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KC-135 Super Gouge > KC135 EP Closed Book (rev 22.0)_15 Mar 18 > Flashcards

KC135 EP Closed Book (rev 22.0)_15 Mar 18 Flashcards

1
Q

There are four escape ropes: two are above the pilot’s seat, one above the copilots’ seat and one over the _______

A

Aft emergency exit hatch

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2
Q

Fire fighter equipment containers are located in the control cabin _______ and in the cargo compartment ________

A

Above the main entrance hatch; aft of the emergency exit hatch

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3
Q

Proper adjustment of the seat and the rudder pedals is especially critical for takeoff, approach and landing where _________ may be required for safe operation of the airplane

A

Full deflection of the control surfaces

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4
Q

If a hot start, torch (tail pipe fire), hung start or sub-idle start stall condition occurs:

A

set the throttle to cutoff and continue to motor the engine

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5
Q

Under all conditions, if the throttle is inadvertently retarded to CUTOFF position there will be an _________. Do not reopen the throttle. Introducing unburned fuel into the tailpipe area can create a ____ hazard.

A

Immediate flameout; fire

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6
Q

If any engine does not reach the ______ setting between _____ and _____ kts, the takeoff shall be aborted

A

charted N1; 40; 80

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7
Q

For dry runway conditions, the most effective nose wheel steering occurs at about ____ to ____ degrees of steering wheel turn

A

12; 15

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8
Q

During ground run (3pt attitude), do not allow the airplane to bank beyond ___ degrees due to the possibility of dragging a nacelle

A

4

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9
Q

Rotation should never be initiated prior to rotate speed. It is highly advantageous to _______ and ________

A

delay rotation when runway and obstacle clearance permit

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10
Q

Premature retraction of the landing gear with its momentary drag increase could cause the airplane to ________ unless adequate climb margin has been established.

A

settle

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11
Q

External power must be turned off at the external power cart __________

A

before plug is removed from the airplane’s external power receptacle

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12
Q

The over wing hatches are opened from the interior by grasping a fixed handle on the upper center of the hatch and pulling _______ on the lock handle on the right side

A

downward

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13
Q

The hatch (located forward of boom operator compartment) is opened from the interior by grasping the fixed handle near the upper center and ______ a lock handle near it.

A

rotating

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14
Q

The emergency signal to prepare to abandon the airplane on the ground is _________ of the alarm bell

A

three short rings

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15
Q

The emergency signal to abandon the airplane on the ground is _______ of the alarm bell

A

one long sustained ring

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16
Q

The BOLDFACE for ABORT:

A

Throttles - Idle (P,CP)
Brakes - Apply (P,CP)
Speed Brakes - 60 Degrees (P,CP)

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17
Q

Whenever excessive braking has been used during an abort, consider _________

A

abandoning the airplane

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18
Q

If during an abort, a safe stop appears improbable, retard the throttles to _____

A

Cutoff

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19
Q

If collision with an obstruction is probable during an abort, a _______ should be attempted, terrain permitting, or attempt to ______

A

ground loop; retract the landing gear

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20
Q

With a large number of passengers on board, deployment of the emergency escape slide will be necessary. However, do not deploy the escape slide if ______ or other conditions would be detrimental to safe deployment

A

excessive wind

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21
Q

The only indication to the pilots of an APU fire is illumination of the _______ fire light.

A

APU

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22
Q

Automatic stopping of the APU may indicate _____________

A

a fire or an overheat condition within the unit

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23
Q

(APU Fire) If fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned and ensure the _______ is set. Pilot will shut down all engines by retarding all throttles to _______. Shut down the APU by setting APU control switch to _____ and/or trip external power. Turn off ________ switches and ________ switch before leaving the airplane.

A

Parking brake; cutoff; stop; engine starter; battery power

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24
Q

If the emergency dictates, and the APU has not shut down automatically, the APU may be shut down by using the _________________

A

normal procedure

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25
Q

Do not reset any of the 115/200v AC fuel ___________ circuit breakers, if they are open, until proper inspections and repairs have been made

A

boost pump or override pump

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26
Q

The decision to takeoff or abort should be based on the following considerations: a. If any emergency or _________ occurs prior to S1, ______ the takeoff. b. If an emergency occurs after S1 is reached, the takeoff is ________

A

loss of thrust; abort; committed

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27
Q

The takeoff will not be aborted after _____ unless, in the opinion of the pilot, the emergency renders the airplane __________ (loss of thrust exceeds the equivalent of loss of one engine).

A

S1; incapable of flight

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28
Q

In those cases where the pilot attempts to abort after S1, be aware that the airplane will probably ______ within the confines of the runway when S1 is at or near refusal speed

A

fail to stop

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29
Q

The BOLDFACE for ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND (Nacelle Fire) is:

A

THROTTLE - CUT-OFF (P,CP)
FIRE SWITCH - PULL (P,CP)
EXTINGUISHER SWITCH - PRESS, IF REQUIRED (P,CP)

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30
Q

A nacelle fire is indicated by a _________, _________, or by a ____________ crew observation

A

Fire warning light; compartment overheat light; ground

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31
Q

(Engine Fire on Ground) If the fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned. Ensure the parking brake is set. Pilot will shut down all engines by retarding all throttles to ____. Shutdown APU by setting APU control switches to _____ and/or tripping external power. Turn off the engine starter switches and _______ before leaving the airplane.

A

Cutoff; stop; Battery power switch

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32
Q

Do not reengage the starter until below _______ rpm. ______ can occur if reengaged above _______ rpm

A

25% N2; Starter damage; 25% N2

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33
Q

(Manual Start) If N2 rotation does not occur within 2-3 seconds of opening the bleed valve, ________immediately

A

close the engine bleed valve

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34
Q

Use extreme caution during taxi operations if nose gear steering is inoperative. The airplane should only be taxied ________

A

as necessary to clear the active runway

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35
Q

After a high energy refused takeoff or braked landing, the peak temperatures are reached in the brake housing approximately _____ min after braking

A

30

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36
Q

Snow and ice accumulation in any significant degree must be removed from the airplane prior to flight. Snow or ice accumulation can increase ______ and adversely affect climb out performance, stalling speed, and handling characteristics. Inflight _______ can result from vibrations induced by unremoved accumulations.

A

takeoff distances; structural damage

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37
Q

Ice, frost or snow on top of de-icing or anti-icing fluids _____________

A

must be considered as adhering to the airplane; takeoff should not be attempted

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38
Q

Do not attempt takeoff when slush and water puddles on the runway exceed _______ in depth. When slush or puddles are less then ______ in depth, takeoff distances may increase up to ______

A

1/2 inch; 1/2 inch; 25%

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39
Q

Adjust the seat and rudder pedals so that the knee can be ______ at full pedal travel with allowance for compression of clothing and seat back cushion.

A

Locked

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40
Q

If the flight director command bars fail during or immediately after takeoff, climb out at recommended ______ climbout airspeed (3 engines) or recommended three engine climb out airspeed plus _____ knots (4 engines) with the takeoff flap setting.

A

three engine; 10

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41
Q

A bank angle of 30 degrees at climb out speed with flaps down could reduce climb capability as much as _______fpm

A

400

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42
Q

If an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climb out speed, on a max mode takeoff, continue to climb at the speed attained at the point of _________

A

engine failure

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43
Q

Any unusual rolling moment encountered during flap operation could indicate an _________ main or fillet flap condition for which corrective action must be taken immediately

A

asymmetrical

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44
Q

The alarm bell signal to prepare for ditching or crash landing is ______

A

six short rings

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45
Q

The alarm bell signal for ditching or crash landing is ______

A

one long sustained ring

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46
Q

The alarm bell signal for ______ or ________ immediately after takeoff is one long sustained ring

A

Ditching; Crash landing

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47
Q

When an airborne emergency occurs, the following rules apply:

A

Fly the airplane; Stop, think, collect your wits

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48
Q

The BOLDFACE for CRASH LANDING OR DITCHING IMMEDIATELY AFTER TAKEOFF is:

A

FLAPS - 50 DEGREES (P,CP)
GEAR - DOWN, UNLESS OVER WATER (P,CP)
THROTTLES - CUT-OFF AFTER TOUCHDOWN (P,CP)

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49
Q

The copilot gives the “brace for crash landing” warning over the ______ position of the interphone and one long ring on the alarm bell at the direction of the pilot.

A

call

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50
Q

(Crash Landing) Crewmembers unsnap parachute harnesses, tighten shoulder harness and safety belts and _____________

A

lock inertial reels

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51
Q

Pilot maintains the ______ approach speed and lands straight ahead, changing directions only enough to miss obstacles. Make contact with the ground in the normal __________

A

appropriate; landing attitude

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52
Q

(Crash Landing) Extension of the gear for impact is considered beneficial from the stand point of lessening the severity of impact, but not to the extent that an excessive _________ or uncontrollable situation is created. Delay extension If necessary to _________. Prudent judgment must be exercised in determining action to be taken.

A

rate of descent; clear obstructions

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53
Q

The crewmember is prevented from bending forward when the shoulder harness inertial reel is locked. Therefore all switches not readily accessible should be ________ prior to locking the shoulder harness.

A

set as desired

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54
Q

(Crash Landing) Do not cut the engines prior to ______. This would result in a loss, after a few seconds, of all _________ and all _________ except that still remaining in the accumulators. Loss of hydraulic power will cause the spoilers to blow down after only a few seconds of operation on accumulator pressure. Electrical control of the stabilizer trim will be lost, leaving only manual trim.

A

touchdown; primary electrical power; hydraulic pressure

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55
Q

A complete separation of the nose radome from the aircraft will result in inaccurate indications of _______, _______, ________, and __________

A

airspeed; Mach no.; altitude; vertical velocity

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56
Q

With _______ inoperative, VMCG can increase by as much as ______kts

A

EFAS; 25

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57
Q

While still on the rwy, do not advance the throttle on the asymmetric engine beyond the ________ since added thrust can cause loss of control.

A

T/O setting

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58
Q

Be ____________ for engine failure

A

mentally prepared

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59
Q

Airspeed indicator errors exist during sideslip. An actual airspeed _________ kts lower than indicated will exist at ______ degrees of sideslip

A

7; 10

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60
Q

During rotation to takeoff attitude, do not allow the airplane to bank beyond _____ degrees due to the possibility of dragging an outboard engine nacelle.

A

8

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61
Q

Failure of an outboard engine necessitates _______ pilot response to prevent deviations from the takeoff path

A

immediate

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62
Q

On wet and icy runways, even with optimum technique, deviations up to ____ ft. from the takeoff path can be expected.

A

30

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63
Q

Charted ground min control speeds for a dry runway are based on the immediate use of _____ and corresponding _______

A

rudder; NWS

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64
Q

During actual or simulated engine loss, limit bank angle to ______ degrees until as a minimum, the landing gear is up and maneuvering speed is reached.

A

15

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65
Q

If a catastrophic engine failure occurs accompanied by a fire, take prompt action to pull fire switch and discharge extinguishing agent. Failure to accomplish these actions promptly can result in loss of _______ controls due to burned electrical wiring bundle

A

Fire Switch

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66
Q

Throttle reduction in response to a failed engine/engine flameout during takeoff or initial climb out after takeoff should not be made prior to ______________

A

landing gear retraction

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67
Q

Takeoff should not be attempted if the oil pressure is more than ______ psi. Bearing failure die to plugged oil jets can result

A

92

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68
Q

If the flap indicators or visual inspection reflect an asymmetric main flap condition and a rolling moment is present, the flap lever should be set to the ____________

A

Asymmetric flap position indication

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69
Q

If all means of flap synchronization fail and conditions permit, institute ________(if required) and land as soon as possible.

A

fuel dumping

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70
Q

When the main flaps are retracted and one or both leading edge flaps remain extended, the airplane should be flown with caution at load factors in excess of 1.5 g’s in the speed range between ____ and _____ kts.

A

215;305

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71
Q

Do not operate the forward A/R pumps and the ________ simultaneously. Slow operation of the ______ with reduced climb performance will result.

A

Landing gear; gear

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72
Q

Do not operate the aft A/R pumps and the ______ simultaneously. Slow operation of the powered rudder with reduced rudder effectiveness will result.

A

wing flaps

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73
Q

If the leading edge flaps fail to retract when the outboard flaps are raised above the 6 deg position and the outboard spoiler switch is in NORMAL, you should ___________

A

place the outboard spoiler to CUT-OFF

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74
Q

If a stabilizer trim runaway occurs at or below S1, simultaneously, the pilot flying will ______ and the pilot monitoring will ____________

A

abort the takeoff; set the stabilizer trim cutout switch to CUTOUT

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75
Q

For nose up trim, set the inboard spoiler switch to CUTOFF and raise the speed brakes. This configuration provides approx. ______ of equivalent trim in takeoff configuration

A

2-3 units

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76
Q

If there is a disparity between airspeed indicators, the ____________ may be used to determine which indicators are most accurate

A

speed deviation indicators

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77
Q

To determine which airspeed indicator is most accurate, the aircraft should be flown with wings level so that the speed deviation pointer indicates _______ (0.6 AOA) and the airspeed reading at 0.6 AOA should compare with the corresponding airspeed, for the aircraft weight and configuration obtained from the 1-1.

A

“On speed”

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78
Q

If during a climb all airspeed indicators are determined to be inaccurate, continue max climb thrust and maintain ____ deg of pitch on the ADI for gross weights up to 225K. Maintain ____ deg pitch for gross weights greater than 225K.

A

8; 6

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79
Q

Opening of the cargo door during or after takeoff will be noted by illumination of the _________ and will probably cause ________ airplane _______.

A

Door Warning Light; severe; buffeting

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80
Q

(Cargo door opening after Takeoff) If conditions permit, maintain a flap setting of ______deg, this will retain the use of outboard ailerons for roll control

A

20 deg

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81
Q

If the airplane fails to pressurize, ensure the cabin test valve handle is in the ______ position.

A

Normal

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82
Q

During operation at low gross weight, and particularly at low ambient temperature, the airplane accelerates very rapidly; therefore, care should be taken to not exceed the ______ during flap retraction

A

flap placard speeds

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83
Q

Since low outside air temperature causes a considerable increase in thrust, the ________________ limitations may be reached with somewhat lower throttle settings.

A

airplane operating

84
Q

Pilots shall be prepared to immediately disengage the autopilot, should any unscheduled ________ be evident. An autopilot lateral malfunction can result in bank angles of _____ deg within ____ sec even though recovery is started approximately ____ sec after the malfunction occurs. A pitch up malfunction could cause a stall within ___ seconds and is therefor considered the most serious autopilot malfunction.

A

control movement; 55; 5; 3; 3

85
Q

When the receiver is in or near the contact position, the pilot should consider initiating a ______ at the first indication of autopilot malfunction, including an inadvertent autopilot disconnect if accompanied by out of trim forces

A

breakaway

86
Q

Do not operate the alternate pressurization system and/or cargo compartment temp control in ______ for an extended period of time

A

full INCREASE or MANUAL-WARMER (full hot) mode

87
Q

Main tank boost pumps should not be run dry. If boost pumps operate dry for a period exceeding ____min, damage to the pump may result.

A

2

88
Q

If center wing tank override pumps operate dry for a period exceeding ____ min, damage to the pumps may result.

A

5

89
Q

Emergency exit hatches should not be removed unless absolutely necessary. Reduce airspeed as low as practical, preferably below ________, before opening either of the over wing hatches or the aft emergency hatch. If both the over wing hatches and the emergency aft hatch are to be opened, the aft emergency hatch should be opened _____ to minimize the forces acting to push the hatch inward. All hatches may be expected to open with considerable inward force if the crew entry door has been jettisoned and the emergency exit spoiler extended.

A

150kts; first

90
Q

When checking, removing, or re-installing hatches in flight, the crewmembers must ensure that a _________, life preserver and seat kit (if available) are on and properly adjusted prior to accomplishing this task.

A

parachute or restraint harness with a safety strap (if installed), helmet (if available)

91
Q

Ditching should always be accomplished with the landing gear ________

A

retracted

92
Q

(Ditching Operations) Hold the wings level. With wind speed in excess of 30 kts and sea conditions greater than 20ft, it is recommended that ditching be made into the _____. Wind speeds in excess of 30kts are generally indicated by extensive _______ and blowing spray.

A

wind; white caps

93
Q

Under no circumstances should the airplane be ______. The resulting ________ and leaks would greatly reduce the safety of the ditching operation.

A

stalled in; structural damage

94
Q

Night ditching must be conducted with the aid of _______ to establish the proper attitude of the airplane. Hold the wings level to avoid dragging a wing into the sea and cartwheeling the airplane.

A

instruments

95
Q

Because of the lack of outside references over water, it will be difficult to determine when to start the flare. This is especially true at night. The flare should be accomplished so as to level off approximately _____ft. above the crest of the swell. Slowly retard the throttles and permit water contact in a slightly higher than normal attitude. Contact the water at a low rate of sink and slow, controllable forward speed.

A

10

96
Q

When a complete thrust loss is experienced, flap extension should be initiated with sufficient altitude to allow for the increased flap extension time with wind milling engines. For example at an approach speed of 160kts, it take approx. _____sec or flaps to reach 20 deg with the engines wind milling.

A

65

97
Q

Removal of emergency exit hatches in preparation for possible crash landing or ditching is _______

A

not recommended

98
Q

(Ditching) Extra crewmembers or passengers will occupy the passenger seats or the _______

A

troop seats

99
Q

Do not inflate life rafts in the _______. They will not pass through the exits when inflated

A

Airplane

100
Q

During ditching, it is recommended that personnel not be positioned aft of the right aft ________ since extensive fuselage damage including fuselage separation may occur in the area aft of that point

A

escape hatch

101
Q

(Ditching) The ___________ may be used in determining absolute altitude below 2500ft

A

radio altimeter

102
Q

Inflight installation of the emergency hatches is not normally ___________. Should it become absolutely necessary to install them, _______ crewmembers are required.

A

recommended; 2

103
Q

Installation of the emergency hatches becomes extremely dangerous above _______kts.

A

150kts

104
Q

________, do not engage or disengage the autopilot (including altitude hold) while the receiver is in the contact position, as unscheduled attitude changes can occur about all axes

A

Except in an emergency

105
Q

Portable ________ may have to be used by crewmembers engaged in fire fighting procedures

A

O2 bottles

106
Q

_____ or ______ will inform the crew “fuselage fire” on CALL position of the interphone

A

Pilot or Copilot

107
Q

All fires will create toxic combustion products. Adequate respiratory and eye protection should be sought as soon as the primary fire emergency will permit. Breathing __________ will provide respiratory protection.

A

100% O2

108
Q

(Fuselage Fire) If passengers are aboard and __________ is a problem, consideration should be given to initiating an ___________

A

O2 Duration; Emergency Descent

109
Q

If the fire becomes uncontrollable, the pilot should ________ immediately

A

land

110
Q

The _________ hand held fire extinguished should be held upright to fight the fire

A

Halon 1211

111
Q

(Fuselage Fire) Boom operator and or navigator shall institute firefighting procedures. One crewmember shall keep the ______ informed of the fire condition until it is extinguished or determined to be uncontrollable.

A

Pilot

112
Q

If a rapid decompression occurs, the pilot will immediately direct the crew to go on _______, initiate a ________ and try to determine the cause of the trouble

A

100% O2; Descent

113
Q

Never allow the speed (during a controllability check) to decrease to the point at which __________ deflection is required about any axis since there may be no recovery capability beyond this point

A

full control

114
Q

A controllability check is conducted to determine the min safe _________ to maintain during approach and landing following inflight structural damage, fuel imbalance, or differential airspeed readings. Ordinarily, the check should be conducted in the landing configuration at approx. _______ft. AGL.

A

airspeed; 10,000ft

115
Q

Large amplitude Dutch roll oscillations coupled with improper control inputs can cause ____________ due to excessive roll rates.

A

engine separation

116
Q

To prevent further damage to the boom in case of a retraction mechanism failure, the receiver pilot will not under any circumstances _____________

A

try and push the boom in.

117
Q

(Autopilot Trim Malfunction) If the electrical stabilizer trim does not operate normally, check the operation of the ______________

A

manual trim wheel

118
Q

The sudden reversal of rudder direction at high rudder deflections due to improper rudder application or abrupt release, ___________________

A

can result in overstressing the vertical fin

119
Q

Compliance with an RA is required unless in the opinion of the AC, ____________

A

so doing would compromise safe operation of the airplane

120
Q

If the emergency requires shutting down the electrical system, set the __________ to their desired positions before shutdown

A

fuel valves

121
Q

If the IDG fails to disconnect (DISC caution light is out but tests good, with CB in), the affected engine will be shut down using the _______________ checklist

A

Engine Fire/Failure During Flight

122
Q

Tripping the GCB switch with the corresponding BTB CIRCUIT Open light on causes loss of power to the generator bus until the ________

A

BTB is closed

123
Q

If a circuit breaker trips open ______ times, do not attempt any further use of the affected equipment.

A

3

124
Q

Prior to checking or changing fuse(s), _______________, then open the applicable CB’s

A

turn off affected equipment

125
Q

An engine air start after an emergency shutdown should not be attempted unless it is ascertained that it is reasonably ________________. A recurrence of the emergency could be more serious than the first occurrence. If an engine air start is attempted and not completed, observe a ______ sec waiting period (if possible) before attempting subsequent starts. This is to allow fuel drainage from the rear nacelle thus preventing a possible nacelle fire.

A

safe to do so; 30 sec

126
Q

Unless the engine is urgently needed, do not attempt an air start until it can be positively determined that the flameout was not caused by a ruptured _______ or similar circumstance which might result in a fire. Do not attempt air starts without starter assist if the N2 is below ______. If an air start, without starter assist, is attempted under marginal windmill air start conditions (N2 below 15%), ___________ can occur.

A

fuel line; 15%; a hung start or hot start

127
Q

Engine failure in flight may be indicated either from the associated _______, ________ lateral control requirements to keep wings level, or ___________

A

yaw; excessive; engine instruments

128
Q

After an engine failure, the rudder may be trimmed without _________ the autopilot or yaw damper.

A

disengaging

129
Q

When the landing gear and flaps have been retracted and a safe altitude has been reached, retard the throttle for the engine on fire to IDLE. Regardless of the duration of the light, place the throttle __________when thrust requirements permit. The source of the heat can cause _______________to the engine or its accessories even though the temperature has been reduced sufficiently for the light to go out.

A

to cutoff; additional damage

130
Q

If the engine seizes (0% N2) or if the fire warning light remains on, the copilot will pull the ________ upon direction of the pilot. The engine should be visually checked for evidence of fire. While a crew member is scanning the engine from the cargo compartment, maintain _______ with the pilot.

A

fire switch; liaison

131
Q

The BOLDFACE for ENGINE FIRE/FAILURE DURING FLIGHT is:

A

THROTTLE - CUT-OFF, UNLESS NEEDED (P,CP)
FIRE SWITCH - PULL, IF REQUIRED (P,CP)
EXTINGUISHER SWITCH - PRESS, IF REQUIRED (P,CP)

132
Q

If the engine fire cannot be controlled, immediately increase airspeed to the max allowable indicated airspeed or mach number and initiate a________________ if conditions permit. Descending allows increased acceleration to max speed with resultant decrease in ________. This helps keep the fire away from the wing until the fire is extinguished or controlled.

A

shallow descent; AOA

133
Q

If the fire appears to be burning into the wing, ____________

A

Abandon the airplane or land as soon as possible

134
Q

Check to see if the generator breaker ___________ caution light comes on after engine shutdown. In any case trip the __________ to disengage the exciter field of the IDG

A

circuit open; gen breaker switch

135
Q

If the oil pressure gauge reads or fluctuates below _____psi, immediately _______ using the Engine Fire/Failure During Flight Checklist, unless thrust is necessary to maintain flight.

A

11; shut down the engine

136
Q

A good possibility exists that bearing failure can occur as quickly as _____sec after oil starvation is experienced.

A

30sec

137
Q

If an airplane nose down stabilizer trim malfunction is encountered during approach, a ______________

A

Go-Around should be immediately initiated

138
Q

For nose up trim, set the _______ switch to CUT-OFF and raise the speed brakes

A

Inboard Spoiler

139
Q

The BOLDFACE for UNCOMMANDED RUDDER, YAW, OR ROLL is:

A

RUDDER POWER - OFF (P,CP)

140
Q

(Runaway Stabilizer Trim During Takeoff) If above S1, the _____ will set the stab trim cutout switch to ________

A

Pilot Monitoring; CUTOUT

141
Q

When the rudder power switch is turned off, check rudder pressure ____________ and observe _______.

A

drops to 0-200 psi; rudder pedal action

142
Q

If inadvertent or incorrect stabilizer trimming occurs during flight, the runaway is most apt to be caused by an electrical malfunction and can best be stopped by setting the tab trim cutout switch to CUTOUT. If the trim wheel continues to rotate after the stab trim switch is set to CUTOUT, the aircrew should _______________________

A

attempt to grab and hold the manual trim wheel to stop stabilizer movement.

143
Q

A creeping stabilizer is a stabilizer that does not remain in a ________ and may be caused by partial loss of the stabilizer jackscrew braking. Trim position should be monitored at all times and the _________ should be held as required to maintain trim position. Under this condition, the airplane should be ________ as soon as practicable

A

stabilized trimmed position; trim wheel; landed

144
Q

To ____________________, any repositioning of the crossover valve should be done smoothly and rapidly

A

prevent possible pressurization and resultant rupture of return lines

145
Q

A broken and/or jammed drive chain in the forward stabilizer trim mechanism can prevent __________ or ________________ trimming

A

electrical; manual

146
Q

indications of possible fuel leakage include:

A

a. Excessive FUEL FLOWMETER reading
b. inadequete FUEL FLOWMETER reading
c. fuel LOW PRESSURE warning indication
d. FUEL QTY INDICATION rapidly decreasing
e. fuel line leak in STRUT OR NACELLE area
f. body tank FUEL QTY INDICATION increasing

147
Q

Discontinue emergency tank emptying procedure before the fuel quantity indication reaches the ____ marking on the fuel quantity gauge.

A

0

148
Q

Since the possibility exists that a main tank leak is caused by a skin crack rather than fuel line failure, it is mandatory to ______________ to reduce the possibility of further structural failure

A

reduce airspeed and restrict flap operation

149
Q

To prevent excessive fuel pressure surges at completion of fuel dumping, set the ______ pump switches to ______ prior to setting the fuel dump switches to OFF

A

A/R; Off

150
Q

If a hydraulic system fails completely or an uncontrollable leak occurs, the airplane should be _______________

A

landed as soon as practicable

151
Q

Given: the number four hydraulic pump inoperative light comes on with no indications of fluid loss and remains on after the right hydraulic system is depressurized and repressurized. Set the _________ pump supply switch to closed.

A

4

152
Q

Given: the number three hydraulic pump inoperative light comes on with loss of fluid. Immediately move the number three _____________ to closed.

A

pump supply switch

153
Q

Given: a loss of hydraulic quantity with no other indications. Immediately _______ the affected system.

A

depressurize

154
Q

Given: Loss of quantity in the right system with no other indications. Depressurizing the right hydraulic system does not stop the fluid leak. The next step is to close the __________ for the ______ pump.

A

supply switch; inboard

155
Q

Given: A loss of quantity in the left hydraulic system with no other indications. You have followed the procedure through closing the supply switch for the outboard pump, but there is still a fluid loss. You would now try to isolate the leak by placing __________ to cutoff.

A

inboard spoiler switch

156
Q

Given: Loss of fluid in the right hydraulic system with no other indications, immediately ______ the ________ system.

A

depressurize; Right

157
Q

Given: the right hydraulic system pressure gauge indicates a sustained pressure of 3,550 psi with no indication of fluid loss or overheat. Immediately __________ the ______ system.

A

depressurize; right

158
Q

Given: the left hydraulic pressure gauge indicates 1,800 psi with no other indications. You have determined that the accumulator preload is low and have repressurized the system. To check the actual system pressure, read the ____________ gauge by cycling the pilot’s brakes

A

reserve brake

159
Q

It is safe to use the crossover valve after loss of fluid from either hydraulic system, provided pressure can be ________ and ________ in the affected system with the appropriate hydraulic pressure and aux pump switches on. When the LH system is affected, set the inboard spoiler switch to cut-off. When the RH system is affected set the CIPS generator switch to EMER and turn the rudder power switch to OFF

A

built up; maintained

160
Q

If the source of the leakage in the system cannot be determined, the hydraulic fluid quantity gauge for the affected system should be monitored during and after actuation of the crossover valve lever. If a fluid loss of the unaffected system is observed, return the _______ to _________

A

lever; normal

161
Q

Application of hydraulic pressure to the main gear during manual extension may result in ___________

A

injury to operator

162
Q

Failure to close the engine bleed valves on the ___________ side of the manifold could cause damage to the airplane wing components due to escaping bleed air

A

malfunctioning

163
Q

Too rapid rotation of the cabin manual pressure knob toward the _________ position during repressurization can cause a pressurization jolt that can be harmful or uncomfortable to the ears of all persons aboard.

A

increase/off

164
Q

The max speed for emergency gear extension, retraction, or gear down is _______________

A

the same as clean configuration

165
Q

During the recovery from a high speed unusual attitude, if the landing gear is lowered, a ___________ condition results. If the pilot is already applying a positive load factor by trying to pull out of a dive, the additional pitch up caused by the gear lowering may be enough to exceed _______

A

pitch up; acceleration limits

166
Q

(Unplanned Penetration of Severe Turbulence) Establish an airspeed of approx. _____ or cruise Mach _____ to _____ whichever is lower. Maintain wings level and smoothly control pitch attitude. After establishing the trim setting for penetration speed, do not change the stab trim setting. Change ______ only in cases of extreme _____ variation. Do not chase _______, and _______ the autopilot. Yaw damper will be _____. Do not lower the _____ or flaps.

A

280 KIAS; .77;.80; thrust; airspeed; Altitude; disengage; on; landing gear

167
Q

Complete loss of airspeed indications will generally occur by the time that approximately _______ of ice has accumulated on the nose of the fuselage. Every effort should be made to change altitude or course to get out of the icing conditions before a layer of ice ______ has accumulated.

A

2 inches; 2 inches thick

168
Q

Static port icing will affect all pitot and static instruments, while pitot tube icing will only affect ______, ______, _______ and the AAU-19A altimeter (servo mode only).

A

IAS; TAS; Mach no.

169
Q

If Q-inlet icing occurs during rudder power on operation, rudder pedal feel forces are reduced for all rudder deflections and may result in a tendency to ____________

A

overcontrol

170
Q

The BOLDFACE for SMOKE/FUMES ELIMINATION (ELECT FIR ISOLATION/BLEED AIR SYSTEM ISOLATION) is:

A

OXYGEN - ON/100% (ALL)

171
Q

During an EGPWS warning (aural PULL UP is heard) do not change ________ or _______ until the airplane is out of the warning condition and stabilized.

A

wing flap; landing gear configuration

172
Q

Weather conditions are a primary consideration, and selection of a landing field should be made before ______.

A

reducing gross weight beyond diversion capability

173
Q

Assess condition of aircraft equipment (electrics, hydraulics, and flight controls) which may be affected by engines out. Two engines out on the same wing always means ______ and _______ should be considered.

A

one hydraulic system will not have normal pressure; crossover

174
Q

Use care not to ________, since doing so may invalidate Vmca.

A

exceed asymmetric or outboard Go-Around N1 power

175
Q

When landing with inop engines, using symmetric throttles will minimize _______.

A

the requirement for rudder directional control, thrust changes, and trim changes

176
Q

With an outboard engine inop, Vmca is less than or equal to _____.

A

VTD

177
Q

With 2 engines inop on the same wing, Vmca is less than or equal to _____.

A

Vapp

178
Q

With an inboard engine inop, the aircraft is easily controlled with rudder while all other engines are operating _________.

A

at the full symmetric engine Go-Around N1 power settings

179
Q

With 1 engine inop (rudder power operative or inop) or 2 engines inop on the same wing (rudder power operative or inop), remove ______ prior to landing

A

rudder trim

180
Q

With 1 eng inop (rudder power operative or inop) or 2 engines inop on the same wing (rudder power operative or inop), time permitting, recommend reducing gross weight to that which achieves the CRN (climb gradient) of ______.

A

2.8% or greater

181
Q

When flying the Final Approach Segment with 2 engines inop on the same wing, ________ weather conditions are preferred.

A

VMC

182
Q

Inflight min control speed (Vmca) is defined as the min airborne speed at which engine failure(s) can occur with the remaining engines ______ and ______ maintained using _____ rudder and: 1–not more than ______ bank when one outboard engine fails (rudder boost on or off) or when two engines fail on one wing (rudder boost on); 2–not more than _______ bank when two engines fail on one wing (rudder boost off).

A

at the appropriate go-around thrust setting; a straight path; maximum available; 5 degrees of; 8 degrees of

183
Q

When executing a go-around with 1 engine inop, immediately advance ______ to the ______ power setting.

A

symmetric engines; symmetric Go-Around N1

184
Q

When executing a go-around with 1 engine inop, after advancing the symmetric engines, apply ______ thrust as required, coordinated with rudder, not to exceed ________ for the outboard engine.

A

asymmetric; the asymmetric Go-Around N1 power setting

185
Q

When executing a go-around with 1 inboard engine inop, ________ power may be used ______.

A

symmetric Go-Around N1; on all operating engines

186
Q

When executing a go-around with 1 engine inop, _______ as airspeed is increased above VTD, not to exceed symmetric N1 power setting.

A

additional asymmetric power may be used

187
Q

When executing a go-around with 2 engines inop on the same side, rudder power inop, if full rudder deflection is required, the _____ should be in the full vertical position, or the pilot will ______ when heavy rudder pressure is applied.

A

seat back; slide up the seat back

188
Q

(For 2 engine operation) If thrust settings do not exceed the charted go-around N1 settings, Vmca will be less than or equal to _______.

A

Approach Speed

189
Q

The _____ to go-around is extremely important with 2 engines inop due to the controllability-induced thrust limitations and increased yawing moment. The _____ should be moved forward slowly until the pilot determines his capabilities for handling such an emergency.

A

early decision; outboard throttle

190
Q

(Jammed Stabilizer) When landing with a differential flap configuration, use the pattern, approach, and ___________ speeds for the min flap setting. If the leading edge flaps are not extended add _____kts to approach and threshold speeds. If the min flap setting is zero, approach and threshold speeds should not be increased as this correction is included in the chart.

A

threshold; 6

191
Q

When landing with less than 20 flap, approach and threshold speeds will not be less than the approach and threshold speeds associated with the _______ degree flap setting. The airplane should be flown and flared in a normal manner.

A

zero

192
Q

If lower approach and threshold speeds are used (landing with less than 20 flap), airplane attitude becomes abnormally nose high and the ________ might contact the runway

A

tail section

193
Q

(Landing with partial aileron control) A minimum approach and threshold speed of _____kts should be maintained to assure an available roll rate of at least 10 deg per second from the remaining aileron control

A

150

194
Q

If rudder hydraulic pressure is less than high range (2800 psi min), an undeterminable malfunction has occurred which would cause _______.

A

complete loss of rudder hydraulic pressure

195
Q

If leading edge flaps fail to extend, add 6 kts to the ________speeds

A

approach and threshold

196
Q

(Leading edge flaps fail to extend) Check the right system hydraulic fluid quantity gauge. If a fluid leak is indicated as the cause of the malfunction, set ________ spoiler switch to cutoff.

A

outboard

197
Q

When landing with only manual control of the flaps, it is necessary to start lowering the flaps well before the final approach is reached. Stopping distance, go around capability, and _____________ involved should be considered in determining the degrees of flaps to lower.

A

Time element

198
Q

With all spoilers inoperative, extend the main flaps, if possible to at least 23 degrees to assure full outboard _________ at speeds below 220 kts

A

Ailerons

199
Q

If an ______________ tire is determined to be flat and the airplane gross weight is above 250K avoid turns away from that tire if possible

A

aft outboard

200
Q

(Landing with gear failure) Landing with as much of the gear extended as possible provides the max protection for personnel and for ______________

A

airplane structure

201
Q

(Landing with gear failure) All ____________ should be dumped prior to landing

A

excess fuel

202
Q

(Prep for Gear Up Landing, All Configurations) Before jettisoning, __________ flaps and reduce airspeed to ______________speed.

A

lower full; slowest practical

203
Q

((Landing with Nose Gear Retracted) Both Main Gear Extended and [also landing] with Main Gear Extended, One Main Gear and Nose Gear Retracted)) When landing is accomplished with the right hydraulic system depressurized or inoperative, withhold speed brake actuation. The airplane will pitch ________ with only _________ spoilers raised.

A

down; inboard

204
Q

Do not _____________ during recovery from inadvertent windshear encounters.

A

follow command bars

205
Q

If moderate icing conditions are penetrated do not retract the flaps to less than ______ unless absolutely necessary. Ice formations of the flap leading edge will cause flap damage when flaps are retracted.

A

20 degrees

KC-135 Super Gouge (21 decks)

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