Dash-1 Chap 2 Numbers to Know Flashcards

1
Q

Normally data transfer from PCMICIA card will take

A

< 1 min.

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2
Q

Lower stop of cabin altitude controller

A

-7000 feet

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3
Q

After power application, check EGT caution lights within how many sec?

A

5 sec.

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4
Q

The APU fire extinguisher may discharge if the FIRE/DSBLD switch is pressed with a battery reading of

A

21 volts

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5
Q

WXR-700X color radar warm up times above 0C

A

2 min.

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6
Q

WXR-700X color radar warm up times between -15 C and 0C

A

5 min.

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7
Q

WXR-700X color radar warm up times below -15C

A

30 min

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8
Q

During oxygen check, breathe normally for a minimum of

A

3 cycles

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9
Q

Right hydraulic system quantity

A

4.0 – 4.5 gal.

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10
Q

Left system hydraulic quantity with gear doors open

A

3.75 – 4.25 gal.

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11
Q

Left system hydraulic quantity with gear doors closed

A

4.0 – 4.5 gal.

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12
Q

During antiskid test when switch is released, brake indicators should continue to show REL for

A

≈1 sec.

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13
Q

Oil temperature selector test goes to near full scale then decreases to

A

175C – 195C

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14
Q

FSAS I-BIT takes __ sec

A

≈18 sec.

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15
Q

Normal hydraulic pressure

A

2400 – 3050 psi

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16
Q

Before control and trim check stab trim should be set to

A

6 – 11 units nose up

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17
Q

Aileron control wheel movement may be prevented in one direction with a tailwind of __ knots

A

12 knots

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18
Q

The control column may be locked against either forward or aft movement with a tailwind of

A

17 knots

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19
Q

During control and trim check rotate Stab trim control wheel ___ turns in each direction

A

5

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20
Q

Before checking stab trim control switches ensure the electric stab trim motor has not run for

A

30 sec.

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21
Q

With initial activation of the left half of the pilot’s trim switch, a slight trim wheel oscillation or movement is allowed up to __ turn

A

¼ turn

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22
Q

When checking the right half of the pilot and copilot’s stab trim switch ensure the trim wheel does not move more than

A

½ turn

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23
Q

During ground check ____ trim units will move rudder trim tab full throw

A

5

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24
Q

During EFAS and SYD test set SYD switch to test and then on within

A

3 sec.

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25
Q

Check that ENGAGE SYSTEM, EFAS FAILED, and ASM THRUST cautionlights come on then go out within

A

60 sec.

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26
Q

Check that DISENG caution light comes on then goes out within

A

35 sec.

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27
Q

Ensure each altimeter indicates within ____ of a known elevation

A

75’

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28
Q

Ensure each altimeter indicates within ____ of each other

A

30’

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29
Q

Ensure difference of Pilot’s altimeter between NORM and STBY is (with FMS air data source set to NORM or ADC1)

A

20’

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30
Q

Pilot’s altimeter diff. between NORM & STBY for ADC2

A

80’

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31
Q

Copilot’s altimeter difference regardless of FMS Data source

A

80’

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32
Q

During a Radio Altimeter check the RA counts up to approximately

A

100’

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33
Q

VOR check should be within

A

±4 degrees

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34
Q

The DME during a TACAN check should read

A

0 – 0.5

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35
Q

After break-lock the TACAN course should read

A

180 degrees ±3

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36
Q

Autopilot warm-up

A

≈1 min.

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37
Q

The Autopilot test takes ____ sec

A

≈50 – 100 sec.

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38
Q

During autopilot test you should receive a VALID or INVALID indication

A

20 sec.

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39
Q

The TCAS test duration is approximately

A

12 sec.

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40
Q

For takeoff & landing open all tank to engine manifold valves if the fuel in any main tank is below

A

10,500#

41
Q

Open the line valve for all takeoffs when the gross weight is

A

> 200,000#

42
Q

Close the line valve for all takeoffs when the gross weight is

A

< 200,000#

43
Q

APU start accumulators are recharged to

A

3000 ±350 psi

44
Q

The APU surge damper accumulators are charged to

A

1600 psi

45
Q

RCR inputs of 9 (wet) or 4 (icy, snow, slush) are automatically converted by the FMAC for calculation of VMCG & max x-wind to _____

A

16 or 5

46
Q

If hydraulic warm-up is selected what hydraulic temp is used by the box

A

-7C

47
Q

Delta height has a maximum of

A

999’

48
Q

To load 50 selected waypoints & their attributes in the FSAS may take up to

A

8 min.

49
Q

Max motoring is defined as less than ___ increase in N2 in ____

A

1% 5 sec.

50
Q

During engine start initial fuel flow is

A

300 – 680 pph

51
Q

Fuel flow after ignition is

A

≈900 pph

52
Q

With a tailwind of ___ knots, do not advance throttles to START until N2 RPM is at least ___

A

20 knots 20%

53
Q

A hot start will occur if the fuel flow exceeds ____ before light off

A

680 pph

54
Q

After placing throttle to START check for EGT rise within

A

2 – 3 sec.

55
Q

Abort start if EGT does not rise within

A

10 sec.

56
Q

If engine fails to start after 2nd try, motor with throttle in cutoff for

A

2 min.

57
Q

During engine start move throttle to idle at

A

50% N2

58
Q

Prior to advancing to high thrust setting, allow engine to operate at idle for ___ min

A

2 min.

59
Q

Stabilized ground idle is ___ N2

A

54 – 62% N2

60
Q

To avoid APU bypassing initiate start on the next engine at

A

42% N2

61
Q

Automatic closure of the start valves occurs between

A

43 – 45% N2

62
Q

Automatic closure of the start valve takes

A

3 – 9 sec.

63
Q

With starter valve open light on damage to starter can occur if engine RPM exceeds

A

63% N2

64
Q

Set starter valves to ignition for temperatures at and below

A

0C (32F)

65
Q

At IDLE thrust, the danger area around engine is __ front & side, & __ to the back.

A

25’ 5’

66
Q

At TRT the danger area around engine is __ front & side & __ to the back.

A

50’ 6’

67
Q

If a blast fence is not available clear the area behind the airplane to a minimum distance of

A

900’

68
Q

When only battery power is used for engine start all engine oil pressure & fuel flow gages are inoperative until a generator is online with

A

28V AC

69
Q

Engine oil low pressure warning switches actuate at

A

12.5 (+0.5, -1.5)psi

70
Q

Hyd. & flight control warm-up procedures should be used for temps below

A

20F (-6C)

71
Q

For EFAS test, advance outboard throttle to

A

≈31% N1

72
Q

Engines will accelerate to flight idle if battery power switch is allowed to remain off for more than

A

2 sec.

73
Q

To clear any water and check valve operation turn on engine anti-ice for

A

15 sec.

74
Q

In icing greater than light to prevent damage to acoustical panels initiate engine ice shedding procedures every

A

30 min.

75
Q

Engine ice shedding procedures say to accelerate engines to

A

35% N1

76
Q

If no icing problems are evident, slowly accelerate engines to ___ for ___ sec

A

70% N1 for 30 sec.

77
Q

Turn on anti-ice if there is standing water, fog, or visible moisture with temps ___ or below

A

10C (50F)

78
Q

The minimum fuel required in CWT to check override pumps is

A

3500#

79
Q

During ADC1&2 test the altimeter readout will slew to

A

5000’ (±10)

80
Q

During ADC1&2 test, the airspeed readout will slew to

A

260 KIAS (±1)

81
Q

The recommended rate to advance throttles from flight idle to TRT is

A

3 – 5 sec.

82
Q

Flap indicators should indicate all main flaps within

A

2 degrees

83
Q

To check rudder power, full left to full right rudder pedal travel should be accomplished in approximately

A

1 sec.

84
Q

Rudder power will drop momentarily but should return within

A

3 sec.

85
Q

A takeoff is considered critical if CFL +_____ exceeds runway available or the 3 engine climb gradient is less than _____

A

2000’ 4%

86
Q

Re-compute takeoff data if the runway temperature changes

A

±5C

87
Q

Re-compute takeoff data if the pressure altitude changes

A

±250’

88
Q

Re-compute takeoff data if the gross weight changes

A

2500#

89
Q

Re-compute takeoff data if the % MAC changes

A

1.0%

90
Q

For a critical takeoff re-compute the data if the actual temp vs. temp used varies more than __ degrees

A

2C

91
Q

For better weather radar returns during takeoff set tilt to

A

5 degrees

92
Q

When AUTO is depressed, the radar automatically scans manual tilt setting __

A

±4

93
Q

Skin Paint is not available with the PWS switch in auto below

A

2300’ AGL

94
Q

If freezing precipitation is present a final physical check of the surfaces should be made within ___ of takeoff

A

5 min.

95
Q

From the control cabin it is difficult to see a coating of clear ice on the wings of as much as

A

¼”

96
Q

In either ACCL or MAX the command bars display initial climb commands of

A
  1. 5 for 20 flaps

8. 0 for 30 flaps

97
Q

Call “pickle” at

A

VROT -10 knots

98
Q

Abort the takeoff if the engines don’t reach charted N1 between

A

40 and 80 knots