KC135 EP Closed Book (rev 22.0)_15 Mar 18 Flashcards
1
Q
There are four escape ropes: two are above the pilot’s seat, one above the copilots’ seat and one over the _______
A
Aft emergency exit hatch
2
Q
Fire fighter equipment containers are located in the control cabin _______ and in the cargo compartment ________
A
Above the main entrance hatch; aft of the emergency exit hatch
3
Q
Proper adjustment of the seat and the rudder pedals is especially critical for takeoff, approach and landing where _________ may be required for safe operation of the airplane
A
Full deflection of the control surfaces
4
Q
If a hot start, torch (tail pipe fire), hung start or sub-idle start stall condition occurs:
A
set the throttle to cutoff and continue to motor the engine
5
Q
Under all conditions, if the throttle is inadvertently retarded to CUTOFF position there will be an _________. Do not reopen the throttle. Introducing unburned fuel into the tailpipe area can create a ____ hazard.
A
Immediate flameout; fire
6
Q
If any engine does not reach the ______ setting between _____ and _____ kts, the takeoff shall be aborted
A
charted N1; 40; 80
7
Q
For dry runway conditions, the most effective nose wheel steering occurs at about ____ to ____ degrees of steering wheel turn
A
12; 15
8
Q
During ground run (3pt attitude), do not allow the airplane to bank beyond ___ degrees due to the possibility of dragging a nacelle
A
4
9
Q
Rotation should never be initiated prior to rotate speed. It is highly advantageous to _______ and ________
A
delay rotation when runway and obstacle clearance permit
10
Q
Premature retraction of the landing gear with its momentary drag increase could cause the airplane to ________ unless adequate climb margin has been established.
A
settle
11
Q
External power must be turned off at the external power cart __________
A
before plug is removed from the airplane’s external power receptacle
12
Q
The over wing hatches are opened from the interior by grasping a fixed handle on the upper center of the hatch and pulling _______ on the lock handle on the right side
A
downward
13
Q
The hatch (located forward of boom operator compartment) is opened from the interior by grasping the fixed handle near the upper center and ______ a lock handle near it.
A
rotating
14
Q
The emergency signal to prepare to abandon the airplane on the ground is _________ of the alarm bell
A
three short rings
15
Q
The emergency signal to abandon the airplane on the ground is _______ of the alarm bell
A
one long sustained ring
16
Q
The BOLDFACE for ABORT:
A
Throttles - Idle (P,CP)
Brakes - Apply (P,CP)
Speed Brakes - 60 Degrees (P,CP)
17
Q
Whenever excessive braking has been used during an abort, consider _________
A
abandoning the airplane
18
Q
If during an abort, a safe stop appears improbable, retard the throttles to _____
A
Cutoff
19
Q
If collision with an obstruction is probable during an abort, a _______ should be attempted, terrain permitting, or attempt to ______
A
ground loop; retract the landing gear
20
Q
With a large number of passengers on board, deployment of the emergency escape slide will be necessary. However, do not deploy the escape slide if ______ or other conditions would be detrimental to safe deployment
A
excessive wind
21
Q
The only indication to the pilots of an APU fire is illumination of the _______ fire light.
A
APU
22
Q
Automatic stopping of the APU may indicate _____________
A
a fire or an overheat condition within the unit
23
Q
(APU Fire) If fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned and ensure the _______ is set. Pilot will shut down all engines by retarding all throttles to _______. Shut down the APU by setting APU control switch to _____ and/or trip external power. Turn off ________ switches and ________ switch before leaving the airplane.
A
Parking brake; cutoff; stop; engine starter; battery power
24
Q
If the emergency dictates, and the APU has not shut down automatically, the APU may be shut down by using the _________________
A
normal procedure
25
Do not reset any of the 115/200v AC fuel ___________ circuit breakers, if they are open, until proper inspections and repairs have been made
boost pump or override pump
26
The decision to takeoff or abort should be based on the following considerations: a. If any emergency or _________ occurs prior to S1, ______ the takeoff. b. If an emergency occurs after S1 is reached, the takeoff is ________
loss of thrust; abort; committed
27
The takeoff will not be aborted after _____ unless, in the opinion of the pilot, the emergency renders the airplane __________ (loss of thrust exceeds the equivalent of loss of one engine).
S1; incapable of flight
28
In those cases where the pilot attempts to abort after S1, be aware that the airplane will probably ______ within the confines of the runway when S1 is at or near refusal speed
fail to stop
29
The BOLDFACE for ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND (Nacelle Fire) is:
THROTTLE - CUT-OFF (P,CP)
FIRE SWITCH - PULL (P,CP)
EXTINGUISHER SWITCH - PRESS, IF REQUIRED (P,CP)
30
A nacelle fire is indicated by a _________, _________, or by a ____________ crew observation
Fire warning light; compartment overheat light; ground
31
(Engine Fire on Ground) If the fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned. Ensure the parking brake is set. Pilot will shut down all engines by retarding all throttles to ____. Shutdown APU by setting APU control switches to _____ and/or tripping external power. Turn off the engine starter switches and _______ before leaving the airplane.
Cutoff; stop; Battery power switch
32
Do not reengage the starter until below _______ rpm. ______ can occur if reengaged above _______ rpm
25% N2; Starter damage; 25% N2
33
(Manual Start) If N2 rotation does not occur within 2-3 seconds of opening the bleed valve, ________immediately
close the engine bleed valve
34
Use extreme caution during taxi operations if nose gear steering is inoperative. The airplane should only be taxied ________
as necessary to clear the active runway
35
After a high energy refused takeoff or braked landing, the peak temperatures are reached in the brake housing approximately _____ min after braking
30
36
Snow and ice accumulation in any significant degree must be removed from the airplane prior to flight. Snow or ice accumulation can increase ______ and adversely affect climb out performance, stalling speed, and handling characteristics. Inflight _______ can result from vibrations induced by unremoved accumulations.
takeoff distances; structural damage
37
Ice, frost or snow on top of de-icing or anti-icing fluids _____________
must be considered as adhering to the airplane; takeoff should not be attempted
38
Do not attempt takeoff when slush and water puddles on the runway exceed _______ in depth. When slush or puddles are less then ______ in depth, takeoff distances may increase up to ______
1/2 inch; 1/2 inch; 25%
39
Adjust the seat and rudder pedals so that the knee can be ______ at full pedal travel with allowance for compression of clothing and seat back cushion.
Locked
40
If the flight director command bars fail during or immediately after takeoff, climb out at recommended ______ climbout airspeed (3 engines) or recommended three engine climb out airspeed plus _____ knots (4 engines) with the takeoff flap setting.
three engine; 10
41
A bank angle of 30 degrees at climb out speed with flaps down could reduce climb capability as much as _______fpm
400
42
If an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climb out speed, on a max mode takeoff, continue to climb at the speed attained at the point of _________
engine failure
43
Any unusual rolling moment encountered during flap operation could indicate an _________ main or fillet flap condition for which corrective action must be taken immediately
asymmetrical
44
The alarm bell signal to prepare for ditching or crash landing is ______
six short rings
45
The alarm bell signal for ditching or crash landing is ______
one long sustained ring
46
The alarm bell signal for ______ or ________ immediately after takeoff is one long sustained ring
Ditching; Crash landing
47
When an airborne emergency occurs, the following rules apply:
Fly the airplane; Stop, think, collect your wits
48
The BOLDFACE for CRASH LANDING OR DITCHING IMMEDIATELY AFTER TAKEOFF is:
FLAPS - 50 DEGREES (P,CP)
GEAR - DOWN, UNLESS OVER WATER (P,CP)
THROTTLES - CUT-OFF AFTER TOUCHDOWN (P,CP)
49
The copilot gives the "brace for crash landing" warning over the ______ position of the interphone and one long ring on the alarm bell at the direction of the pilot.
call
50
(Crash Landing) Crewmembers unsnap parachute harnesses, tighten shoulder harness and safety belts and _____________
lock inertial reels
51
Pilot maintains the ______ approach speed and lands straight ahead, changing directions only enough to miss obstacles. Make contact with the ground in the normal __________
appropriate; landing attitude
52
(Crash Landing) Extension of the gear for impact is considered beneficial from the stand point of lessening the severity of impact, but not to the extent that an excessive _________ or uncontrollable situation is created. Delay extension If necessary to _________. Prudent judgment must be exercised in determining action to be taken.
rate of descent; clear obstructions
53
The crewmember is prevented from bending forward when the shoulder harness inertial reel is locked. Therefore all switches not readily accessible should be ________ prior to locking the shoulder harness.
set as desired
54
(Crash Landing) Do not cut the engines prior to ______. This would result in a loss, after a few seconds, of all _________ and all _________ except that still remaining in the accumulators. Loss of hydraulic power will cause the spoilers to blow down after only a few seconds of operation on accumulator pressure. Electrical control of the stabilizer trim will be lost, leaving only manual trim.
touchdown; primary electrical power; hydraulic pressure
55
A complete separation of the nose radome from the aircraft will result in inaccurate indications of _______, _______, ________, and __________
airspeed; Mach no.; altitude; vertical velocity
56
With _______ inoperative, VMCG can increase by as much as ______kts
EFAS; 25
57
While still on the rwy, do not advance the throttle on the asymmetric engine beyond the ________ since added thrust can cause loss of control.
T/O setting
58
Be ____________ for engine failure
mentally prepared
59
Airspeed indicator errors exist during sideslip. An actual airspeed _________ kts lower than indicated will exist at ______ degrees of sideslip
7; 10
60
During rotation to takeoff attitude, do not allow the airplane to bank beyond _____ degrees due to the possibility of dragging an outboard engine nacelle.
8
61
Failure of an outboard engine necessitates _______ pilot response to prevent deviations from the takeoff path
immediate
62
On wet and icy runways, even with optimum technique, deviations up to ____ ft. from the takeoff path can be expected.
30
63
Charted ground min control speeds for a dry runway are based on the immediate use of _____ and corresponding _______
rudder; NWS
64
During actual or simulated engine loss, limit bank angle to ______ degrees until as a minimum, the landing gear is up and maneuvering speed is reached.
15
65
If a catastrophic engine failure occurs accompanied by a fire, take prompt action to pull fire switch and discharge extinguishing agent. Failure to accomplish these actions promptly can result in loss of _______ controls due to burned electrical wiring bundle
Fire Switch
66
Throttle reduction in response to a failed engine/engine flameout during takeoff or initial climb out after takeoff should not be made prior to ______________
landing gear retraction
67
Takeoff should not be attempted if the oil pressure is more than ______ psi. Bearing failure die to plugged oil jets can result
92
68
If the flap indicators or visual inspection reflect an asymmetric main flap condition and a rolling moment is present, the flap lever should be set to the ____________
Asymmetric flap position indication
69
If all means of flap synchronization fail and conditions permit, institute ________(if required) and land as soon as possible.
fuel dumping
70
When the main flaps are retracted and one or both leading edge flaps remain extended, the airplane should be flown with caution at load factors in excess of 1.5 g's in the speed range between ____ and _____ kts.
215;305
71
Do not operate the forward A/R pumps and the ________ simultaneously. Slow operation of the ______ with reduced climb performance will result.
Landing gear; gear
72
Do not operate the aft A/R pumps and the ______ simultaneously. Slow operation of the powered rudder with reduced rudder effectiveness will result.
wing flaps
73
If the leading edge flaps fail to retract when the outboard flaps are raised above the 6 deg position and the outboard spoiler switch is in NORMAL, you should ___________
place the outboard spoiler to CUT-OFF
74
If a stabilizer trim runaway occurs at or below S1, simultaneously, the pilot flying will ______ and the pilot monitoring will ____________
abort the takeoff; set the stabilizer trim cutout switch to CUTOUT
75
For nose up trim, set the inboard spoiler switch to CUTOFF and raise the speed brakes. This configuration provides approx. ______ of equivalent trim in takeoff configuration
2-3 units
76
If there is a disparity between airspeed indicators, the ____________ may be used to determine which indicators are most accurate
speed deviation indicators
77
To determine which airspeed indicator is most accurate, the aircraft should be flown with wings level so that the speed deviation pointer indicates _______ (0.6 AOA) and the airspeed reading at 0.6 AOA should compare with the corresponding airspeed, for the aircraft weight and configuration obtained from the 1-1.
"On speed"
78
If during a climb all airspeed indicators are determined to be inaccurate, continue max climb thrust and maintain ____ deg of pitch on the ADI for gross weights up to 225K. Maintain ____ deg pitch for gross weights greater than 225K.
8; 6
79
Opening of the cargo door during or after takeoff will be noted by illumination of the _________ and will probably cause ________ airplane _______.
Door Warning Light; severe; buffeting
80
(Cargo door opening after Takeoff) If conditions permit, maintain a flap setting of ______deg, this will retain the use of outboard ailerons for roll control
20 deg
81
If the airplane fails to pressurize, ensure the cabin test valve handle is in the ______ position.
Normal
82
During operation at low gross weight, and particularly at low ambient temperature, the airplane accelerates very rapidly; therefore, care should be taken to not exceed the ______ during flap retraction
flap placard speeds
83
Since low outside air temperature causes a considerable increase in thrust, the ________________ limitations may be reached with somewhat lower throttle settings.
airplane operating
84
Pilots shall be prepared to immediately disengage the autopilot, should any unscheduled ________ be evident. An autopilot lateral malfunction can result in bank angles of _____ deg within ____ sec even though recovery is started approximately ____ sec after the malfunction occurs. A pitch up malfunction could cause a stall within ___ seconds and is therefor considered the most serious autopilot malfunction.
control movement; 55; 5; 3; 3
85
When the receiver is in or near the contact position, the pilot should consider initiating a ______ at the first indication of autopilot malfunction, including an inadvertent autopilot disconnect if accompanied by out of trim forces
breakaway
86
Do not operate the alternate pressurization system and/or cargo compartment temp control in ______ for an extended period of time
full INCREASE or MANUAL-WARMER (full hot) mode
87
Main tank boost pumps should not be run dry. If boost pumps operate dry for a period exceeding ____min, damage to the pump may result.
2
88
If center wing tank override pumps operate dry for a period exceeding ____ min, damage to the pumps may result.
5
89
Emergency exit hatches should not be removed unless absolutely necessary. Reduce airspeed as low as practical, preferably below ________, before opening either of the over wing hatches or the aft emergency hatch. If both the over wing hatches and the emergency aft hatch are to be opened, the aft emergency hatch should be opened _____ to minimize the forces acting to push the hatch inward. All hatches may be expected to open with considerable inward force if the crew entry door has been jettisoned and the emergency exit spoiler extended.
150kts; first
90
When checking, removing, or re-installing hatches in flight, the crewmembers must ensure that a _________, life preserver and seat kit (if available) are on and properly adjusted prior to accomplishing this task.
parachute or restraint harness with a safety strap (if installed), helmet (if available)
91
Ditching should always be accomplished with the landing gear ________
retracted
92
(Ditching Operations) Hold the wings level. With wind speed in excess of 30 kts and sea conditions greater than 20ft, it is recommended that ditching be made into the _____. Wind speeds in excess of 30kts are generally indicated by extensive _______ and blowing spray.
wind; white caps
93
Under no circumstances should the airplane be ______. The resulting ________ and leaks would greatly reduce the safety of the ditching operation.
stalled in; structural damage
94
Night ditching must be conducted with the aid of _______ to establish the proper attitude of the airplane. Hold the wings level to avoid dragging a wing into the sea and cartwheeling the airplane.
instruments
95
Because of the lack of outside references over water, it will be difficult to determine when to start the flare. This is especially true at night. The flare should be accomplished so as to level off approximately _____ft. above the crest of the swell. Slowly retard the throttles and permit water contact in a slightly higher than normal attitude. Contact the water at a low rate of sink and slow, controllable forward speed.
10
96
When a complete thrust loss is experienced, flap extension should be initiated with sufficient altitude to allow for the increased flap extension time with wind milling engines. For example at an approach speed of 160kts, it take approx. _____sec or flaps to reach 20 deg with the engines wind milling.
65
97
Removal of emergency exit hatches in preparation for possible crash landing or ditching is _______
not recommended
98
(Ditching) Extra crewmembers or passengers will occupy the passenger seats or the _______
troop seats
99
Do not inflate life rafts in the _______. They will not pass through the exits when inflated
Airplane
100
During ditching, it is recommended that personnel not be positioned aft of the right aft ________ since extensive fuselage damage including fuselage separation may occur in the area aft of that point
escape hatch
101
(Ditching) The ___________ may be used in determining absolute altitude below 2500ft
radio altimeter
102
Inflight installation of the emergency hatches is not normally ___________. Should it become absolutely necessary to install them, _______ crewmembers are required.
recommended; 2
103
Installation of the emergency hatches becomes extremely dangerous above _______kts.
150kts
104
________, do not engage or disengage the autopilot (including altitude hold) while the receiver is in the contact position, as unscheduled attitude changes can occur about all axes
Except in an emergency
105
Portable ________ may have to be used by crewmembers engaged in fire fighting procedures
O2 bottles
106
_____ or ______ will inform the crew "fuselage fire" on CALL position of the interphone
Pilot or Copilot
107
All fires will create toxic combustion products. Adequate respiratory and eye protection should be sought as soon as the primary fire emergency will permit. Breathing __________ will provide respiratory protection.
100% O2
108
(Fuselage Fire) If passengers are aboard and __________ is a problem, consideration should be given to initiating an ___________
O2 Duration; Emergency Descent
109
If the fire becomes uncontrollable, the pilot should ________ immediately
land
110
The _________ hand held fire extinguished should be held upright to fight the fire
Halon 1211
111
(Fuselage Fire) Boom operator and or navigator shall institute firefighting procedures. One crewmember shall keep the ______ informed of the fire condition until it is extinguished or determined to be uncontrollable.
Pilot
112
If a rapid decompression occurs, the pilot will immediately direct the crew to go on _______, initiate a ________ and try to determine the cause of the trouble
100% O2; Descent
113
Never allow the speed (during a controllability check) to decrease to the point at which __________ deflection is required about any axis since there may be no recovery capability beyond this point
full control
114
A controllability check is conducted to determine the min safe _________ to maintain during approach and landing following inflight structural damage, fuel imbalance, or differential airspeed readings. Ordinarily, the check should be conducted in the landing configuration at approx. _______ft. AGL.
airspeed; 10,000ft
115
Large amplitude Dutch roll oscillations coupled with improper control inputs can cause ____________ due to excessive roll rates.
engine separation
116
To prevent further damage to the boom in case of a retraction mechanism failure, the receiver pilot will not under any circumstances _____________
try and push the boom in.
117
(Autopilot Trim Malfunction) If the electrical stabilizer trim does not operate normally, check the operation of the ______________
manual trim wheel
118
The sudden reversal of rudder direction at high rudder deflections due to improper rudder application or abrupt release, ___________________
can result in overstressing the vertical fin
119
Compliance with an RA is required unless in the opinion of the AC, ____________
so doing would compromise safe operation of the airplane
120
If the emergency requires shutting down the electrical system, set the __________ to their desired positions before shutdown
fuel valves
121
If the IDG fails to disconnect (DISC caution light is out but tests good, with CB in), the affected engine will be shut down using the _______________ checklist
Engine Fire/Failure During Flight
122
Tripping the GCB switch with the corresponding BTB CIRCUIT Open light on causes loss of power to the generator bus until the ________
BTB is closed
123
If a circuit breaker trips open ______ times, do not attempt any further use of the affected equipment.
3
124
Prior to checking or changing fuse(s), _______________, then open the applicable CB's
turn off affected equipment
125
An engine air start after an emergency shutdown should not be attempted unless it is ascertained that it is reasonably ________________. A recurrence of the emergency could be more serious than the first occurrence. If an engine air start is attempted and not completed, observe a ______ sec waiting period (if possible) before attempting subsequent starts. This is to allow fuel drainage from the rear nacelle thus preventing a possible nacelle fire.
safe to do so; 30 sec
126
Unless the engine is urgently needed, do not attempt an air start until it can be positively determined that the flameout was not caused by a ruptured _______ or similar circumstance which might result in a fire. Do not attempt air starts without starter assist if the N2 is below ______. If an air start, without starter assist, is attempted under marginal windmill air start conditions (N2 below 15%), ___________ can occur.
fuel line; 15%; a hung start or hot start
127
Engine failure in flight may be indicated either from the associated _______, ________ lateral control requirements to keep wings level, or ___________
yaw; excessive; engine instruments
128
After an engine failure, the rudder may be trimmed without _________ the autopilot or yaw damper.
disengaging
129
When the landing gear and flaps have been retracted and a safe altitude has been reached, retard the throttle for the engine on fire to IDLE. Regardless of the duration of the light, place the throttle __________when thrust requirements permit. The source of the heat can cause _______________to the engine or its accessories even though the temperature has been reduced sufficiently for the light to go out.
to cutoff; additional damage
130
If the engine seizes (0% N2) or if the fire warning light remains on, the copilot will pull the ________ upon direction of the pilot. The engine should be visually checked for evidence of fire. While a crew member is scanning the engine from the cargo compartment, maintain _______ with the pilot.
fire switch; liaison
131
The BOLDFACE for ENGINE FIRE/FAILURE DURING FLIGHT is:
THROTTLE - CUT-OFF, UNLESS NEEDED (P,CP)
FIRE SWITCH - PULL, IF REQUIRED (P,CP)
EXTINGUISHER SWITCH - PRESS, IF REQUIRED (P,CP)
132
If the engine fire cannot be controlled, immediately increase airspeed to the max allowable indicated airspeed or mach number and initiate a________________ if conditions permit. Descending allows increased acceleration to max speed with resultant decrease in ________. This helps keep the fire away from the wing until the fire is extinguished or controlled.
shallow descent; AOA
133
If the fire appears to be burning into the wing, ____________
Abandon the airplane or land as soon as possible
134
Check to see if the generator breaker ___________ caution light comes on after engine shutdown. In any case trip the __________ to disengage the exciter field of the IDG
circuit open; gen breaker switch
135
If the oil pressure gauge reads or fluctuates below _____psi, immediately _______ using the Engine Fire/Failure During Flight Checklist, unless thrust is necessary to maintain flight.
11; shut down the engine
136
A good possibility exists that bearing failure can occur as quickly as _____sec after oil starvation is experienced.
30sec
137
If an airplane nose down stabilizer trim malfunction is encountered during approach, a ______________
Go-Around should be immediately initiated
138
For nose up trim, set the _______ switch to CUT-OFF and raise the speed brakes
Inboard Spoiler
139
The BOLDFACE for UNCOMMANDED RUDDER, YAW, OR ROLL is:
RUDDER POWER - OFF (P,CP)
140
(Runaway Stabilizer Trim During Takeoff) If above S1, the _____ will set the stab trim cutout switch to ________
Pilot Monitoring; CUTOUT
141
When the rudder power switch is turned off, check rudder pressure ____________ and observe _______.
drops to 0-200 psi; rudder pedal action
142
If inadvertent or incorrect stabilizer trimming occurs during flight, the runaway is most apt to be caused by an electrical malfunction and can best be stopped by setting the tab trim cutout switch to CUTOUT. If the trim wheel continues to rotate after the stab trim switch is set to CUTOUT, the aircrew should _______________________
attempt to grab and hold the manual trim wheel to stop stabilizer movement.
143
A creeping stabilizer is a stabilizer that does not remain in a ________ and may be caused by partial loss of the stabilizer jackscrew braking. Trim position should be monitored at all times and the _________ should be held as required to maintain trim position. Under this condition, the airplane should be ________ as soon as practicable
stabilized trimmed position; trim wheel; landed
144
To ____________________, any repositioning of the crossover valve should be done smoothly and rapidly
prevent possible pressurization and resultant rupture of return lines
145
A broken and/or jammed drive chain in the forward stabilizer trim mechanism can prevent __________ or ________________ trimming
electrical; manual
146
indications of possible fuel leakage include:
a. Excessive FUEL FLOWMETER reading
b. inadequete FUEL FLOWMETER reading
c. fuel LOW PRESSURE warning indication
d. FUEL QTY INDICATION rapidly decreasing
e. fuel line leak in STRUT OR NACELLE area
f. body tank FUEL QTY INDICATION increasing
147
Discontinue emergency tank emptying procedure before the fuel quantity indication reaches the ____ marking on the fuel quantity gauge.
0
148
Since the possibility exists that a main tank leak is caused by a skin crack rather than fuel line failure, it is mandatory to ______________ to reduce the possibility of further structural failure
reduce airspeed and restrict flap operation
149
To prevent excessive fuel pressure surges at completion of fuel dumping, set the ______ pump switches to ______ prior to setting the fuel dump switches to OFF
A/R; Off
150
If a hydraulic system fails completely or an uncontrollable leak occurs, the airplane should be _______________
landed as soon as practicable
151
Given: the number four hydraulic pump inoperative light comes on with no indications of fluid loss and remains on after the right hydraulic system is depressurized and repressurized. Set the _________ pump supply switch to closed.
#4
152
Given: the number three hydraulic pump inoperative light comes on with loss of fluid. Immediately move the number three _____________ to closed.
pump supply switch
153
Given: a loss of hydraulic quantity with no other indications. Immediately _______ the affected system.
depressurize
154
Given: Loss of quantity in the right system with no other indications. Depressurizing the right hydraulic system does not stop the fluid leak. The next step is to close the __________ for the ______ pump.
supply switch; inboard
155
Given: A loss of quantity in the left hydraulic system with no other indications. You have followed the procedure through closing the supply switch for the outboard pump, but there is still a fluid loss. You would now try to isolate the leak by placing __________ to cutoff.
inboard spoiler switch
156
Given: Loss of fluid in the right hydraulic system with no other indications, immediately ______ the ________ system.
depressurize; Right
157
Given: the right hydraulic system pressure gauge indicates a sustained pressure of 3,550 psi with no indication of fluid loss or overheat. Immediately __________ the ______ system.
depressurize; right
158
Given: the left hydraulic pressure gauge indicates 1,800 psi with no other indications. You have determined that the accumulator preload is low and have repressurized the system. To check the actual system pressure, read the ____________ gauge by cycling the pilot's brakes
reserve brake
159
It is safe to use the crossover valve after loss of fluid from either hydraulic system, provided pressure can be ________ and ________ in the affected system with the appropriate hydraulic pressure and aux pump switches on. When the LH system is affected, set the inboard spoiler switch to cut-off. When the RH system is affected set the CIPS generator switch to EMER and turn the rudder power switch to OFF
built up; maintained
160
If the source of the leakage in the system cannot be determined, the hydraulic fluid quantity gauge for the affected system should be monitored during and after actuation of the crossover valve lever. If a fluid loss of the unaffected system is observed, return the _______ to _________
lever; normal
161
Application of hydraulic pressure to the main gear during manual extension may result in ___________
injury to operator
162
Failure to close the engine bleed valves on the ___________ side of the manifold could cause damage to the airplane wing components due to escaping bleed air
malfunctioning
163
Too rapid rotation of the cabin manual pressure knob toward the _________ position during repressurization can cause a pressurization jolt that can be harmful or uncomfortable to the ears of all persons aboard.
increase/off
164
The max speed for emergency gear extension, retraction, or gear down is _______________
the same as clean configuration
165
During the recovery from a high speed unusual attitude, if the landing gear is lowered, a ___________ condition results. If the pilot is already applying a positive load factor by trying to pull out of a dive, the additional pitch up caused by the gear lowering may be enough to exceed _______
pitch up; acceleration limits
166
(Unplanned Penetration of Severe Turbulence) Establish an airspeed of approx. _____ or cruise Mach _____ to _____ whichever is lower. Maintain wings level and smoothly control pitch attitude. After establishing the trim setting for penetration speed, do not change the stab trim setting. Change ______ only in cases of extreme _____ variation. Do not chase _______, and _______ the autopilot. Yaw damper will be _____. Do not lower the _____ or flaps.
280 KIAS; .77;.80; thrust; airspeed; Altitude; disengage; on; landing gear
167
Complete loss of airspeed indications will generally occur by the time that approximately _______ of ice has accumulated on the nose of the fuselage. Every effort should be made to change altitude or course to get out of the icing conditions before a layer of ice ______ has accumulated.
2 inches; 2 inches thick
168
Static port icing will affect all pitot and static instruments, while pitot tube icing will only affect ______, ______, _______ and the AAU-19A altimeter (servo mode only).
IAS; TAS; Mach no.
169
If Q-inlet icing occurs during rudder power on operation, rudder pedal feel forces are reduced for all rudder deflections and may result in a tendency to ____________
overcontrol
170
The BOLDFACE for SMOKE/FUMES ELIMINATION (ELECT FIR ISOLATION/BLEED AIR SYSTEM ISOLATION) is:
OXYGEN - ON/100% (ALL)
171
During an EGPWS warning (aural PULL UP is heard) do not change ________ or _______ until the airplane is out of the warning condition and stabilized.
wing flap; landing gear configuration
172
Weather conditions are a primary consideration, and selection of a landing field should be made before ______.
reducing gross weight beyond diversion capability
173
Assess condition of aircraft equipment (electrics, hydraulics, and flight controls) which may be affected by engines out. Two engines out on the same wing always means ______ and _______ should be considered.
one hydraulic system will not have normal pressure; crossover
174
Use care not to ________, since doing so may invalidate Vmca.
exceed asymmetric or outboard Go-Around N1 power
175
When landing with inop engines, using symmetric throttles will minimize _______.
the requirement for rudder directional control, thrust changes, and trim changes
176
With an outboard engine inop, Vmca is less than or equal to _____.
VTD
177
With 2 engines inop on the same wing, Vmca is less than or equal to _____.
Vapp
178
With an inboard engine inop, the aircraft is easily controlled with rudder while all other engines are operating _________.
at the full symmetric engine Go-Around N1 power settings
179
With 1 engine inop (rudder power operative or inop) or 2 engines inop on the same wing (rudder power operative or inop), remove ______ prior to landing
rudder trim
180
With 1 eng inop (rudder power operative or inop) or 2 engines inop on the same wing (rudder power operative or inop), time permitting, recommend reducing gross weight to that which achieves the CRN (climb gradient) of ______.
2.8% or greater
181
When flying the Final Approach Segment with 2 engines inop on the same wing, ________ weather conditions are preferred.
VMC
182
Inflight min control speed (Vmca) is defined as the min airborne speed at which engine failure(s) can occur with the remaining engines ______ and ______ maintained using _____ rudder and: 1--not more than ______ bank when one outboard engine fails (rudder boost on or off) or when two engines fail on one wing (rudder boost on); 2--not more than _______ bank when two engines fail on one wing (rudder boost off).
at the appropriate go-around thrust setting; a straight path; maximum available; 5 degrees of; 8 degrees of
183
When executing a go-around with 1 engine inop, immediately advance ______ to the ______ power setting.
symmetric engines; symmetric Go-Around N1
184
When executing a go-around with 1 engine inop, after advancing the symmetric engines, apply ______ thrust as required, coordinated with rudder, not to exceed ________ for the outboard engine.
asymmetric; the asymmetric Go-Around N1 power setting
185
When executing a go-around with 1 inboard engine inop, ________ power may be used ______.
symmetric Go-Around N1; on all operating engines
186
When executing a go-around with 1 engine inop, _______ as airspeed is increased above VTD, not to exceed symmetric N1 power setting.
additional asymmetric power may be used
187
When executing a go-around with 2 engines inop on the same side, rudder power inop, if full rudder deflection is required, the _____ should be in the full vertical position, or the pilot will ______ when heavy rudder pressure is applied.
seat back; slide up the seat back
188
(For 2 engine operation) If thrust settings do not exceed the charted go-around N1 settings, Vmca will be less than or equal to _______.
Approach Speed
189
The _____ to go-around is extremely important with 2 engines inop due to the controllability-induced thrust limitations and increased yawing moment. The _____ should be moved forward slowly until the pilot determines his capabilities for handling such an emergency.
early decision; outboard throttle
190
(Jammed Stabilizer) When landing with a differential flap configuration, use the pattern, approach, and ___________ speeds for the min flap setting. If the leading edge flaps are not extended add _____kts to approach and threshold speeds. If the min flap setting is zero, approach and threshold speeds should not be increased as this correction is included in the chart.
threshold; 6
191
When landing with less than 20 flap, approach and threshold speeds will not be less than the approach and threshold speeds associated with the _______ degree flap setting. The airplane should be flown and flared in a normal manner.
zero
192
If lower approach and threshold speeds are used (landing with less than 20 flap), airplane attitude becomes abnormally nose high and the ________ might contact the runway
tail section
193
(Landing with partial aileron control) A minimum approach and threshold speed of _____kts should be maintained to assure an available roll rate of at least 10 deg per second from the remaining aileron control
150
194
If rudder hydraulic pressure is less than high range (2800 psi min), an undeterminable malfunction has occurred which would cause _______.
complete loss of rudder hydraulic pressure
195
If leading edge flaps fail to extend, add 6 kts to the ________speeds
approach and threshold
196
(Leading edge flaps fail to extend) Check the right system hydraulic fluid quantity gauge. If a fluid leak is indicated as the cause of the malfunction, set ________ spoiler switch to cutoff.
outboard
197
When landing with only manual control of the flaps, it is necessary to start lowering the flaps well before the final approach is reached. Stopping distance, go around capability, and _____________ involved should be considered in determining the degrees of flaps to lower.
Time element
198
With all spoilers inoperative, extend the main flaps, if possible to at least 23 degrees to assure full outboard _________ at speeds below 220 kts
Ailerons
199
If an ______________ tire is determined to be flat and the airplane gross weight is above 250K avoid turns away from that tire if possible
aft outboard
200
(Landing with gear failure) Landing with as much of the gear extended as possible provides the max protection for personnel and for ______________
airplane structure
201
(Landing with gear failure) All ____________ should be dumped prior to landing
excess fuel
202
(Prep for Gear Up Landing, All Configurations) Before jettisoning, __________ flaps and reduce airspeed to ______________speed.
lower full; slowest practical
203
((Landing with Nose Gear Retracted) Both Main Gear Extended and [also landing] with Main Gear Extended, One Main Gear and Nose Gear Retracted)) When landing is accomplished with the right hydraulic system depressurized or inoperative, withhold speed brake actuation. The airplane will pitch ________ with only _________ spoilers raised.
down; inboard
204
Do not _____________ during recovery from inadvertent windshear encounters.
follow command bars
205
If moderate icing conditions are penetrated do not retract the flaps to less than ______ unless absolutely necessary. Ice formations of the flap leading edge will cause flap damage when flaps are retracted.
20 degrees
