Jeppesen Flashcards

1
Q

Define: aerodrome elevation

A

The elevation of the highest point of the landing area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define: minimum fuel

A

Little or no delay can be accepted. NOT an emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Typical GPS accuracy

A

100m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MORA minimum obstacle clearance

A

Where elevation 5000ftAMSL or lower, 1000ft. Where elevation 5001ftAMSL+, 2000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does RNP refer to?

A

Navigation position accuracy in NM for 95% of the flight time. It is performance based and not dependent on specific equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

High speed taxiway maximum speed

A

60kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Final approach commencement/end

A

FAF, last turn onto final, or point of interception with last specified track of approach. Ends with landing or commencement of a missed approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ILS CAT I minima

A

DH: 200ft+
Visibility: 800m or RVR: 550m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ILS CAT II minima

A

DH: 100-200ft
RVR: 300m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ILS CAT IIIA minima

A

DH: 50-100ft
RVR: 175m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ILS CAT IIIB minima

A

DH: 0-50ft
RVR: 50-175m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ILS CAT IIIC minima

A

No DH

No RVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Conducting an ILS approach with an associated NDB failure

A

Must join the ILS outside of the OM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Windshear report

A

Intensity
Speed changes experienced
Under/overshoot effects
Altitude encountered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

WX code: VC

A

In the vicinity of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

WX code: BC

A

Patches of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define: CAVOK

A

Visibility >10km
No significant cloud below higher of 5000ft or 25NM MSA
No significant weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

WX code: BR

A

Mist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

WX code: FG

A

Fog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

WX codes: GR/GS

A

Hail/Small hail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

WX code: BL

A

Blowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define: moderate turbulence

A
Aircraft remains in positive control
Moderate changes in attitude/airspeed/altitude
Difficulty walking
Strain against seatbelts
Loose objects move about
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define: severe turbulence

A

Aircraft may be temporarily out of control
Abrupt/large changes in attitude/airspeed/altitude
Forced against seatbelts
Loose objects are tossed about

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Navigation specification - RNP vs RNVAV

A

Both are types of area navigation, however RNP requires on board performance monitoring and alerting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Airspace speed limitations

A

Below 10’000ft: 250kts

Below 2500ftAGL within 4NM of a Class D aerodrome: 200kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

RPT lighting requirements (aerodrome)

A

Runway edge, threshold, obstacles, taxiway, apron, wind sock (may be unavailable if an approved observer can give wind velocity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Temperature corrections

A

The colder it is, the lower you are than indicated. Therefore, we add 4% of the height we wish to maintain, for every 10 degrees colder than ISA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

IFR alternate minima

A

Whenever there is an unavailable or provisional forecast.
Whatever is published on the approach chart, or where there is no approach, LSALT +500ft for last route segment and 8km visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

IFR radio aid requirements

A

2 independent systems for an aid, or systems for 2 separate aids.
If no instrument approach, LSALT +500ft for last route segment and 8km visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Light signal: steady green

A

Take off

Land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Light signal: steady red

A

Stop

Give way and continue circling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Light signal: flashing green

A

Taxi

Return for landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Light signal: flashing red

A

Taxi clear of landing area

Do not land, aerodrome unsafe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Light signal: flashing white

A

Return to starting point on aerodrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Light signal: acknowledgement of receipt

A

Rock wings
Rock ailerons and rudder
Double flash landing lights at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

PAL/AFRU activation

A

PAL: 3 secs on, 1 sec off x3
AFRU: 3 short clicks max 1 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

IFR preflight altimeter check

A

One altimeter must read within 60ft.
Second altimeter may read 60-75ft until first point of landing where a recheck can occur.
Must be below 60ft on recheck or altimeter is unserviceable for flight under IFR.

38
Q

VMC criteria

A

Above 10’000ft: 8km visibility, 1500m horizontal distance and 1000ft vertical distance from cloud.
Below 10’000ft: 5km visibility, 1500m horizontal distance and 1000ft vertical distance from cloud.
Class D airspace: 5km visibility, 600m horizontal distance, maintain 1000ft above cloud or 500ft below cloud.
Class G airspace below 3000ftAMSL or 1000ftAGL: 5km visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of ground.

39
Q

Weather radar serviceability

A

May not depart if TS or cloud formations associated with severe turbulence are forecast enroute.

40
Q

Aircraft deviations in controlled airspace - advice to ATC

A

LOC/VOR/GNSS: Half scale deflection
NDB: 5 degrees
DME: 2NM
Visual navigation: 1NM

41
Q

Notify ATC of RAIM failure if…

A

ATC request distance information and RAIM is unavailable.
RAIM is lost for >5 mins
DR mode
Track displacement is >2NM

42
Q

For what time period is a valid forecast required?

A

Duration of flight, as well as aerodrome forecasts for 30 mins prior to and 60 mins after planned ETA.

43
Q

FF flow tolerances

A

At specified time or up to 30 secs early

44
Q

Standard terminal area arrival speeds

A

From 10’000ft: 250kt
From 20NM to run (except SY): 230kt
From 10NM to run: 185-160kt
From 5NM to run: 160-150kt

45
Q

Visual approach authorisation requirements

A
Can continue flight with visual reference to the ground
5km visibility
Within 30NM (day or night) or assigned MVA with instructions to intercept final or to position within circling area (by night)
46
Q

Visual approach tracking requirements

A

Maintain assigned track/heading until within 5NM (day) or in the circling area (night)

47
Q

Visual approach minimum altitude requirements

A

Controlled airpsace: 500ft above CTA LL
Day: Lowest permissible for VFR
Night: Route LSALT/MSA or DME/GPS arrival procedure until circling area with airport in sight, or 5NM (7NM if ILS equipped airport) and not below on slope on T-VASIS/PAPI, or 10NM (14NM SY 34L/16L) within full scale deflection on the ILS and not below the glide path

48
Q

Leaving an approach holding fix time

A

On time or up to 1 min early

49
Q

Standard circuit pattern direction

A

Left hand pattern

50
Q

Do not commence take off until…

A

Preceding has crossed upwind end/is airborne at least 1800m ahead, vacated the runway, or crossed/stopped short of the runway.

51
Q

Non-controlled taxi call to ATS

A
Velocity XXXX
ATR72
IFR
Taxiing [location]
For [destination]
Runway XX
52
Q

Taxi request call

A
Velocity XXXX
ATR72
Information X
Bay XX for [destination]
Request taxi
53
Q

Non-controlled departure call to ATS

A
Velocity XXXX
Departed [aerodrome] time XX
Tracking XXX
[Present level] climbing to FLXXX
Estimating [first enroute point] XX
54
Q

Straight in approach - how to determine wind velocity and runway in use

A
AWIS
Ground based communications service
Company agent
Approved observer
Aircraft operating at that aerodrome
Visual check
55
Q

Do not land until (separation minima)…

A

Preceding has commenced a turn/beyond expected point of landing roll, vacated, or crossed/stopped short of runway

56
Q

SARWATCH cancellation call

A

Velocity XXXX
Landed [aerodrome]
Cancel SARWATCH

57
Q

Change of levels time requirement

A

ASAP but no later than 1 min after request

58
Q

Wake turbulence separation minima - super and heavy

A

3 mins/7NM behind a super.
2 mins/5NM behind a heavy.
For intersection departures >150m ahead of preceding aircrafts commencement point, add extra minute (4 mins/3 mins respectively)

59
Q

After landing taxi request call

A

Velocity XXXX for bay XX

60
Q

Emergency squawk

A

7700

61
Q

Distress message

A
Mayday Mayday Mayday
[Station addressed]
Velocity XXXX Velocity XXXX Velocity XXXX
ATR72
[Nature of emergency]
[Intentions]
[Present/last known position]
FLXXX/XXXXft
Heading XXX
[Any other useful information]
62
Q

Urgency message

A
Pan pan Pan pan Pan pan
[Station addressed]
Velocity XXXX Velocity XXXX Velocity XXXX
ATR72
[Nature of urgency]
[Intentions]
[Present position]
FLXXX/XXXXft
Heading XXX
[Any other useful information]
63
Q

Unlawful interference squawk

A

7500

64
Q

Comms failure squawk

A

7600

65
Q

Comms failure actions - in VMC

A

Remain in VMC

Land at most suitable aerodrome

66
Q

Comms failure actions - in IMC with no clearance limit

A

Proceed as per last clearance acknowledged
Commence descent as per SOPs/flight plan to most suitable approach aid
Adhere to any approach time given
Within 25NM track directly to aid
Carry out approach

67
Q

Emergency change of level in controlled airspace

A

Squawk 7700

Make a Pan pan call

68
Q

Comms failure actions - in IMC with clearance limits

A

Maintain assigned level for 3 mins and/or hold at nominated location for 3 mins
Proceed as per last clearance acknowledged
Commence descent as per SOPs/flight plan to most suitable approach aid
Adhere to any approach time given
Within 25NM track directly to aid
Carry out approach

69
Q

Comms failure actions - in IMC being vectored

A

Maintain assigned vector for 2 mins
Climb to MSA
Proceed as per last clearance acknowledged
Commence descent as per SOPs/flight plan to most suitable approach aid
Adhere to any approach time given
Within 25NM track directly to aid
Carry out approach

70
Q

Comms failure actions - in IMC and holding

A

Fly one more complete pattern
Proceed as per last clearance acknowledged
Commence descent as per SOPs/flight plan to most suitable approach aid
Adhere to any approach time given
Within 25NM track directly to aid
Carry out approach

71
Q

Holding pattern standard turn direction

A

Right hand pattern

72
Q

Holding speed limitations

A

Up to and including FL140: 230kt (170kt if approach limited to Cat A and B aircraft)
Above FL140 up to and including FL200: 240kt
Above FL200: 265kt

73
Q

Holding: outbound leg limits

A

1 min (1.5 min above FL140) unless otherwise specified on chart.

74
Q

Holding pattern turn rate

A

Lesser of rate 1 or 25 degrees

75
Q

Holding pattern: Sector 1 entry

A

Parallel
Entry from pattern side
Inbound + 110 degrees
Over fix, turn to outbound heading, then turn into pattern to intercept inbound track

76
Q

Holding pattern: Sector 2 entry

A

Offset
Entry from dead side
Inbound minus 70 degrees
Over fix, turn into pattern 30 degrees off outbound heading, then turn in pattern direction to intercept inbound track

77
Q

Holding pattern: Sector 3 entry

A

Direct

Over fix, turn to follow pattern

78
Q

Descent below LSALT/MSA requirements

A

When over IAF/facility unless complying with a visual approach, DME/GPS arrival, or identified and assigned an altitude by ATC

79
Q

Cat C aircraft approach handling speed limitations

A
Vat: 121-140kt
Initial/intermediate: 160-240kt
Final: 115-160kt
Circling: 180kt
Missed approach: 240kt
80
Q

Cat B aircraft approach handling speed limitations

A
Vat: 91-120kt
Initial/intermediate: 120-180kt
Reversal procedures: 140kt
Final: 85-120kt
Circling: 135kt
Missed approach: 150kt
81
Q

Reversal procedures: descent

A

Outbound descents: once fix is crossed and established on/on a heading to intercept the outbound track
Inbound (final) descents: only once established on the inbound track

82
Q

Must conduct a missed approach when…

A

Out of tolerance
Performance of aid is suspect/aid fails
Visual reference not established at MDA/DA/MAP
Landing cannot be effected from a runway approach without circling, and conditions are not equal to or better than those required

83
Q

Missed approach obstacle clearance

A

100ft minimum clearance at a gradient of 2.5%. If this climb gradient cannot be achieved, the MDA/DA must be increased.

84
Q

Circling approaches - descent below MDA requirements

A

Within circling area
Maintain required visibility
Maintain visual contact with runway environment
Continuous descent to the threshold (dive and drive is permitted in daytime only)
Maintain minimum obstacle clearance for aircraft category

85
Q

Circling approaches - minimum obstacle clearance

A

Cat C: 400ft

Cat B: 300ft

86
Q

Circling area limits

A

Cat C: 4.2NM arcs from the threshold

Cat B: 2.66NM arcs from the threshold

87
Q

Take off minima for qualifying multi IFR aircraft

A

0ft ceiling
800m visibility
550m visibility if runway edge lighting (minimum 60m spacing), runway centreline lighting/markings, airport is one at which carriage of radio is mandatory, if non-controlled at time of departure then by day only

88
Q

Landing minima: no instrument approach procedure

A

Day: visual approach requirements
Night: VMC from LSALT within 3NM

89
Q

Landing minima: NPAs

A

As per the chart

If HIAL is not available, LOC approaches visibility requirements increase by 900m

90
Q

Landing minima: Cat I approaches

A

As per the chart

  1. 5km minimum visibility if HIAL not available
  2. 2km minimum visibility if not flown to the DA with FD (manual) or coupled autopilot, or if the failure warning system for the ATT/HDG systems not available, or if HIREL not available
  3. 8km minimum visibility if threshold RVR information not available