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KC-135 Super Gouge > Block C Review (2018) > Flashcards

Block C Review (2018) Flashcards

1
Q

Where should you go to find procedures for emergency AR?

A

AFI 11-2kc-135, Vol. 3

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2
Q

Which publication would you reference for combat formation techniques?

A

AFTTP 3-3.KC-135

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3
Q

Your source material for RVSM includes all of the following except…

A

a. Inflight Data manual
b. AFI 11-2KC-135, Vol. 3
c. FLIP General Planning
d. FLIP Area Planning AP1
ANSWER
b. AFI 11-2KC-135, Vol. 3

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4
Q

Where can you find standard formation briefing guides?

A

AFTTP 3-3.KC-135

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5
Q

In which of the following would you find pilot in command (PIC) authorities?

A

AFI 11-202, Vol. 3

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6
Q

Which publication and section do you reference if you’re going somewhere with winds out of limits?

A

AFI 11-2kc-135, Vol. 3 for C2 (command and control)

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7
Q

publication can you find receiver pilot procedures?

A

ATP-56(B)

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8
Q

Which publication should you reference for maintaining formation?

A

AFI 11-2kc-135, Vol. 3

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9
Q

Alternate takeoff minimums can be found in which publication?

A

AFMAN 11-217, Vol. 1 (Not Vol. 2)

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10
Q

Which document contains MARSA procedures?

A

AFI 11-2kc-135, Vol. 3

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11
Q

In which document will you find the weather minimums for takeoff?

A

AFI 11-2kc-135, Vol. 3

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12
Q

Which document lists minimum equipment required for takeoff?

A

The MEL in AFI 11-2KC-135, Vol. 3

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13
Q

Where do you look for guidance on how to prepare for a landing?

A

AFI 11-2KC-135, Vol. 3

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14
Q

Where should you go to find inflight training limitations?

A

AFI 11-2kc-135, Vol. 3

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15
Q

Review terrain charts for takeoff because of which document?

A

AFI 11-2KC-135, Vol. 3

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16
Q

Where should you look for safety procedures for AR?

A

ATP-56 (B)

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17
Q

Where would you find procedures for aircraft security?

A

AFI 11-2kc-135, Vol. 3

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18
Q

Where do you look for procedures to plan a departure route?

A

AFI 11-2KC-135, Vol. 3

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19
Q

Rnoh mtn’s ->

A

AFI 11-2kc-135, Vol. 3

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20
Q

During refueling, the receiver notices the boom is loose. He’s concerned for the safety of the aircraft and crews, so he radios the tanker to breakaway. Where did he find this safety procedure?

A

ATP-56 (B)

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21
Q

Rest of the maneuvers are in the

A

AFI 11-2kc-135, Vol. 3

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22
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient (in the event of a go-around) required at touchdown speed?

A

2.8%

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23
Q

What is the best solution to a tactical situation?

A

There is no single solution

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24
Q

How is EGPWS powered up?

A

By turning on power from ANY of the FMS MASTER POWER switches

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25
Q

EGPWS provides what type of windshear alerting?

A

Reactive windshear alerting

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26
Q

EGPWS features include which of the following? (Select One)

A

a. Forward-looking radar to see potential hazards on the projected flight path
b. Reactive windshear alerting
c. Unsafe planned waypoint alerting
d. Predictive windshear alerting
ANSWER
Reactive windshear alerting

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27
Q

Terrain can be overlaid on which base displays?

A

HSI ARC and MAP ARC

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28
Q

On the WX+T display, precipitation and turbulence are displayed, if detected, to a maximum selected range of…

A

40 NM (Maximum turbulence display range = 40 NM)

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29
Q

If neither pilot nor copilot has terrain overlay selected on an HSI when a terrain awareness display alert is issued, what will occur?

A

The pop-up feature displays terrain on both pilot and copilot HSIs at a range of 10 NM, with audio alerts.

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30
Q

Which enhancement provides an additional element of protection by alerting the pilot of premature descent for approaches where glideslope is not available?

A

Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF)
(Active when the aircraft is configured for landing and is in a normal approach profile. TCF alerts are based on current aircraft location, nearest runway center point, and radio altitude)

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31
Q

T/F - Terrain depicted in solid yellow and red is above your aircraft altitude.

A

T

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32
Q

With peaks mode, what additional information is displayed on the HSI in terrain mode?

A

The highest (and lowest) terrain within the displayed range

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33
Q

What does a red 080 indicate while in Peak mode?

A

The highest terrain is 8000’ MSL

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34
Q

What aural warning will you hear if a predictive windshear is encountered on approach?

A

“Go Around, Windshear Ahead”

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35
Q

What is FALSE regarding a yellow predictive windshear CAUT indicator?

A

You will hear the aural message: “Caution, Windshear”

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36
Q

When do you hear the warning “Glideslope, Glideslope?”

A

When 2 dots or more below the glideslope

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37
Q

You receive the aural “TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP” warning, how many seconds from the terrain hazard?

A

30 seconds (warning envelope)

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38
Q

When is it appropriate to use the terrain inhibit (TERR INH) switch?

A

When landing at an airfield not in the EGPWS database, to prevent terrain alerts when penetrating the 700-foot terrain clearance floor

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39
Q

Why would you want to override speed brakes (by pressing the S/B OVRD switch)?

A

If the stabilizer is inoperative (jammed)

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40
Q

The FLP OVRD switch overrides the ______ aural alert, which occurs during an approach when flaps are below ____. (Real world example?)

A

“Too Low, Flaps”
25 degrees
Example: If you experienced the loss of two engines on the same side, along with loss of powered rudder. The approach would be made with 20 flaps (less than 25 degree EGPWS threshold) causing a “TOO LOW - FLAPS” aural alert)

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41
Q

What technology does the radar use to detect turbulence?

A

Doppler

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42
Q

Doppler technology is made for…

A

Turbulence and windshear

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43
Q

Can the radar detect clear air turbulence?

A

NO

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44
Q

Off in the Radar Display indicates…

A

The RCP is set to OFF

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45
Q

WXR in black letters on red background indicates…

A

Radar has failed

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46
Q

What is the indication that radar has failed?

A

WXR in black letters on red background

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47
Q

When the radar is in ground map mode, low reflectivity targets such as calm water display as…

A

Black

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48
Q

T/F HSI ARC can display Radar info

A

T

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49
Q

What is the function of the Radar Control Panel (RCP) CLTR feature?

A

Reduces intensity of ground returns while viewing weather displays (Reduces ground clutter)

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50
Q

Which of the following are TRUE regarding the use of the Radar CLTR function?

A 
a.
b.
c.
d. All of the above 
All of the above
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51
Q

Go to which CDU page to turn on datalinking?

A

Config page (IDX, CONFIG, DL:ON)

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52
Q

Which LSK do you press to turn on datalinking?

A

LSK 3, CONFIG

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53
Q

Where do you go to choose the datalink method?

A

CDU

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54
Q

When transitioning from one datalink FIR to another, the transition typically happens automatically prior to entering the new FIR, with only a few actions you may have to complete. These include:

A

Contact [new FIR] radio
Get a SELCAL check
Make a CPDLC position report (This is the test answer)

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55
Q

Who is responsible for initiating ADS position reports?

A

Nobody, they transmit automatically

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56
Q

A datalink message can be sent by SATCOM, VHF radio, or HF radio. Who or what decides how it is sent?

A

The communication management unit (CMU)

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57
Q

The AFN log-on (FLT ID) must match the …

A

Aircraft Call Sign

CBTs say “Aircraft registration number in the flight plan,” but this is incorrect

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58
Q

When you receive a containment alert, what action improves ANP?

A

Switching on the autopilot (also, using the INU)

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59
Q

When entering cargo data, FSAS orders the stations…

A

From the nose of the aircraft, aft.

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60
Q

To provide you with conservative performance data, all FSAS calculator data is predicated assuming what?

A

Loss of an engine during takeoff

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61
Q

In the performance climb pages, what is the most commonly used option?

A

Enroute

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62
Q

A COST factor of _________ provides maximum time-savings advisories.

A

99

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63
Q

Unless a lower setting is required for VMCG/VMCA considerations, which N1 setting is recommended for critical takeoffs?

A

TRT or MCL (Dash 1 answer)

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64
Q

How often are the values of weight and balance (wt&bal (lb) 2/2 page) updated?

A

Continuously

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65
Q

Which LSK on the weight and balance page 1/2 toggles the alternate load factor limit?

A

LSK 7 (2.0 G)

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66
Q

What is included in aircraft basic weight?

A

On ramp weight, no fuel and no cargo

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67
Q

Common degrade on T/O solution

A

TO NOGO

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68
Q

Degrade factors drogue chute on takeoff

A

DROGUE CHUTE ONLY

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69
Q

Which is a common degrade you might apply to your takeoff data calculations?

A

Attachment of air-refueling (A/R) pods

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70
Q

Which type of FSAS message advises you of a critical takeoff situation?

A

CAUT - (Not NOGO or T/O NOGO - those are generally advising you of invalid or missing data, though not always)

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71
Q

If FMAC is unable to successfully calculate a takeoff solution, a ________ message appears on line four of the first four takeoff pages and the output displays continue to show dashes.

A

T/O NOGO

72
Q

What does a CAUT message indicate when displayed either on the FSAS calculator or on the CDU in the jet? Can the takeoff be attempted?

A

The takeoff data has been computed, but a unique condition exists that requires your attention
(The answer is NOT that the takeoff should not be attempted)

73
Q

If in-flight minimum control speed (VMCA) exceeds rotation speed (VROT < VMCA), the FSAS calculator _______.

A

Automatically increases VROT

74
Q

If VROT increases, VCO…

A

Increases an equal amount

75
Q

Which CDU function key would you select to access the FSAS and performance (fpln perf) pages?

A

MSN

76
Q

Stopping distance is defined as the…

A

Flare distance + the landing ground roll distance (which may include DBF)

77
Q

The loss shear climb-out procedure will not provide…

A

Charted obstacle clearance performance

78
Q

If a high or medium altitude escape is necessary…

A

Use a spiral up departure

79
Q

No writing on MLS plate -

A

Noncomputed

80
Q

Are all 8s on the IFMP panel an indication of an electrical fault?

A

No

81
Q

What are some common symptoms of integrated fuel management panel (IFMP) electrical faults?

A

Uncommanded fuel transfers
Fuel not transferring when a fuel transfer valve switch is positioned for transfer
Fuel transfer valve switch indicator lights on the IFMP not coming on
(***All 8s are NOT an indication of an electrical fault)

82
Q

Which resolution advisory will you receive if TCAS wants you to climb with an aircraft descending above you?

A

Climb, Crossing Climb

83
Q

ETCAS and IFF same due to what?

A

Mode S transponder

84
Q

According to AFI 11-2KC-135, Volume 3, the primary means of ensuring aircraft separation is/are ___________.

A

See and avoid AND ATC procedures

85
Q

For traffic without a functioning transponder, ETCAS will

A

Not track the traffic (it will be invisible)

86
Q

TCAS - A solid yellow circle on the display represents which of the following intruders?

A

Traffic advisory (TA)

87
Q

A solid red square displayed by the TCAS indicates what?

A

A resolution advisory (RA)

88
Q

What is the range of ETCAS?

A

40 NM

89
Q

CPDLC messages are used to:

A

a. Communicate to TACC
b. Communicate to scheduling
c. Make route changes
d. Make altitude requests
e. Communicate with ATSU controllers

90
Q

How do you initiate datalink communications with TACC?

A

Send an INIT REQ without any data entered in the message field

91
Q

What is the meaning of a REQUEST DEFERRED response?

A

The ground station has received your request. Expect a delay in excess of 10 minutes.

92
Q

All North Atlantic FIRs use the ADS system

A

…

93
Q

A datalink can be sent by SATCOM, VHF radio, or HF radio. Who or what decides how it is sent?

A

CMU

94
Q

CNS/ATM replaces traditional voice communications to air traffic controllers with datalink messages to:

A

ATSUs

95
Q

What are some possible reasons you may not be able to make contact with an ATSU using the CPDLC message group?

A
  • The aircraft registration is missing from you flight plan
  • The ATSU does not have your flight plan
  • You entered an incorrect ICAO code for the ATSU you’re trying to contact
  • The form 1801 registration does not match the registration you are sending
96
Q

When transitioning from one datalink FIR to another, the transition typically happens automatically prior to entering the new FIR, with only a few actions you may have to complete. These include:

A
  • Contact [new FIR] radio HF SELCAL check
  • Respond to an END SERVICE message with a WILCO
  • Make a CPDLC position report
97
Q

You’re using datalink while flying in the Reykjavik FIR in the North Atlantic region. How are you expected to communicate in an emergency?

A

Use voice communication

98
Q

Who is responsible for initiating ADS position reports?

A

Nobody, they transmit automatically

99
Q

The AFN log-on (FLT ID) must match the:

A

Aircraft call sign

100
Q

An appropriate downlink response to an ATC clearance is:

A

WILCO

101
Q

The Ditching checklist calls for the use of a __________.

A

CPDLC emergency message

102
Q

What are some of the advantages of using datalink?

A
  • Clearer communication
  • More efficient communication
  • Automatic position reporting
103
Q

The radar system may be turned on from which of the following stations?

A

a. Pilot
b. Copilot
c. Navigator
d. Boom Operator

104
Q

Which of the following knobs controls the radar antenna elevation angle?

A

Tilt

105
Q

In which of the following RCP modes will the display revert to another mode if an invalid range is selected?

A

WX+T

106
Q

How would you select mode interleaving with the mode knob in WX?

A

Engage the SKIN button

107
Q

What advantage does the MSTR button provide?

A

Any two operators can independently select range, mode, tilt, and gain on their own respective RCPs

108
Q

What is the maximum range at which skin targets may be considered reliable?

A

15 NM

109
Q

Which of the following weather would have the strongest return?

A

Lower 2/3 of a thunderstorm

110
Q

The PWS function detects windshear events associated with precipitation only

A

…

111
Q

The mode reverts to WX or WX+T if windshear is detected in GMAP mode

A

…

112
Q

The radar display is showing split targets in SKIN paint mode. How would you correct this problem?

A

The problem should correct itself within one or two sweeps of the antenna

113
Q

Collision avoidance, Ground proximity warning, and warnings for clear air turbulence are not appropriate for radar

A

…

114
Q

The automatic windshear detection function may be activated:

A

Using only the pilot’s PWS switch

115
Q

Where should the GAIN knob be set in WX and WX+T modes?

A

CAL

116
Q

What is the most likely cause of an abbreviated test during ground preflight?

A

TEST was selected from an operational mode

117
Q

When the radar is in ground map mode, high-reflectivity targets are indicated by:

A

Bright areas

118
Q

On the WX+T display, precip and turbulence are displayed, if detected, to a maximum selected range of:

A

40 NM

119
Q

What are the 4 possible annunciations that may be shown below the mode field to provide current configuration of the radar?

A

GCS, USTB, GAIN, TILT

120
Q

The highest level windshear alert on approach includes all of the following indications:

A
  • An aural message, “Go Around, Windshear Ahead”
  • A red and black windshear icon on the radar display
  • A red visual “WINDSHEAR” annunciation on the MFD
121
Q

The lowest level windshear alert on approach includes all of the following indications:

A

A red and black windshear icon with yellow lines to the outer range of the display

122
Q

Which of the following switches are guarded to prevent inadvertent selection?

A

a. G/S INH
b. TERR INH
c. FLP OVRD
d. LDG GEAR OVERIDE

Note: SPD BRK OVERIDE is also guarded

123
Q

EGPWS is powered up from the master power page on the CDU. T/F

A

False, powered up when either of the FMS 1/2/3 MASTER POWER switches is on

124
Q

Terrain can be overlaid on which of the following base displays?

A

a. MAP ARC
b. N MAP
c. HSI ARC
d. WXR
e. HSI

125
Q

Terrain data can be displayed on the center MFD. T/F

A

False, only TCAS info can be overlaid on the IMFD

126
Q

If you experienced the loss of two engines on the same side, along with loss of powered rudder, you might elect to inhibit which EGPWS warning?

A

FLP OVRD

127
Q

If there is no terrain in the database, the terrain look-ahead alerting is not available. What color is the affected flight display?

A

Magenta

128
Q

Which of the following enhancements provides an additional element of protection by alerting the pilot of premature descent for approaches where glideslope is not available?

A

a. Terrain awareness display (TAD)
b. Terrain clearance floor (TCF)
c. Terrain look-ahead alerting
d. Terrain pop-up

129
Q

The terrain awareness display (TAD) function displays terrain and man-made obstacles within +/- 90° of the aircraft ground track, above, at, or below the aircraft’s own altitude to a range of 320 NM. T/F

A

T

130
Q

With peaks mode, the HSI only displays the elevation of the highest terrain within 25 NM, regardless of selected display range. T/F

A

False, displays highest and lowest altitudes of the terrain displayed on the HSI

131
Q

If neither pilot nor copilot has terrain overlay selected on an HSI when a terrain awareness display alert is issued, which of the following will occur?

A

The terrain pop-up feature will display terrain on both pilot and copilot HSIs. Audio alerts will also be issued.

132
Q

Terrain depicted in solid yellow and red is above your aircraft altitude. T/F

A

T

133
Q

EGPWS features include which of the following:

A

Reactive windshear alerting

134
Q

With peaks mode, what additional information is displayed on the HSI in terrain mode?

A

The highest terrain within the displayed range

135
Q

How is the EGPWS powered up?

A

By turning on power from one of the FMS MATER POWER switches

136
Q

An EGPWS test is in progress on the CDU shown. When the test completes, which of the following would indicate a system problem?

A

IBIT 00000000 00000001

137
Q

Terrain cannot be displayed on the center MFD

A

T

138
Q

An enhancement that provides an additional element of protection by alerting the pilot of premature descent for approaches where glideslope is not available is known as:

A

Terrain clearance floor (TCF)

139
Q

Which of the following is not an EGPWS database?

A

Falcon View 3 database

140
Q

Which of the following display colors indicates the most critical terrain elevation?

A

a. Black
b. 25% Green
c. 25% Yellow
d. Solid Yellow

141
Q

Extended range TCAS enlarges the normal TCAS II surveillance area to a circular area with a radius of approximately ___________ NM.

A

40

142
Q

For traffic equipped with Mode 3A only (no Mode C), ETCAS will:

A

a. not track the traffic (it will be “invisible”)
b. track the traffic but not display its altitude
c. track the traffic and display its relative altitude
d. track the traffic but not display its Mode 3A “tag”

143
Q

For aircraft equipped with Mode S and TCAS II, ETCAS will:

A

a. Not track the traffic
b. Track the traffic but not display its altitude
c. Track the traffic and display its relative altitude
d. Coordinate resolution advisory (RA) with the other aircraft

144
Q

You are lead and number 2 loses its transponder. Your ETCAS will:

A

Not track number 2 (it will be invisible)

145
Q

Which of the following components are used for ETCAS display, operation, and control?

A 
MCPs
VSIs
Mode S transponder
FMS CDU
MFDs
146
Q

The TCAS processor performs which of the following functions?

A

a. Issues appropriate aural advisories
b. Detects, tracks, and displays intruders
c. Computes required vertical evasive maneuvers
d. Determines target range, bearing and closure rate

147
Q

On the VSI, the dotted blue range ring represents a radius of ________ NM from your aircraft at the range shown.

A

2

148
Q

Which of the following answers correctly describes the meaning of “LIM” shown display?

A

a. TCAS has automatically limited the surveillance area because of excessive traffic density
b. The system is in extended range mode, displaying the limit of its range capability
c. TCAS is tracking its limit of 45 aircraft and cannot track anymore
d. The vertical volume is limited to 4,000 ft.

149
Q

ETCAS cannot issue resolution advisories on no-bearing intruders. T/F

A

False, TCAS can still issue RAs on no-bearing intruders it just can’t show their relative position

150
Q

it just can’t show their relative position

A

…

151
Q

When RNG is toggled to NORM, the TCAS surveillance area is:

A

An elliptical area with the forward lobe extending out to a maximum of 30 NM

152
Q

Do you remember what one of the main purposes for setting SENS to TA?

A

To avoid nuisance RAs during formation flight

153
Q

What does the √POWER annunciation mean?

A

Power for the IFF has not been turned on

154
Q

According to AFI 11-2KC-135, V3, the primary means of ensuring aircraft separation is/are __________.

A

See-and-avoid concept

ATC procedures

155
Q

For an initial preventative RA, TCAS expects you to initiate the maneuver within _____ seconds at no more than ________ G’s load factor.

A

5; 0.25

156
Q

For an increase or reversal follow-up RA, TCAS expects you to initiate the maneuver within _________ seconds at no more than __________G’s added load factor.

A

2.5; 0.35

157
Q

In normal TCAS II mode, the surveillance area extends approximately __________ NM forward of the aircraft.

A

30

158
Q

For traffic without a functioning transponder, ETCAS will:

A

Not track the traffic (it will be “invisible”)

159
Q

On what base displays can TCAS be overlaid?

A

HSI MAP
MAP ARC
TACTICAL

160
Q

The _________ functions as the “brain” of the system, detecting range, bearing, and closure rate of intruders and computing required vertical evasive maneuvers.

A

TCAS processor

161
Q

Which buttons or controls are required to change the TCAS offset on non-IMFD displays?

A

OFFSET button

CURSOR control

162
Q

The vertical display volume of “BELOW” on the MFD and VSI would normally be used during:

A

descent and approach

163
Q

During which phase of flight would you most likely set the sensitivity to TA?

A

Formation and air refueling

164
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Mode S address shown at LSK 4?

A

The normal Mode S address for the aircraft is found on a placard above the copilot’s CDU

165
Q

What would be the result of toggling BRDCST to OFF?

A

Only airborne Mode S interrogations are responded to

166
Q

All traffic when descending below 380 ft AGL or climbing below 500 ft AGL is displayed as:

A

Non-threat traffic

167
Q

Pressing CLR on the wt&bal page 1 accomplishes:

A
  • Replaces basic aircraft weight (BAW) and MOMENT values with dashes
  • Replaces all cargo weight and arm entries with dashes
  • Resets the fuel type to JP-8 (the default value)
168
Q

Calculated weight and balance data shown on the wt&bal (lb) 2/2 page is updated:

A

Continuously after basic aircraft weight and moment (or index) are entered on the wt&bal (lb) 1/2 page

169
Q

The TOT XFUEL field represents the total:

A

Cumulative fuel transferred during the entire mission

170
Q

The value in the field labeled DEV indicates: -10%

A

The aircraft is using 10% more fuel than the “ideal” aircraft

171
Q

The fuel savings advisory modes are accessed through the control display unit (CDU) using the ___________ function key.

A

MSN

172
Q

Target values computed by the FSAS for N1 and airspeed are shown remotely on the:

A

ADI

173
Q

Selected INIT FSA at LSK 7 on the mission 1/2 page:

A

Clears all of the weight and balance, climb, cruise, and descent data, and resets the FSAS to the default values

174
Q

The fuel density displayed on the right side of line 1 represents the:

A

Average fuel density of fuel loaded in all tanks

175
Q

Brackets around the outside air temperature (OAT) value indicate:

A

The TAT probe has failed, and you must manually insert the OAT

176
Q

What is the default fuel type setting?

A

JP-8

KC-135 Super Gouge (21 decks)

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