Flight Test Theory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the recency requirements of a CPL holder?

A
  • At least 3 take-offs and landings within the previous 90 days in an aircraft of that category or an approved flight simulator.
  • If at night must have done 3 night take-off and landings in the last 90 days.
  • This does not apply if you have passed a flight test or relevant check or review in the last 90 days.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the privileges of a CPL?

A
  • Pilot in command any aircraft in any operation, other than Multi-crew aircraft in air transport operation
  • Less than 750 hours and an aircraft certified take-off weight more than 5700kg in air transport operation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the requirements to gain a CPL?

A
  • Must be at least 18 years of age
  • Passed the aeronautical knowledge examination for commercial pilot license
  • Completed the flight training and passed the associated flight test in an aircraft (does not apply if you get an air transport license)
  • Completed Hour requirements
  • The cross country flight time required must include a flight of at least 300nm with a full stop landing at two aerodromes not within the flight training area from which the flight began
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the CPL hour requirements?

A
  • At least 150 hours of aeronautical experience
  • At least 140 hours flight time as pilot of an aeroplane
  • At least 70 hours of flight time as pilot in command of an aeroplane
  • At least 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command of an aeroplane
  • At least 10 hours of instrument time
  • At least 5 hours of instrument flight time in an aeroplane
  • Any of the required aeronautical experience that is not completed as flight time as a pilot must be completed in an approved simulator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long is a flight review valid for and what must it be completed in?

A
  • The end of the 24th month after which the holder completes the flight review
  • If you complete a flight review and the validity of the previous flight review is due to expire within 3 months, at the end of the 24th month after the validity of the previous flight review expires.
  • Flight review must be in an aircraft of the class covered by the rating or an approved flight simulator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does a flight review include?

A
  • Flight test for the rating
  • Flight test for an operational rating in an aircraft covered by the aircraft class rating
  • Completion of flight training for a design feature endorsement in an aircraft of the class covered by the aircraft class rating
  • Flight review for a pilot type rating in an aircraft of a type for the class rating
  • Operator proficiency check that covers operations in the class
  • Proficiency check in an aircraft of the class or flight simulator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is included in a proficiency check?

A
  • Instrument Proficiency check
  • Night vision imaging proficiency check
  • Aerial application proficiency check
  • Instructor proficiency check
  • Examiner proficiency check
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When can you exercise a class rating?

A
  • Completed flight training
  • Completed a flight review in an aircraft or approved simulator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does Part 61 cover?

A

Flight crew licensing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does part 91 cover?

A

General Operating and Flight Rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does part 119 cover?

A

Air Transport Operators - Certification and Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does Part 121 cover?

A

Air Transport Operations - Larger Aeroplanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does Part 131 cover?

A

Balloons and Large Airships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does Part 133 cover?

A

Air Transport Operations - Rotorcraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does Part 135 cover?

A

Air Transport Operations - Smaller Aeroplanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is an operation classed as Part 135?

A
  • Air transport operation with an aeroplane of seat configuration of 9 or below and an MTOW of 8618kg and less
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does Part 137 cover?

A

Arial Application Operations - Other than Rotorcraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is an operation classed as Part 137?

A
  • A flight that is carried out by an aeroplane to apply application material
  • Inspection of a work area;
  • Pilot training or checking relating to a flight mentioned in paragraph(a);
  • Training of a crew member other than the pilot;
  • Travel from a landing area to a work area and back;
  • The carriage of a passenger specified in Part 137
  • Preparation for any activities mentioned above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does Part 138 cover?

A

Arial Work Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is an operation classed as Part 138?

A
  • Arial work is defined as a flight that can be put in one of the below categories:
  • dispensing operations: a flight where an object has been dropped/released from the aircraft, including training flights. E.g dropping baits
  • external load operations: a flight where an external object is carried or towed, including training. E.g Banner towing
  • task specialist operations: a flight involving a specialised activity using an aircraft, including training. E.g low level survey

Does not apply to:
- police, customs, national security and - search and rescue operations conducted by a search and rescue body and it is reasonable in the circumstances that the provisions don’t apply.
- Medical transport
- Winching people if it conducted as an air transport operation
- Glider towing
- Person undertaking parachute descent
- Arial work to disperse fire retardants, oil, chemicals if the person hold authority under Part 137
- Any other arial application operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does Part 141 cover?

A

Recreational, Private and Commercial Pilot Flight Training, Other Than Integrated Courses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is an operation classed as Part 141?

A
  • Private and commercial flight training on a non-integrated course
  • Recreational flight training
  • Training of a type rating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does Part 142 Cover?

A

Integrated and Multi-Crew Flight Training, Contracted Training and Contracted Checking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the general items that must be in an operations manual?

A
  • Operators Name (Including Trading Name
  • Address of operators HQ and operating bases
  • Description of organisational structure (if corporate corporate structure
  • For key personnel:
    • Qualifications and experience
      required
    • Responsibilities of each position
    • Name of the person appointed
    • Name of people to carry out
      responsibilities when person in the
      position is away and how the
      operator will manage responsibilities
  • CEO responsibilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What additional items must be in a part 138 operations manual?

A
  • Arial work operations to be conducted under the AOC
  • Plans, processes, procedures on how operator will safely manage air work operations
  • For each aircraft aircraft operated under the AOC, the type of aircraft and nationality if foreign
  • Arrangement on managing continuing airworthiness of each aircraft
  • Description of the operator’s safety policy
  • Process to making changes
  • Any other matter required to be in the manual under Part 138
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What additional items must be in a Part 141 operations manual?

A
  • Name of each instructor appointed by HOO to have responsibility
  • Program for training Human Factors and non-technical skills
  • Details of operators personnel other than key personnel
  • Authorised flight training under Part 141 conducted by the operator including training plans, syllabus
  • Procedures for conducting and managing flight training including supervision of instructors and students
  • If low flying training conducted:
    • Determining suitable flight training
      area
    • How the operator will identify and
      address deficiencies
  • Description and processes for each simulator
  • How operator manages risk of fatigue
  • Facilities used by the operator
  • Operations other than training
  • Dangerous goods manual
  • Process for making changes
  • Any other matter listed in Part 141
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What Flight Duty Limit Appendix does RACWA operate under?

A

Appendix 1 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How much sleep opportunity is required under Appendix 1?

A
  • Away from home base, at least 8 consecutive hours of sleep opportunity within 10 hours immediately before
  • At home base, at least 8 consecutive hours of sleep opportunity within the 12 hours immediately before
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the FDP and flight time limits under Appendix 1?

A
  • May only be assigned an FDP between the earlier of the beginning of morning civil twilight and 0700 local time and 0100 local time where the FDP commenced the following day.
  • FDP must not be longer than 9 hours
  • If FDP commences before 0600 or at or after 1400 local, must not be longer than 8 hours
  • Can only have no more than 3 consecutive finishes after 2200 local in any consecutive 168 hour period (week).
  • Flight training must be within the first 7 hours of FDP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What extensions are available under Appendix 1?

A
  • FDP may be extended by up to one hour if FDP has commenced, unforeseen operational circumstances arise, the extension is operationally necessary and FCM is fit for extension
  • Flight training up to 30 minutes may be after 7 hours if unforeseen operational circumstances arise after commencement of the FDP, it is operationally necessary to complete the duty and the FCM considers themselves fit to complete the duty.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the Off-Duty limits under Appendix 1?

A
  • Minimum 12 consecutive hour our off duty period during any 24-hours period
  • Before beginning of FDP, must have had at least 36 consecutive hours off duty including 2 local nights in the 168 before the projected end time of the assigned FDP. At least 6 days off duty in the 28 consecutive days before the FDP commences.
  • If switching to another Appendix after FDP, must have 12 consecutive hours off duty before commencing new appendix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the cumulative flight time limits under Appendix 1?

A
  • Must not exceed 100 hours in 28 day period
  • Must not exceed 1000 hours in 365 day period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the drugs and alcohol regulations?

A
  • Period of 8 hours must be between consumption of alcohol and when the flight begins
  • 0.02% BAC
  • Zero tolerance when it comes to drugs
  • CASA has a list of approved medication on their website
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the Part 91 minimum required instruments?

A
  • Airspeed Indicator
  • Pressure Altitude:
    • Adjustable datum scale calibrated in
      millibars or hPa
    • Be calibrated in ft, unless overseas
      or it is fitted with a meters to feet
      conversion placard
  • Timepiece:
    • Display accurate time in hours,
      minutes and seconds
    • Be fitted to the aircraft or worn by or
      immediately accessible to the pilot
      for the duration of the flight
  • Magnetic Heading:
    • Direct reading magnetic compass or
    • Both remote indicating compass and
      a standby direct reading magnetic
      compass
  • Mach number (for aircraft with limitations expressed as mach number)
  • Turn and Slip (for aircraft conducting arial work)
  • Outside Air Temperature (for aircraft conducting arial work from an aerodrome at which ambient air temperature is not available from ground-based instruments)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the minimum required instruments under Part 135?

A
  • Airspeed Indicator
  • Pressure Altitude
    • Adjustable datum scale calibrated in
      millibars or hPa
    • Be calibrated in ft, unless overseas
      or it is fitted with a meters to feet
      conversion placard
  • Timepiece
    • Display accurate time in hours,
      minutes and seconds
    • Be fitted to the aircraft or worn by
      or immediately accessible to the
      pilot for the duration of the flight
  • Magnetic Heading
    • Direct reading magnetic compass or
    • Both remote indicating compass
      and a standby direct reading
      magnetic compass
  • Mach number (for aircraft with
    limitations expressed as mach number)
  • Turn and Slip
  • Outside Air Temperature
  • If 2 pilots are required, must be fitted with equipment seperate and independent from the above information displaying:
    • Indicated Airspeed
    • Pressure Altitude
    • Mach number (for aircraft with
      limitations expressed as mach
      number)
    • Turn and Slip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the additional instruments required for the Cessna 182T?

A
  • Main Ammeter
  • Flap position indicator
  • Elevator trim indicator
  • Rudder trim indicator
  • Fuel gauge (left and right tank)
  • Stall warning system
  • System annunciator and warning
    displays
  • Manifold Pressure Indicator
  • Fuel Flow indicator
  • Tachometer
  • CHT Indicator
  • Oil pressure indicator
  • Oil temperature indicator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When is supplemental oxygen required for flight crew under Part 91?

A
  • Period exceeding 30 mins when cabin pressure altitude is continuously between FL125 and FL140
  • For any flight above FL140 there must be oxygen for the entire period
  • When a pressurised aircraft is flown above FL250, there must be at least 10 minutes supply even if the flight is less than 10 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When is supplemental oxygen required for passengers under Part 91?

A
  • For any period above FL150, there must be supply for the entire period
  • When a pressurised aircraft is flown above FL250, there must be at least 10 minutes supply even if the flight is less than 10 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When is an ELT not required under Part 91?

A
  • Single seat aircraft
  • The flight is related to aircraft manufacture, preparation or delivery following purchase or transfer
  • Positioning of Australian aircraft from outside Australia and will be registered with AMSA
  • The aircraft is flown within 50nm of place of departure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How many ELTs must be carried under Part 91 when more than one life raft is required?

A

An automatic and survival ELT or carry at least 2 survival ELTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Does an aircraft need to carry a survival ELT if outside of glide range of a suitable landing area over water?

A

Yes, unless?

  • Single seat aircraft
  • The flight is related to aircraft manufacture, preparation or delivery following purchase or transfer
  • Positioning of Australian aircraft from outside Australia and will be registered with AMSA
  • The aircraft has a radio or other means of continuous communication to someone on the ground and is capable of alerting someone in the event of an emergency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where must a survival ELT be placed if required to be carried?

A
  • With a crew member
  • In or adjacent to a life raft
  • Adjacent to emergency exit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When must an aircraft carry handheld fire extinguishers under Part 91 and where must they be put?

A
  • Over 5700kg
  • 1 in flight crew compartment
  • 1 in or readily accessible for each galley
  • 1 accessible for cargo compartments
  • Passenger compartment (see table)
  • With pax sharing same compartment as flight crew less than 10 pax, 1 available to PIC. 10 or more pax 1 for PIC 1 for Pax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When are life jackets required and what are the requirements under Part 91?

A
  • Single engine aircraft flown over water outside of gliding range from a suitable landing area unless take-off or descending for landing at an aerodrome and is flown with a normal navigation procedure for the aerodrome
  • For infants, life jacket or equivalent flotation device that may have a whistle
  • For each other person they must have a life jacket and whistle
  • The life jacket must be worn if at or below 2000ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When is a life raft required and how many are needed under Part 91?

A
  • For single engine aircraft it is the shortest distance of 30 minutes in a cruise or 100nm.
  • Must carry rafts for room for each person
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When is survival equipment required and how much must be carried under Part 91?

A

During flights over remote areas, the flight must carry survival equipment for sustaining life, appropriate to remote area flown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When is supplemental oxygen required for flight crew under Part 135?

A
  • For flights between 10’000ft and 13’000ft for more than 30 minutes, there must be supply for the period after the first 30 minutes
  • There must be supply for the full period above 13’000ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When is supplemental oxygen required for passengers under Part 135?

A
  • For flights between 10’000ft and 13’000ft for more than 30 minutes, there must be supply for at least 10% of the passengers for the period after 30 minutes
  • There must be supply for the full period above 13’000ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When is an automatic ELT required to be carried under Part 135?

A
  • All flights unless the flight is shorter than 50nm or the ELT is unserviceable and the flight is for the purpose of taking the aircraft for repair, a survivable ELT is carried and there are no passengers carried on the flight.
  • If the flight is under 50nm and an automatic ELT is not carried, a survival ELT is required
50
Q

How many fire extinguishers are required under Part 135?

A
  • 1 in the flight crew compartment
  • For seat configuration of 7 or more, 1 in the passenger compartment
  • Cargo or luggage compartment that is accessible in flight and not fixed with fire extinguishing system, at least 1 fire extinguisher
  • Seating capacity of not more than 9, in which the flight crew and passengers occupy the same compartment, 1 readily available to the pilot in command.
51
Q

What are the first aid kit requirements under Part 135?

A
  • First aid kit with enough supplies for the persons on board must be carried
  • It must also be readily recognisable and readily accessible by each crew member and adult passenger
52
Q

What are the life jacket requirements under Part 135?

A
  • If during an emergency while take-off and landing it is likely to land in water, over water outside of glide range from a suitable landing area life jackets must be carried
  • For infants, life jacket or equivalent flotation device that may have a whistle
  • For each other person they must have a life jacket and whistle
  • Life jackets must be worn at all times unless taking off/landing from aerodrome in accordance with normal navigation procedure or flying above 2000ft above the water.
53
Q

What are the life raft requirements under Part 135?

A
  • In a single engine aeroplane outside of gliding range of suitable landing area, a life raft must be carried
  • A raft must provide a place for each person on the aeroplane, be equipped with a survival light and survival ELT, stowed in a manner that it can be readily deployed
  • If stowed in a compartment or container, must be conspicuously marked as containing a life raft
  • If taking off or landing at an aerodrome using normal navigational procedures life raft not needed
  • If the total over water is 5 minutes at normal cruise speed and gliding distance from a suitable forced landing area, and the operator’s exposition includes measures to mitigate risk to passengers from a forced somewhere that is not a suitable landing area.
54
Q

What must the PIC take into account when it comes to landing areas under Part 91?

A
  • LDA
  • Runway surface material and condition
  • Pressure altitude and temperature
  • Gradient of the runway
  • Wind direction, speed and characteristics
  • Landing weather forecast
  • Obstacles in approach path and missed approach path
55
Q

What must the PIC take into consideration for take-off/landing under Part 135?

A
  • Take-off/Landing configuration
  • Pressure Altitude and temperature
  • Runway surface material and condition
  • Runway slope
  • Not more than 50% of headwind component and not less then 150% of tailwind component
  • Obstacles in the vicinity of the flight path
56
Q

What is the separation minima for take-off at non-controlled aerodrome?

A
  • Preceding aircraft crossed the upwind end of the runway or commenced a turn
  • Runway longer than 1800m and aircraft is airborne and at least 1800m past proposed lift-off of your aircraft
  • Both aircraft have MTOW below 2,000kg and other aircraft airborne at least 600m beyond proposed liftoff point
  • Landing aircraft has vacated the runway
  • Landing aircraft crossed or stop short of cross runway
57
Q

What is the separation minima for landing at non-controlled aerodrome?

A
  • Preceding aircraft airborne and commenced turn
  • Taking off aircraft beyond the point you expect to complete landing roll
  • Landing aircraft vacated or taxiing away from runway
  • Landing aircraft stopped short or crossed cross runway
58
Q

What fuel is required under Part 91 and 138?

A
  • Taxi: As REQ
  • Trip Fuel
  • Final Reserve: 30 min
  • Alternate, Holding, Additional fuel: If
    Req
59
Q

What fuel is required under Part 135?

A
  • Taxi - As req
  • Trip Fuel
  • Contingency - 10% or 5 min whichever is more
  • Final Reserve: 45 minutes
  • Alternate, Holding, Additional fuel: If
    Req
60
Q

What is the alternate minima?

A
  • Cloud: More than scattered below 1500ft. Few plus Few = SCT, Few+SCT= BKN, SCT+SCT=BKN or OVC
  • Visibility: Less than 8km or at least 30% probability of fog, mist, dust etc reducing vis below 8km.
  • At least 30% Probability of thunderstorm or associated severe turbulence
  • Wind: Crosswind or tailwind component more than maximum for the aircraft
  • No active forecast for destination
61
Q

When is holding fuel required?

A
  • 30 minutes for an INTER, 60 minutes for a TEMP
  • When there are multiple INTER and TEMP, you must choose the most limiting requirement and the INTER and TEMPO are not cumulative
62
Q

What holding fuel is required for FM or BECMG?

A
  • In the event of FM or BECMG creating an operation requirement, the operational requirement is effective 30 minutes before start of FM or BECMG time
  • In the event of FM or BECMG removing an operational requirement, the operational requirement is effective 30 minutes after the end of the BECMG or FM period.
  • The above is relevant from period 30 minutes before and after validity of the forecast
63
Q

When does a TAF 3 remove holding requirements?

A
  • The holding/alternate fuel for FM or BECMG buffers, the PROB30+ reduction in visibility and PROB30+ for thunderstorms don’t apply for a TAF3 forecast in the first 3 hours of the TAF3 validity.
64
Q

What is the minimum distance for a fire hazard when refuelling?

65
Q

How many fire extinguishers must be available when refuelling?

A

At least 1 fire extinguisher capable of fighting fuel and electrical fires and meets Australian standards between 6m and 15m from the aircraft during refuelling

66
Q

Which electrical equipment can be within 15m when refuelling?

A

No electrical equipment can be operated within 15m of a critical fuelling point unless:

  • Part of the fuelling equipment
  • Designed for use during fuelling operations
  • Performs an aircraft servicing function and is safe for use
  • Complies with an industry standard
  • An auxiliary power unit that starts before the refuelling starts and the flight manual permits
  • The device is only hazardous because it produces radio emissions and is operated at least 6m from each critical refuelling point.
67
Q

Which aircraft can be hotfuelled?

A

Only turbine aircraft

68
Q

Can passengers be on board during refuelling?

A

A person who is not a crew member can not board, disembark or be in the aircraft during refuelling.

69
Q

When must a safety brief be given under Part 91?

A

A passenger must be given a safety briefing unless they have previously been on the aircraft, received the brief and it is not necessary to give the same safety briefing and instructions.

70
Q

When must seatbelts be worn under Part 91?

A

Must be briefed to wear seatbelt and have an upright setback during take-off, landing and taxi

71
Q

What are the seatbelt exceptions under Part 91?

A
  • An infant is restrained if carried in the arms or lap of an adult occupying the seat, the adults seatbelt is not around the infant and the infant is restrained by an effective restraining device.
  • If the person suffers a detriment by being restrained by a seatbelt and the PIC agrees they are otherwise safely restrained the above does not apply.
  • If there person is ill or incapacitated, the PIC agrees to the passenger not adjusting their seat and they are otherwise safely restrained and will not affect the safety of other passengers, the first point also doesn’t apply.
72
Q

What are the cargo limitations under Part 91?

A
  • Cargo must not be carried where it will damage, obstruct or cause failure of, control, electrical wiring, pipeline or any other equipment that is essential to the safe operation of the aircraft.
  • Cargo must not exceed the load limitations of the floor structure set out in flight manual or a placard
  • Cargo (other than passenger service equipment or temporarily used galley equipment) must not obstruct an aisle
  • Cargo must not obstruct or restrict access to an emergency exit unless they hold a permit from CASA
  • If carried on a seat, cargo can not exceed 77kg per seat unless permitted by the manufacturer and must not interfere with the safe operation of the aircraft.
  • The PIC must give permission to a passenger to carry an animal and take reasonable steps to ensure the animal does not have an adverse effect on the safety of the aircraft.
  • If more than one flight crew member is required, cargo is in a baggage compartment, the compartment will need to be accessed in the case of a fire, cargo can not be placed in a manner where all parts of the compartment can’t be reached with a fire extinguisher
73
Q

What safety briefing is required under Part 135?

A
  • Safety briefing, instruction and demonstration must be given to a passenger before an aircraft takes flight
  • Specific briefing to person with reduced mobility and anyone accompanying must be given with instructions on what to do in an emergency evacuation and be given to a form appropriate to passenger and accompanying person
  • Passenger responsible for infants must be given a specific brief on when and how the infant must be restrained and the location of infant life jackets
  • Before landing at which the passenger could be reasonably expected to remember the instructions before the flight ends, seatbelts, setbacks, seat attachments stowed.
74
Q

What is the limitation for carry-on baggage under Part 135?

A

Operator’s exposition must include procedures on storing carry-on, determining the maximum weight and size, determining the location where carry on can be stowed and giving instructions to passengers about securely stowing carry-on baggage at take-off, landing and any time the pilot directs.

75
Q

What are the restrictions for the emergency exits under Part 135?

A
  • Emergency exits can’t be obstructed during taxiing, take-off, landing and anytime the pilot directs.
  • An emergency exit is not obstructed if a seat adjacent is occupied by a passenger.
  • This does not apply if it is medical transport and the exit is blocked by a stretcher fit-out that is identified in a supplemental type certificate.
  • Each person occupying a seat adjacent to an emergency exit must be suitable or accompanied by someone who is suitable, they must agree to assist
76
Q

When is a safety briefing card required and what must it contain under Part 135?

A
  • If a flight has more than 2 rows, a safety briefing card must be available to each passenger
  • The card must include information involved in Part135 and any relevant information to do with the aircraft or relevant to the safety of the aircraft and it’s passenger.
77
Q

Name 4 items under schedule 8 CAR?

A
  1. Removal or installation of landing gear tyres, if the it does not involve the complete jacking of
    the aircraft.
  2. Repair of pneumatic tubes of landing gear tyres.
  3. Servicing of landing gear wheel bearings.
  4. Replacement of defective safety wiring or split pins, but not including wiring or pins in control
    systems.
  5. Removal or refitting of a door, but only if:
    (a)no disassembly of the primary structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved; and
    (b)if the aircraft is to be operated with the door removed—the aircraft has a flight manual and
    the manual indicates that the aircraft may be operated with the door removed.
  6. Replacement of side windows in an unpressurised aircraft.
  7. Replacement of seats, but only if the replacement does not involve disassembly of any part of
    the primary structure of the aircraft.
  8. Repairs to the upholstery or decorative furnishings of the interior of the cabin or cockpit.
  9. Replacement of seat belts or harnesses.
    10.Replacement or repair of signs and markings.
    11.Replacement of bulbs, reflectors, glasses, lenses or lights.
    12.Replacement, cleaning, or setting gaps of, spark plugs.
    13.Replacement of batteries.
    14.Changing oil filters or air filters.
    15.Changing or replenishing engine oil or fuel.
    16.Lubrication not requiring disassembly or requiring only the removal of non‑structural parts, or
    of cover plates, cowlings and fairings.
    17.Replenishment of hydraulic fluid.
    18.Application of preservative or protective materials, but only if no disassembly of the primary
    structure or operating system of the aircraft is involved.
    19.Removal or replacement of equipment used for agricultural purposes.
    20.Removal or replacement of glider tow hooks.
    21.Carrying out of an inspection under regulation42G of a flight control system that has been
    assembled, adjusted, repaired, modified or replaced.
    22.Carrying out of a daily inspection of an aircraft.
    23.Connection and disconnection of optional dual control in an aircraft without the use of any
    tools for the purpose of transitioning the aircraft from single to dual, or dual to single, pilot
    operation.
    24.Inspections or checks set out in the following documents in circumstances where the
    document clearly states that the maintenance may be carried out by the pilot of the aircraft
    and the maintenance does not require the use of any tools or equipment:
    (a)the aircraft’s approved maintenance data;
    (b)the aircraft’s flight manual or an equivalent document;
    (c)any instructions issued by the NAA that approved the type certificate for the aircraft.
    25.For an aircraft that is installed with an oxygen system for the exclusive use of ill or injured
    persons on an aircraft used to perform ambulance functions—replenishing the oxygen system
    installed on the aircraft.
78
Q

What is Vy?

79
Q

What are the power settings to obtain rate climb?

A

Full power, 2400RPM

80
Q

What is Vx?

81
Q

What power settings are required to obtain max angle climb?

A

Full power 2400RPM

82
Q

What is Vne?

83
Q

What is Vno?

84
Q

What is Vs?

A

0° - 51kts
10° - 44kts
30° - 41kts

85
Q

What is best glide speed?

A

3100lbs - 76kts
2600lbs - 70kts
2100lbs - 59kts

86
Q

What is Va?

A

3100lbs - 110kts
2600lbs - 101kts
2100lbs - 91kts

87
Q

What is Vb?

A

Same as Va

88
Q

What is Vfe?

A

10° - 140kts
20° - 120kts
30° - 100kts

89
Q

What is max window open speed?

90
Q

What is a normal climb speed?

91
Q

What is the max crosswind?

92
Q

What is the red arc?

93
Q

What is the white arc?

94
Q

What is the green arc?

95
Q

What is the yellow arc?

A

140-175kts

96
Q

What is the MTOW?

97
Q

What is the engine?

A

Lycoming IO-540-AB1A5

98
Q

How much power does the engine have?

A

230BHP @ 2400RPM

99
Q

What is the engine type?

A

Normally aspirated, direct drive, air cooled, horizontally opposed, fuel injected, six cylinder, 540 cubic inches displacement

100
Q

What is the propeller type?

A

McCauley 79 inch tri-blade
Constant speed and hydraulically actuated.

101
Q

What is the total fuel, useable and type

A

Total - 348L (92 US Gallons)
Useable - 329L (87 US Gallons)
Type - 100, 100LL AVGAS

102
Q

What us the oil requirements?

A

Max total - 9 quartz
Max in sump - 8 quartz
Minimum for flight - 4 quartz

103
Q

What are the max weights?

A

Ramp - 1410kg (3110 lbs)
Take-off - 1406kg (3100lbs)
Landing - 1338kg (2950lbs)

104
Q

What is the basic empty weight?

105
Q

What is the max baggage?

A

Area A - 54kg
Area B - 36kg
Area C - 36kg
Total - 90kg

106
Q

What are the manoeuvre limits?

A
  • This airplane is certificated in the normal category which is applicable to non aerobatic operations.
  • These include any manoeuvres incidental to normal flying, stalls (except whip stalls), lazy eights, chandelles, and turns in which the angle of bank is not more than 60°.
  • Aerobatic manoeuvres, including spins, are not approved.
107
Q

What are the load factor limits?

A

Flaps up: +3.6 -1.52G
Flaps up: +2.0G

108
Q

What are the engine failure after take-off speeds?

A

Flaps up - 75kts
Flaps down - 70kts

109
Q

What is the recommended starter cycle?

A
  • Operate the starter motor for 10 seconds followed by a 20 second cool down period.
  • This cycle can be repeated two additional times, followed by a ten minute cool down period before resuming cranking.
  • After cool down, operate the starter motor again, three cycles of 10 seconds followed by 20 seconds of cool down.
  • If the engine still does not start, try to find the cause
110
Q

What speed does the stall horn sound?

A

5-10 kts above stall

111
Q

What brakes does the 182 have?

A

Hydraulically actuated disk brakes

112
Q

What type of lubrication system does the 182 have?

A

Wet sump using aviation grade oil with the oil returning to sump by gravity

113
Q

What spark plugs are on each magneto?

A

Left - Upper left and lower right
Right - Upper right and lower left

114
Q

How does the fuel injection system work?

A
  • Fuel delivered by engine driven pump
  • The fuel/air control unit correctly proportions the fuel flow to the induction air flow
  • Induction air is delivered to the cylinders through the intake manifold tubes and metered fuel is delivered to a fuel manifold
  • The fuel manifold, evenly distributes the fuel to an air-bleed type injector nozzle in the intake valve chamber of each cylinder
115
Q

How does fuel flow from the tanks?

A

Gravity fed to selector valve

116
Q

When do you use the auxilary fuel pump?

A

Mainly priming but also if vapourisation suspected

117
Q

How many volts is the electrical system?

A

28V with a 24V battery

118
Q

Where is the battery?

119
Q

Where does the alt static take pressure from?

A

Inside the cabin and needs to be calibrated

120
Q

What types of flaps does the 182 have?

A

Single slot fowler flap

121
Q

What types of ailerons does the 182 have?

A

Frise ailerons