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ITIL 4 Exam Prep > ITIL Management Practices > Flashcards

ITIL Management Practices Flashcards

1
Q

Aligning the organization’s practices and services with changing business needs through the ongoing identification of services or any element involved in the efficient and effective management of products and services is the purpose of what practice

A

Continual Improvement

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2
Q

What are the 6 key activities of the SVC?

A

Engage, Plan, Obtain/Build, Design and Transition, Deliver and Support, & Improve

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3
Q

Products and Serivces are apart of the SVC.

A

False

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4
Q

What are the outputs of the SVC?

A

Products and Services (which customers value)

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5
Q

Securing time and budget, identifying, logging, assessing and prioritizing opportunities, all describes what?

A

The key activities of CIP (Continual Improvement Practices)

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6
Q

Methods and techniques of Continual Improvement includes:

A

LEAN, Agile, DevOps, Balanced Scorecard, & SWOT methods

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7
Q

Customer, Financial, Innovation (learning and growth), Internal (Business Processes), and Vision all makes up the what?

A

The Balanced Scorecard

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8
Q

SWOT stands for:

A

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats

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9
Q

To maximize the number of successful IT renovations by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed, authorizing, and managing change is the purpose of what practice?

A

Change Enablement

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10
Q

What is known as the addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services?

A

Change

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11
Q

Scopes defined by each organization generally includes:

A

Anything that might directly or indirectly impact a product or service

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12
Q

What are Beneficial Changes?

A

Changes which deliver additional value

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13
Q

What are Additional Risk?

A

Adverse effect of changes

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14
Q

People who are able to understand the risks and the expected benefits and then authorized before they are deployed usually deals with what?

A

Change Assessment

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15
Q

A person or group who approves change are known as what?

A

Change Authority

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16
Q

What must you do to ensure that change enablement is both efficient and effective?

A

Ensure the correct change authority is assigned to each type of change

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17
Q

A Change Schedule is used to:

A

Plan changes, Assist in Communication, Avoid Conflicts, Assign Resources

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18
Q

What supports risk assessment to gather input from many stakeholders and raises awareness and facilitate readiness?

A

A Change Schedule

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19
Q

Low risk, pre-authorized changes that are well-understood and fully documented.

A

Standard Changes

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20
Q

Changes that need to be scheduled, assessed, & authorized following a standard process

A

Normal Changes

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21
Q

What are the 3 types of changes?

A

Standard, Normal, & Emergency Change

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22
Q

Changes that must be implements asap.

A

Emergency Changes

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23
Q

To resolve an incident or implement a security patch, what change would you implement?

A

Emergency Change

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24
Q

To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operations as quickly as possible, describes what practice?

A

Incident Management

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25
Q

An unplanned interruption to a service, or reduction in the quality of a service.

A

Incident

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26
Q

Why do we use Incident Management tools?

A

It provides tracking and Automated Incident Matching

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27
Q

What should be timestamped and tracked?

A

Incident Management (which helps with documentation and Problem Management)

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28
Q

What should be logged and managed to ensure that it is resolved in a time that meets the expectations of the customer and user

A

Every incident

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29
Q

What should be prioritized based on the agreed classification?

A

Incidents

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30
Q

Why would you use separate processes?

A

To manage major incidents and for managing information security incidents

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31
Q

What should include information about symptoms, Business impact, Configuration Item affected, actions completed, and actions planned?

A

Updates

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32
Q

Investigation of more complicated incidents often requires what?

A

Knowledge and expertise, rather than procedural steps

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33
Q

Typically, the routing is based on what?

A

Incident Category

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34
Q

Who usually resolve incidents?

A

Users using Self-Help, Service Desk, or Support Team for resolution

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35
Q

Which practice reduces the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents and managing workarounds and known errors?

A

Problem Management

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36
Q

What is a problem?

A

A cause or potential cause of prior, current, or future incidents

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37
Q

A problem that has been analyzed and has not been resolved.

A

A Known Error

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38
Q

A solution that reduces or eliminates the impact of an incident or problem.

A

A Workaround

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39
Q

When should you use a workaround?

A

When a full resolution is not yet available

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40
Q

What is another name for unknown root causes of incidents?

A

Problems

41
Q

Diagnosed root causes of problems, which haven’t been resolved are known as what?

A

Known Errors

42
Q

What are the 3 phases of Problem Management?

A

Problem Identification, Problem Control, & Error Control

43
Q

In what Problem Management phase does analyzing problems occur?

A

Problem Control phase

44
Q

In which Problem Management phase does activities include problem analysis and documenting workarounds and known errors?

A

Problem Control

45
Q

In which Problem Management phase does activities identify and log problems?

A

Problem Identification

46
Q

In which Problem Management phase does activities manage known errors?

A

Error Control

47
Q

Analyzing information and detection of duplicate and recurring issues by users, service desk, and technical support staff are characteristics of what Problem Management phase?

A

Problem Identification

48
Q

Using and documenting workarounds, prioritizing and analyzing problems from all four dimensions of service management, are characteristics of what Problem Management phase?

A

Problem Control

49
Q

What includes the identification of potential permanent solutions?

A

Error Control

50
Q

What are the 6 key Problem Management Interfaces?

A

Incident, Problem, Knowledge, and Risk Management, Continual Improvement and Change Enablement

51
Q

What practice is to support the agreed upon quality of a service by handling all predefined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner?

A

Service Request Management

52
Q

A request from a user or user’s authorized representative that initiates a service action that has been agreed as a normal part of service delivery.

A

Service Request

53
Q

A request for: access to a resource, provision of a resource or service, information, service delivery action is known as what?

A

A Service Request

54
Q

What practice deals with handling feedback, compliments, and complaints?

A

Service Request Management

55
Q

What should be intensified and implemented to produce faster fulfillment times and take additional advantage of Automation?

A

Opportunities for Improvement

56
Q

What is a normal part of service delivery and are not a failure or degradation of service?

A

Service Requests

57
Q

The practice to capture demand for incident resolution and service requests is known as what?

A

Service Desk

58
Q

The point of communication for the service provider with all its users

A

Service Desk

59
Q

What is the focus of the Service Desk?

A

To provide support for people and business rather than simply technical issues

60
Q

Something that provides a clear path to report issues, queries, and requests and have them acknowledged, classified, owned, and actioned.

A

Service Desk

61
Q

What are some Service Desk channels?

A

Chat, Email, Walk-ins, Phone Calls, Mobile App, Portals, Text and Social Media Messaging

62
Q

What Service Desk Channel is useful in major incidents and for contacting specific stakeholder groups, Users can request support?

A

Text and Social Media Messaging

63
Q

What are three Service Desk types?

A

Local & Centralized Service Desk and Virtual Desk

64
Q

What is practice is use to set clear business-based targets for service performance so that the delivery of a service can be properly assessed, monitored, and managed?

A

Service Level Management

65
Q

What capture and reports on service issues and performs service reviews?

A

Service Level Management

66
Q

What are some Customer Feedback Methods?

A

Surveys and Business Metrics

67
Q

What is done before the SLA is created?

A

You engage with the customer

68
Q

Which skill is an essential part of the ‘Service Level Management’ practice?

A

Listening

69
Q

What practice is used to protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business?

A

Information Security Management

70
Q

What is CIA Triad?

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Available

71
Q

Only the people who have the right or need to know can access the information deals with which part of the CIA Triad?

A

Confidentiality

72
Q

Data remaining in it’s supposed state, deals with which part of the CIA Triad?

A

Integrity

73
Q

What does DIU stands for?

A

Data in Use

74
Q

What is the number one thing that can help protect against ransomware?

A

End-User Training

75
Q

Ensuring someone is who they claim to be.

A

Authentication

76
Q

Ensuring that someone can’t deny that they took an action.

A

Non-repudiation

77
Q

ISM (Information Security Management) operates primarily in three phases:

A

Prevent, Detect and Correct

78
Q

The practice to establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels.

A

Relationship Management

79
Q

To ensure that the organization’s suppliers and performance are managed appropriately to support the provision of seamless, quality products and services is the purpose of what practice?

A

Supplier Management

80
Q

Negotiate and agree on contracts and arrangements and manage relationships and contracts with internal and external suppliers are key activities of what practice?

A

Supplier Management

81
Q

What includes considering corporate culture to create closer, more collaborative relationships and realize new value and reduce the risk of failure?

A

Supplier Management

82
Q

Insourcing, Outsourcing, Single-source/partnership, and Multi-sourcing all have what in common?

A

They all deals with Supplier Management

83
Q

What practice is used to plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets to help the organization?

A

IT Asset Management

84
Q

IT Asset Management helps the organization:

A

Maximize Value, Control Cost, Manage Risks

85
Q

Any valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service.

A

IT Asset

86
Q

What practice helps an organization meet regulatory and contractual requirements, reuse and retirement of assets, and support decision-making about the purchase?

A

IT Asset Management

87
Q

The practice to systematically observe services and service components and record and report selected changes of state identified as events is known as what?

A

Monitoring and Event Management

88
Q

Any change of state that has significance for the management of a CI or IT Service.

A

An Event

89
Q

What is recognized as notifications created by an IT service, CI, or monitoring tool?

A

Events

90
Q

What practice focuses on the systematic observation of services and the CIs that underpin services to detect conditions of potential significance?

A

Monitoring Management

91
Q

What practice focuses on recording and managing any change of state, determining their significance & identifying and initiating the correct control action to manage them?

A

Event Management

92
Q

What practice is used to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services and CIs that support them is available when and where it is needed?

A

Service Configuration Management

93
Q

Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service.

A

Configuration Item (CI)

94
Q

What CIs does Service Configuration Management collects and manages information about?

A

Hardware, Software, Networks, Buildings, People, Suppliers, and Documentation

95
Q

What graphically shows the CIs that make up a service?

A

Simplified Service Model (Map)

96
Q

What practice that is used to move new or change hardware, software, documentation, processes, or any other component to live environment?

A

Deployment Management

97
Q

The practice that is to make new and changes services and features available for use.

A

Release Management

98
Q

What is the differences in release and deploy management?

A

Deploy is to move components into the live environment. Release is to make the service or product available for use (for consumers)

99
Q

Which comes first, Release or Deploy?

A

Deploy comes before Release

ITIL 4 Exam Prep (6 decks)

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