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Fall 2021: Therapeutics III > Introduction to Neoplasia (Wendt) > Flashcards

Introduction to Neoplasia (Wendt) Flashcards

1
Q

List the 10 hallmarks of cancer.

A
  1. Evading growth suppressors
  2. Avoiding immune destruction
  3. Enabling replicative immortality
  4. Tumor-proliferating inflammation
  5. Activating invasion and metastasis
  6. Inducing angiogenesis
  7. Genome instability and mutation
  8. Resisting cell death
  9. Deregulating cellular energetics
  10. Sustaining proliferative signaling
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2
Q

Define cancer.

A

any malignant neoplasm

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3
Q

Define tumor.

A

a nonspecific term meaning lump or swelling

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4
Q

Define neoplasm.

A

a new growth, may be benign or malignant

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5
Q

Define neoplasia.

A

a process of expansion due to defects in the molecular controls that regulate cellular proliferation and/or cell death

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6
Q

Define hyperplasia.

A

an increase in organ or tissue size due to an increase in the number of cells; can be physiologic, compensatory, or pathologic

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7
Q

Define metaplasia.

A

an adaptive, substitution of one type of adult tissue to another type of adult tissue

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8
Q

Define dysplasia.

A

an abnormal cellular proliferation in which there is loss of normal architecture

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9
Q

Define anaplasia.

A

a loss of structural differentiation

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10
Q

Define desmoplasia.

A

the formation and proliferation of connective tissues and cells

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11
Q

Characterize the given slide.

A

normal two-layered epithelium

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12
Q

Characterize the given slide.

A

squamous metaplasia

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13
Q

Characterize the given slide.

A

mild dysplasia

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14
Q

Characterize the given slide.

A

moderate dysplasia

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15
Q

Characterize the given slide.

A

severe dysplasia

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16
Q

Characterize the given slide.

A

carcinoma in situ

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17
Q

YM is a 45YOF that has detected a lump in her right breast. Upon needle biopsies of the mass, the pathologist notes substitution of the luminal epithelial cells of the mammary duct and incorporation of increased amounts of connective tissue. What would most likely be included in the pathologist’s report describing this tumor?

A

metaplastic desmoplasia

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18
Q

Define carcinoma.

A

malignant neoplasm of epithelial cell origin

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19
Q

Define adenoma.

A

an epithelial neoplasm which produces/is derived from glandular tissue

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20
Q

Define papilloma.

A

benign tumor of the surface epithelium in which neoplastic cells grow outward in finger-like fibrovascular stalks

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21
Q

Define teratoma.

A

a germ cell neoplasm made of several different differentiated cell/tissue types

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22
Q

Define sarcoma.

A

malignant neoplasm with origin in mesenchymal tissues or its derivatives

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23
Q

Define lymphoma/leukemia.

A

malignant neoplasms of hematopoeitic tissues

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24
Q

Define blastoma.

A

a type of cancer (more common in children) that is caused by malignancies in precursor cells, often called blasts

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25
Q

Define melanoma.

A

a type of cancer of pigment-producing cells (melanocytes) in the skin or eye

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26
Q

A 70YOM is determined to have a systemic malignancy originating from immune cells. The pathology report would state that this is ___________.

A

leukemia

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27
Q

Normal epithelial tissues are very ___________.

A

organized

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28
Q

What to agents are used to stain epithelial slides in a pathology setting?

A

hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)

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29
Q

What are the two possibilities that a multipotential hematopoeitic stem cell can differentiate into?

A

common myeloid progenitor, common lymphoid progenitor

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30
Q

What do natural killer cells differentiate from?

A

common lymphoid progenitor

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31
Q

What do lymphocytes differentiate from?

A

common lymphoid progenitor

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32
Q

What do megakaryocytes and erythrocytes originate from?

A

common myeloid progenitor

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33
Q

What do mast cells differentiate from?

A

common myeloid progenitor

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34
Q

What do myeloblasts differentiate from?

A

common myeloid progenitor

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35
Q

What do basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes differentiate from?

A

myeloblasts

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36
Q

What do macrophages differentiate from?

A

monocytes

37
Q

What do plasma cells differentiate from?

A

B lymphocytes

38
Q

Leukemia is a cancer of the _______ blood cells.

A

white

39
Q

In what cancer are you most likely to find Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (Hodgkin’s Disease)

40
Q

When numerically staging carcinomas, what does 0 mean?

A

in situ carcinoma, no sign of local invasion

41
Q

When numerically staging carcinomas, what does I mean?

A

miscroscopic invasion of surrounding tissue

42
Q

When numerically staging carcinomas, what does II mean?

A

4-9 surrounding lymph nodes are involved

43
Q

When numerically staging carcinomas, what does III mean?

A

10+ surrounding lymph nodes are involved

44
Q

When numerically staging carcinomas, what does IV mean?

A

distant metastases are detected

45
Q

Primarily, only _____ tumors get staged.

A

solid

46
Q

What do the T, N, and M stand for in the TNM staging system?

A
  • T = primary tumor
  • N = regional lymph nodes
  • M = distant metastasis
47
Q

What does TX/NX/MX mean in the TNM staging system?

A

cannot be evaluated

48
Q

What does T0/N0/M0 mean in the TNM staging system?

A

no evidence/no involvement/none present

49
Q

What does Tis mean in the TNM staging system?

A

carcinoma in situ (CIS); abnormal cells are present but have not spread to neighboring tissue

*although not cancer, CIS can become cancer and is sometimes called preinvasive cancer*

50
Q

TNM stage the following situation: a breast cancer is found to be a large tumor that has spread outside the breast to nearby lymph nodes, but not to other parts of the body.

A

T3 N2 M0

51
Q

TNM stage the following situation: a prostate cancer is located only in the prostate and has not spread to the lymph nodes or any other part of the body.

A

T2 N0 M0

52
Q

A 48YOF has a routine physical examination. A 4-cm diameter non-tender mass is palpated in her right breast. The mass appears fixed to the chest wall. Another 2-cm non-tender mass is palpable in the left axillary lymph node. A chest radiograph reveals multiple 0.5- to 2-cm nodules in both lungs. Which of the following TNM classifications best indicates the stage of her disease?

A

T4 N1 M1

53
Q

True or false: “summary staging” used by NCI’s SEER Program, is used for all types of cancer.

A

true

54
Q

What does in situ mean in summary staging?

A

abnormal cells are present only in the layer of cells in which they developed

55
Q

What does “localized” mean in summary staging?

A

cancer is limited to the organ in which it began, without evidence of spread

56
Q

What does “regional” mean in summary staging?

A

cancer has spread beyond the primary site to nearby lymph nodes or tissues and organs

57
Q

What does “distant” mean in summary staging?

A

cancer has spread from the primary site to distant tissues or organs or to distant lymph nodes

58
Q

What does “unknown” mean in summary staging?

A

there is not enough information to determine the stage

59
Q

What does it mean when tumor a tumor is graded as “well-differentiated”?

A

the tumor cells and tissue organization are close to those of normal cells and tissues

60
Q

What does it mean when a tumor is graded as “undifferentiated” or “poorly differentiated”?

A

tumors that are faster-growing and have abnormal-looking cells that may lack normal tissue structure

61
Q

What does GX mean?

A

grade cannot be assessed (undetermined grade)

62
Q

What does G1 mean?

A

well-differentiated (low grade)

63
Q

What does G2 mean?

A

moderately differentiated (intermediate grade)

64
Q

What does G3 mean?

A

poorly differentiated (high grade)

65
Q

What does G4 mean?

A

undifferentiated (high grade)

66
Q

Give an example of a viral cancer.

A

Rous Sarcoma Virus; a retrovirus and the first oncovirus to be described, which causes sarcoma in chickens

67
Q

Retroviruses are associated with what flow of genetic information?

A

reverse transcription, or the flow of genetic information from RNA to DNA

68
Q

Src and v-Src are capable of driving what two hallmarks of cancer?

A

proliferation and tumor progression

69
Q

Src is the first example of what we now term an ___________.

A

oncogene

70
Q

In general, cancer therapies are driven by the detection of what?

A

oncogenes

71
Q

Are loss-of-function mutations in tumor suppressor genes generally dominant or recessive?

A

recessive

72
Q

Is the activation of proto-oncogenes generally dominant or recessive?

A

dominant

73
Q

Give two examples of tumor suppressors.

A

retinoblastoma (Rb) and BRCA

74
Q

Examine the following sample. Would HER2-targeted drugs be used for this cancer?

A

no

75
Q

Examine the following sample. Would HER2-targeted drugs be used to treat this cancer?

A

yes

76
Q

____________ drives indications.

A

pathology

77
Q

How is it determined whether or not a patient will go on anti-EGFR therapies for their cancer?

A

Genomic DNA from lung cancer biopsies are tested via PCR for a particular EGFR mutation.

This is known as diagnostic molecular pathology.

78
Q

Oncotype DX utilizes what type of molecular pathology?

A

prognostic molecular pathology

79
Q

What is Oncotype DX used to predict?

A

chemotherapy benefit and likelihood of cancer recurrence from the expression of 21 genes

80
Q

Does Oncotype DX drive indications for specific therapies?

A

NO!

81
Q

True or false: for many tumors, the growth of the primary tumor is going to be life-threatening.

A

false

82
Q

What term is used to describe a wart produced by an HPV infection?

A

papilloma

83
Q

True or false: increasing cell size is a hallmark of cancer.

A

false

84
Q

How is molecular pathology different from traditional pathology?

A

it uses some kind of genetic testing to indicate therapy or predict tumor recurrence

85
Q

True or false: gene expression analyses like Oncotype DX are used to indicate for specific therapies.

A

false

86
Q

Which commonly-used dye in pathology stains the cell nucleus a blueish-purple color?

A

hemotoxylin

87
Q

What term is associated with substitution of one adult tissue type for another?

A

metaplasia

88
Q

HER2 is an example of what type of cancer gene?

A

oncogene

Fall 2021: Therapeutics III (25 decks)

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