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Gastroenterology > Jen's GI pharm > Flashcards

Jen's GI pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Bind bile acids and inhibit peptic activity. Promote angiogenesis in injured mucosa. Heavy metals suppress H. pylori

A

antacids

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2
Q

General class of pharm treatment that antacids interfere with

A

antibiotics

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3
Q

Inhibit acid secretion by blocking histamine H2 receptors on the parietal cell

A

MOA of H2 blockers

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4
Q

Can rarely cause gynecomastia and impotence, oolymyositis, Interstitial nephritis. Cleared through the P450 system so has multiple drug interactions

A

Cimetidine

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5
Q

Prevents chemical induced mucosal damage. Heals chronic ulcers

A

Sulcralfate (Carafate)

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6
Q

Binds to the ulcer base best at a pH below 3.5 so should be administered 30-60 min prior to meals

A

Sulcralfate (Carafate)

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7
Q

Should not be administered in combination with aluminum antacids in patients with renal failure. No administration w/citrate containing compounds

A

Sulcralfate (Carafate)

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8
Q

What is the suffix for all proton pump inhibitors?

A

-azole

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9
Q

What are the generic names for the proton pump inhibitors?

A

Prilosec, prevacid, protonix, nexium, kapidex, aciphex

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10
Q

MOA of proton pump inhibitors

A

blocks acid secretion of parietal cells

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11
Q

At what time of day should PPIs be admininstered?

A

before the first meal of the day

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12
Q

PPI with the lowest potential for P450 drug interactions

A

Pantoprazole (Protonix)

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13
Q

PPIs metabolized via CYP2C19 and have the greatest potential for drug interactions

A

Omeprazole (Prilosec, Zegrid) and esomeprazole (Nexium)

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14
Q

Common blood thinner that has a significant interaction with omeprazole

A

clopidogrel (Plavix)

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15
Q

Long term administration of PPIs may increase the incidence of what two infections

A

c. difficile and pneumonia

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16
Q

Long term administration of PPIs may lead to the malabsorption of what dietary elements?

A

B12, Mg+ (magnesium), and Fe (iron)

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17
Q

Suppresses H. pylori infection. Not helpful in treatment of non H pylori induced ulcers

A

Bismuth

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18
Q

Inhibition of peptic activity but not pepsin secretion. Recruits macrophages to the edge of the ulcer crater to promote healing

A

Bismuth

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19
Q

First line therapy for gastroparesis for no longer than 12 weeks unless benefits outweigh risks

A

Metaclopramide (Reglan)

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20
Q

Improves gastric emptying by increasing gastric antral contractions and decreasing postprandial fundus relaxation

A

Metaclopramide (Reglan)

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21
Q

Dopamine receptor antagonist. 5-HT4 agonist. Weak 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

A

Metaclopramide (Reglan)

22
Q

Extrapyradimal side effects associated with metaclopramide (Reglan)

A

dystonia and tardive dyskinesia

23
Q

Name the phenothiazines that can be used as antiemetics because of their effects as dopamine receptor antagonists

A

Prochlorperazine (Compazine) and Promethazine (Phenergan)

24
Q

What is the treatment for EPS side effects that can be caused by phenothiazines?

A

Benadryl or Cogentin

25
Q

Which phenothiazein has a higher incidence of EPS side effects?

A

Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

26
Q

Great for postoperative and chemotherapy induced emesis. Does poor job with vestibular system etiology. Commonly given 30” prior to chemo tx.

A

Serotonin 5-HT3 Antagonists

27
Q

What is the suffix for Serotonin 5-HT3 Antagonists?

A

-setron

28
Q

What are the generic names for Serotonin 5-HT3 Antagonists?

A

Zofran, Kytril, Anzemet, Aloxi

29
Q

caution for serotonin syndrome, QT prolongation, monitor liver function tests if prolonged use

A

Odansetron (Zofran)

30
Q

What is the antiemetic that is also good for treating pruritis?

A

Hydroxyzine (Atarax, Vistaril)

31
Q

Contraindications for the use of Antihistamines/Anticholinergcs as antiemetics

A

narrow angle glaucoma, asthma, prostatic hypertrophy

32
Q

Only for symptomatic treatment of patients with acute diarrhea in whom fever is absent or low grade and the stools are not bloody

A

Loperamide (Imodium)

33
Q

Bile acid-binding agent used for hyperlipidemia. Good for diarrhea post-cholecystectomy

A

Cholestyramine (Questran)

34
Q

First line pharmacotherapy for the treatment of constipation

A 
Psyllium (Metamucil) and
Ducosate sodium (Colace)
35
Q

First line pharmacotherapy for the treatment of constipation used for infants

A

Glycerin

36
Q

Not systemically absorbed. Bind to the fecal contents and pull water into the stool. Softens and lubricates the stool. NEEDS TO BE TAKEN WITH WATER

A

Bulk forming agents (ie Metamucil)

37
Q

What bulk forming agent can decrease absorption of tetracycline and quinolones?

A

Fibercon

38
Q

Surfactant laxatives. Reduces the surface tension of the liquid contents of the bowel. Commonly referred to as “stool softeners”

A

Ducusate derivatives

39
Q

Use for patients who should not strain with bowel movements and for those on narcotics. Only prevent constipation – don’t treat

A

Ducusate derivatives

40
Q

Is a saline laxative. Draws water into the bowel through osmosis. Increases intraluminal pressure & motility.

A

milk of mangesia

41
Q

Use if failed bulk forming agents, mangnesium hydroxide (MOM). Hyperosmotic laxatives. Use with caution in diabetics

A

Lactulose or sorbitol

42
Q

Not for long term use. Increase peristalsis through direct effects on the smooth muscle of the intestines. Promote fluid accumulation in the colon and small intestine

A

Senna (Senokot) and Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)

43
Q

Contraindications to Senna (Senokot) and Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)

A

surgical abdomen, fecal impaction

44
Q

Used for bowel prep for endoscopy procedures

A

Magnesium citrate

45
Q

Considered best for colonic disease, although also considered 1st line therapy for Crohn’s

A

Sulfasalazine (Asulfidine)

46
Q

Often used with proximal intestinal Crohn’s

A

Mesalamine (Asacol, Pentasa)

47
Q

Blocks prostaglandin production. Perhaps interferes with production of inflammatory cytokines. May inhibit natural killer cells, lymphocytes and macrophages

A

aminosalicylates

48
Q

Immune modulator with short half life that is pregnancy category D

A

6-mercaptopurine

49
Q

Has drug toxicity with concurrent use of Allopurinol

A

immune modifiers

50
Q

Immune modifier that is pregnancy category X and Inhibits the metabolism of folic acid

A

methotrexate

51
Q

Name the TNF inhibitor that neutralizes TNF that is a last ditch effort in severe Crohn’s

A

Infliximab (Remicade)

52
Q

Black box warning of Infliximab (Remicade)

A

Reactivation of latent TB

Gastroenterology (19 decks)

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