flashing light mean?
In flight - aerodrome unsafe do not land
On ground - taxi clear of landing area
140
What does white flashing light mean?
In flight - N/A
On ground - return to starting point
141
What does a horizontal dumb-bell mean?
Use hard surfaces only
142
What does a single white cross mean?
Next to windsock - Aerodrome inoperative
On manoeuvring area - area unfit for aircraft
143
What is the VMC criteria in class A,B,C,E or G below 10,000ft?
5,000m vis
1500m horizontal
1000ft vertical clear of cloud
144
What is the VMC criteria in class D?
5000m vis
600m horizontal
1000ft vertical above
500ft vertical below cloud
145
When must a flight plan, SARTIME or flight note be submitted?
Air transport
Flight outside of gliding range over water
Beyond 120nm from aerodrome
Flight over designated remote area
146
Who is classed as a responsible person for a flight note?
Over 18 years
At least two means of communicating search and rescuing
Knows how to contact joint rescue communication centre
Will immediately do so in the event the PIC is overdue
147
Can firearms be carried under Part 91?
Yes, if:
- The aircraft is prescribed
- The operator and pilot has consented
The above does not apply if the person is authorised to carry a firearm on the aircraft under another law of the commonwealth
148
Can firearms be discharged under Part 91?
No, unless the person is authorised to carry a firearm on the aircraft under another law of the commonwealth
149
How old is a child?
Someone who has turned 2 but not 13
150
How old is an infant?
Someone who has not yet turned 2
151
What categories must the aircraft be type certified for Part 135 operations?
- Transport
- Commuter
- Normal
- A category prescribed in Part 135 MOS
152
What is an AOC?
Air Operators Certificate
Certificate that allows an operator to conduct specific commercial air transport operations, including the carriage of passengers or cargo
153
What are the normal operations
of the CSU?
- Made up of propeller hub, speeder spring, plunger and flyweights
- Speeder spring and flyweights opposing forces and as flyweights speed up, move plunger up letting oil into the hub which coarsens the pitch and reducing RPM
- Opposite happens when flyweights slow down
- Occurs constantly to maintain a constant RPM
154
What are the abnormal operations
of the CSU?
- Loss of oil pressure: oil flows from hub and goes full fine. Risk of overspeed
- Pitch cable breaks: oil flows from the hub and goes full fine. Risk of overspeed
- Speeder spring breaks: flyweights overpower spring and oil flows to the hub. Prop goes coarse and becomes sluggish
155
What is the sleep opportunity required under appendix 4?
- 8 consecutive hours in the previous 10 hours away from base
- 8 consecutive hours in the previous 12 hours away from base
156
What are the max flight duty hours according to RACWA Ops Manual?
0500-0559: 9
0600-0759: 10
0800-1059: 11
1100-1359: 10
1400-2259: 9
2300-0459: 8
157
What are the split duty increases with suitable resting accomodation in Appendix 4?
At least 2 consecutive hours in accomodation. FDP increases by half of rest period with a max of 2 hours.
158
What are the split duty increases with sleeping accomodation under appendix 4?
At least 4 consecutive hours in accomodation allows increase up to 4 hours.
159
What are the split duty requirements between 2300 and 0529 local under appendix 4?
If split duty includes any period in this time, the rest period must be at least 7 hours in suitable sleeping accomodation, FDP may be increased to 15 hours and reduction in off duty and cumulative duty does not apply
160
What is the max amount of time that can be assigned following a split duty rest period under appendix 4?
5 hours
161
What are the delay requirements under Appendix 4 when there is no Ops Manual procedures?
Must be given 10 hours notice
If not, FDP starts at original time
162
What are the delay requirements under Appendix 4 when there is Ops Manual procedures?
- At home base, at least 2 hours notice before original and subsequent reporting times required
- Away from home base, at least 1 hour notice before original and subsequent reporting times required
- Period between original and new reporting time classed as standby
- If FCM not informed in required time, FDP starts from the later of original reporting time and new reporting time where they were given enough notice
- Off duty period requirements apply whether or not the flight goes ahead
- Single delay of 10 hours or more classed as off duty period and new FDP
can be given subject to applicable limits
- If delayed as per above, and new reporting time is within 4 hours, the maximum FDP is the more limiting of the original reporting time and new reporting time
- If delayed as per above and new reporting time is at least 4 hours after original reporting time, the FDP is considered to have started 4 hours after original reporting time and the maximum FDP is the more limiting of the original reporting time and commencement of the FDP.
- Combined duration of 1 or more delays must not exceed 16 hours without a split duty rest period
163
Can an AOC assign an FCM a modified FDP under appendix 4?
Yes, if the limits in the ops manual are not exceeded and they confirmed they are fit for reassignment
164
What are the extensions under appendix 4?
- FDP may be extended by an hour if unforeseen operational circumstances arise and FCM is fit for extension
- Flight training up to 30 mins may be conducted after the first 7 hours if unforeseen operational circumstances arise, it is operationally necessary to complete the duty and FCM considers themselves fit for the extension
- FDP may not be extended if it exceeds cumulative limits
- If unforeseen operations circumstances arise on the final sector, any limits can be extended and the flight may continue to the destination or alternate at the discretion of PIC
165
What are the standby requirements under appendix 4?
- Max standby 14 hours
- Max allowable FDP after a callout from standby must be decreased by the amount of hours the standby exceeds 4 hours
- Standby completed without a callout must be followed by 10 hour off duty period
- Standby like arrangement treated as duty period
166
What does appendix 4 say about positioning?
- FCM may be positioned following assigned flight duties in an FDP
- Positioning time added to FDP when determining off duty periods
167
What is the off duty period at home base <12 hours FDP according to Appendix 4?
10 hours and the amount of time displacement time exceeds 3 hours travelling West and 2 hours travelling East
168
What is the off duty period away from home base <12 hours FDP according to Appendix 4?
12 hours and the amount of time displacement time exceeds 3 hours travelling West and 2 hours travelling East
169
What is the off duty period >12 hours FDP according to appendix 4?
12 hours plus 1.5 times the time the duty exceeds 12 hours and the amount of time displacement time exceeds 3 hours travelling West and 2 hours travelling East
170
When can the ODP be reduced under appendix 4?
If off duty period calculated more than 14 hours, the ODP is away from home base, off duty period following second FDP at least 36 hours with 2 local nights, the ODP in the middle may be reduced to not less than 14 hours.
If sum of FDP and duty period does not exceed 10 hours, off duty period prior was at least 12 hours including a local night, ODP 2 undertaken over a local night away from home base, the ODP following the next FDP is at least 12 hours, then the ODP in the middle may be reduced to not less than 9 hours.
If off duty period calculated more than 14 hours, the ODP is away from home base, off duty period following second FDP at least 36 hours with 2 local nights, the ODP in the middle may be reduced to not less than 14 hours.
171
What are the cumulative ODP requirements under appendix 4?
Must have at least 36 consecutive hours including 2 local nights off duty in any 168 hours before projected end time of FDP or standby
Must have at least 6 days of duty in 28 consecutive days before the standby of FDP commences
172
What are the cumulative flight time limits under appendix 4?
100 hours in a 28 day period
1000 hours in a year
173
What are the cumulative duty limits under appendix 4?
60 hours in a week
100 hours in a fortnight
174
What are the early start requirements under appendix 4?
- Must not be assigned more than 3 consecutive early starts (0500 and 0659 local)
- May have a 4th early start if max FDP reduced by 2 hours and 5th early start if max FDP reduced by 4 hours
175
What are the WOCL limits according to the appendix 4?
- If 3 consecutive WOCL (0200 and 0559), must not be assigned another without an intervening ODP that includes a local night
